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RAD 372 - Anatomy > Test 4 - Heart > Flashcards

Test 4 - Heart Flashcards

1
Q

Who is usually in charge of surgical radiography

A

surgeon

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2
Q

Who is 2nd in command for surgical surgery

A

anesthesiologist

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3
Q

Who works with the surgeon for surgical radiography

A

surgical assistant

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4
Q

Who assist the sterile team and work with surgical assistant

A

surg tech

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5
Q

Who assist the non-sterile team

A

circulator

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6
Q

Who prepare and protect sterile field

A

Scrub

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7
Q

what are the 3 types of imaging for surgical radiography

A

C-arm
Portable
Stationary

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8
Q

what are the essential attributes of technologists

A

confidence
mastery
problem-solving skills
communication skills

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9
Q

The primary source of radiation exposure to fluoroscopy staff is from ___

A

scattered radiation from patient

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10
Q

which of the following will minimize exposure to the neck and facial region
a. Keep tube below patient
b. keep tube above patient
c. keep image intensifier above patient
d. keep image intensifier below patient
e. A&C
f. B&D

A

E - tube below & intensifier above

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11
Q

if C-arm tilted 30 degree, exposure field changes to increase exposure to ____

A

upper body and facial region

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12
Q

which projection will have the least exposure to operator
a. AP
b. PA
c. 30 from vertical
d. horizontal

A

B

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13
Q

which projection will have the least exposure at the intensifier side
a. AP
b. PA
c. 30 from vertical
d. horizontal

A

D

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14
Q

which projection is not recommended as it result in high exposure
a. AP
b. PA
c. 30 from vertical
d. horizontal

A

A

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15
Q

Lap Chole removed___

A

gallbladder

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16
Q

what does lap chole try to locate

A

Biliary system

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17
Q

What is retrograde urography

A

examination of urinary system with contrast injected backward (retrograde) -

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18
Q

Fracture alignment with surgery is called —-
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning

A

B

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19
Q

Fracture alignment without surgery is ____
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning

A

A

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20
Q

Open reduction with external hardware is ____
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning

A

C

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21
Q

Open reduction with internal hardware is ____
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning

A

D

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22
Q

The surgical procedure in which rods, pins, screws are inserted to maintain alignment of bony fragments until new bone growth is called —–

A

ORIF (open reduction and internal fixation)

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23
Q

IM fixation has IM rods and nails inserted within —– of —- bones

A

shaft of long bones

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24
Q

Laminectomy is a —– procedure
a. orthopedic
b. spinal

A

B

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25
Q

what are the 3 spinal surgical procedure

A

a. laminectomy
b. fusion
c. microdiscectomy

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26
Q

why is Laminectomy performed

A

reduce pain caused by nerve impingement

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27
Q

why is Spinal Fusion performed

A

additional procedure to laminectomy which use rods, plates, screws to stabilize altered vertebrae

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28
Q

what is the primary centers of ossification

A

diaphysis

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29
Q

what is the secondary center of ossification

A

epiphysis

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30
Q

what is the area where bone grow in length

A

metaphysis

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31
Q

Metaphysis is between ___ & ____

A

diaphysis
epiphysis

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32
Q

What is the cartilage between epiphysis and metaphysis

A

epiphyseal plates

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33
Q

bone age study is to dertermine___

A

skeletal maturity

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34
Q

what are the 3 reasons to do bone age study

A
  1. forensic
  2. pathology
  3. future growth potential
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35
Q

what is the standard image for bone age study

A

PA of left hand & wrist

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36
Q

what is the major ossification called

A

endochondral

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37
Q

what is the skull ossification called

A

intramembraneous

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38
Q

what must be included for lateral skull [peds]

A

C-spine

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39
Q

what must be included for bilateral oblique thorax [peds]

A

sternum, ribs, T&L spine

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40
Q

what must be included for AP Abdomen [peds]

A

pelvis

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41
Q

what are the projections for chest [peds]

A

Erect & PA

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42
Q

CR for Chest [peds]

A

midthorax (nipple line)

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43
Q

Expose CHEST [peds] on _____

A

inspiration

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44
Q

what are used for immobilization of extremities [peds]

A

tape
sandbag
sponges
helper

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45
Q

kV for extremities [peds]

A

50-60

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46
Q

what are used for immobilization of skull [peds]

A

sponges
tape
avoid helper due to artifact on lateral margin

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47
Q

kV for skull [peds]

A

70-80

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48
Q

CR for Reverse Caldwell

A

15 cephalad to OML

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49
Q

pt prep for upper GI fluoro for
neonate & infant: ____
older infant & children: ____
adolescents: ____

A

NPO 3hrs before
NPO 4hrs before
NPO 6hrs before

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50
Q

the older the child, the ___ the gastric emptying
a. faster
b. slower

A

slower

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51
Q

BE in children often used ___
a. single contrast
b. double contrast

A

A

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52
Q

what kind of barium is used for children
a. thick
b. thin

A

thin

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53
Q

what is intussusception

A

telescoping of one part of intestine into another.
common in infants <2y

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54
Q

what procedure can be done to reduce intussusception

A

air enema

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55
Q

the cardiovascular system is divided into ___ &____

A

cardio and vascular

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56
Q

what does the vascular component include

A

pulmonary and systemic

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57
Q

whst describes the circulation from heart to lungs and back
a. pulmonary
b. systemic

A

pulmonary

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58
Q

what describes the circulation throughout the body
a. pulmonary
b. systemic

A

systemic

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59
Q

which component comprise network of blood vessels that carry blood from the heart to body tissues and back to the heart again
a. vascular
b. cardio

A

vascular

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60
Q

which side of the heart is deoxygenated
a. right
b. left

A

right

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61
Q

which side of the heart has oxygenated blood
a. right
b. left

A

left

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62
Q

pulmonary arteries carry ____ blood to the lungs –> heart –> SVC/IVC

A

deoxygenated

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63
Q

which element of blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
a. arteries
b. veins

A

A

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64
Q

the SVC/IVC empty blood into _____ of the heart

A

right atrium

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65
Q

heart pump ___ blood from right ventricle thru ____ to the lungs

A

deoxygenated
pulmonary arteries

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66
Q

the ____ blood returns thru _____ to the left atrium of the heart

A

oxygenated
pulmonary veins

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67
Q

The blood circulation system is in which ____ blood first enters ___ then it get _____ in the ____

A

deoxygenated
right atrium
reoxygenated
lungs

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68
Q

Which valve is located in the right atrium
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic

A

A

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69
Q

which valve is located in the right ventricle
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic

A

B

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70
Q

which valve is located in the left atrium
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic

A

C

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71
Q

which valve is located in the left ventricle
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic

A

D

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72
Q

blood returns from lungs to left atrium thru ____

A

pulmonary veins

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73
Q

what are the vessels that deliver blood to heart muscle

A

coronary arteries

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74
Q

what come off of the aortic bulb

A

R/L coronary artery

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75
Q

what is the major artery leaving the left ventricle of heart

A

aorta

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76
Q

what are the 3 branches arise from the aortic arch (from proximal to distal)

A

brachiocephalic
L common carotid
L subclavian

77
Q

Brachiocephalic bifurcates into ____ & ____

A

right common carotid artery
right subclavian artery

78
Q

which artery branches off of subclavian arteries

A

verbtebral

79
Q

which artery arises from left common carotid artery

A

left internal & external carotid artery

80
Q

which artery arise from left subclavian

A

left vertebral arteries

81
Q

which artery arise from brachiocephalic

A

right common carotid and right subclavian

82
Q

Common carotid artery is divided into ___ & ____

A

internal and external carotid arteries

83
Q

what are the 2 neck arteries

A

common carotid and vertebral

84
Q

What does external carotid artery supply?
a. anterior neck, face, scalp, meninges
b. cerebral hemisphere, pituitary gland, orbital structures, external nose, and anterior portion of brain

A

A

85
Q

What does internal carotid artery supply?
a. anterior neck, face, scalp, meninges
b. cerebral hemisphere, pituitary gland, orbital structures, external nose, and anterior portion of brain

A

B

86
Q

External carotid artery supply _____

A

anterior neck, face, scalp, meninges

87
Q

Internal carotid artery supply____

A

cerebral hemisphere, pituitary gland, orbital structures, external nose, and anterior portion of brain

88
Q

Right vertebral artery arise from ______ to pass through the ___ of cervical spine

A

right subclavian artery
transverse foramina

89
Q

What is the S-shaped portion of internal carotid artery is called ____

A

carotid siphon

90
Q

which artery are the two end branches of internal carotid artery

A

anterior & middle cerebral artery

91
Q

Blood to the brain is supplied by ____

A

internal carotid & vertebral arteries

92
Q

What is circle of Willis

A

posterior circulation communicate w anterior circulation along the base of the brain

93
Q

for the posterior circle of willis, vertebral artery fused to _____

A

basilar artery

94
Q

Posterior communication is between ___ & ___

A

internal carotid and posterior vertebral

95
Q

Which artery directly arise from internal carotid

A

Middle cerebral

96
Q

The abdominal aorta is the continuation of ____

A

thoracic aorta

97
Q

the abdominal aorta bifurcates into _____

A

common iliac arteries

98
Q

[Pathway of blood flow thru heart]
Deoxygenated blood starts in _____ –> ____ –> _____
Oxygenated blood starts in ___ –> ____ –> _____

A

right atrium - right ventricle - pulmonary arteries
left atrium - left ventricle - aorta

99
Q

What the difference between pulmonary arteries and aorta arteries

A

pulmonary carry deoxygenated blood
aorta carry oxygenated blood

100
Q

function of pulmonary circuit

A

carries deoxygenated blood into lungs

101
Q

function of systemic circuit

A

delivers oxygenated blood to tissues

102
Q

The aorta is divided into 5 parts which are (list in order)

A

bulb
ascending
arch
thoracic aorta (descending)
abdominal aorta

103
Q

abdominal aorta splits into _____ to supply blood to _____

A

iliac arteries
lower extremities

104
Q

what are the 5 branches arise from abdominal aorta

A

celiac
superior mesenteric
RT/LT renal
inferior mesenteric
iliac

105
Q

Celiac branches off further into ____ (3) [list from right to left]

A

gastric
hepatic
splenic

106
Q

The arteries branches off celiac trunk supply blood to which organs ___ (3)

A

stomach
liver
spleen

107
Q

common iliac bifurcates into ____

A

external & internal iliac

108
Q

superior mesenteric supplies blood to ____

A

pancreases , small intestine

109
Q

inferior mesenteric supplies blood to _____

A

large intestine

110
Q

internal iliac supplies blood to ____

A

pelvic organs ( urinary bladder, rectum, reproductive organs, pelvic muscles)

111
Q

external iliac supplies blood to ____

A

lower extremities

112
Q

what is the first artery to enter lower extremity (continuation of external iliac)

A

common femoral artery

113
Q

Common femoral artery is divided into ___

A

deep and superficial femoral

114
Q

The femoral artery extend down the leg and becomes _____ artery

A

popliteal

115
Q

Popliteal artery bifurcates into _____

A

anterior and posterior tibial

116
Q

anterior tibial artery supplies the ____ & ____

A

ankle
foot

117
Q

posterior tibial artery supplies the ___ & ___

A

calf
plantar surface of foot

118
Q

which other artery share the same branch as posterior tibial artery

A

peroneal (fibula) artery

119
Q

The arterial circulation of upper extremities begin at ____

A

subclavian artery

120
Q

what is the difference bw the LT & RT subclavian artery

A

LT: originate from aortic arch
RT: originate from brachiocephalic artery

121
Q

LT subclavian artery originate from _____

A

aortic arch

122
Q

RT subclavian artery originate from ____

A

brachiocephalic artery

123
Q

List the continuation of RT subclavian artery

A

axillary –> brachial

124
Q

Brachial artery bifurcates into ____

A

ulnar and radial arteries

125
Q

Ulnar and radial arteries unite to form ____

A

palmar arch (deep & superficial)

126
Q

what are the 3 major veins that drain the head, face, and neck region

A

internal jugular
external jugular
vertebral

127
Q

internal jugular vein drains ___ & ___

A

meninges
brain

128
Q

the R and L brachiocephalic veins join to form _____

A

superior vena cava

129
Q

external jugular vein drains ___

A

scalp and much of face and neck

130
Q

internal jugular vein eventually become ___

A

brachiocephalic

131
Q

external jugular vein eventually joined to become ___

A

subclavian vein

132
Q

Vertebral veins enter ___ of C1-C6 and enters ____ vein

A

transverse foramen
subclavian

133
Q

a space between two layers of dura, along the superior portion of longitudinal fissure is ____
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus

A

A

134
Q

____ sinus flow posteriorly and drains into the straight sinus
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus

A

B

135
Q

the straight sinus and superior sagittal sinus empty into ___
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus

A

C

136
Q

which sinus curves medially to occupy a groove along mastoid portion of temporal bone
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus

A

C

137
Q

sigmoid sinus curve to continue as the _____

A

internal jugular veins

138
Q

the venous system of upper limb is divided into____

A

deep and superficial veins

139
Q

Cephalic veins are ___
a. lateral
b. medial

A

A

140
Q

basilic veins are ____
a. lateral
b. medial

A

B

141
Q

which vein is the most commonly used to draw blood

A

median cubital

142
Q

which vein is anterior to the elbow joint

A

median cubital

143
Q

what are upper limb superficial veins

A

cephalic
basilic
median cubital

144
Q

what are upper limb deep veins

A

brachial veins
radial veins
ulnar veins

145
Q

brachial veins of upper limb drains into___ (3)

A

radial vein
ulnar vein
palmar arch

146
Q

deep venous route of upper limb

A

deep brachial veins join superficial basilic veins –> axillary veins –> subclavian –> SVC

147
Q

axillary accepts drainage from ____

A

brachial
basilic
cephalic

148
Q

what are the lower limb superficial veins

A

great saphenous
small saphenous

149
Q

great saphenous vein starts at __
a. dorsum foot
b. lateral foot

A

A

150
Q

small saphenous vein starts at __
a. dorsum foot
b. lateral foot

A

B

151
Q

popliteal vein of lower limb accept drainage from ____

A

small saphenous vein

152
Q

femoral vein receive drainage from____

A

great saphenous
popliteal

153
Q

external iliac fused into _____

A

inferior vena cava

154
Q

external iliac fused into _____

A

inferior vena cava

155
Q

popliteal veins of lower limb continue upward to become ____ first then become ____

A

femoral vein
external iliac vein

156
Q

Route of contrast from median cubital vein to SVC

A

median cubital –> basilar or cephalic –> axillary –> subclavian –> brachiocephalic –> SVC

157
Q

Which vein drain into axillary vein

A

Basilic veins

158
Q

Internal jugular veins drain into ___

A

Brachiocephalic

159
Q

External jugular vein drains into___

A

Subclavian

160
Q

Axillary accepts drainage from ___

A

Brachial, basilic, cephalic

161
Q

What is arthrography

A

Contrast study of synovial joint

162
Q

Arthrography demonstrates____

A

Joint capsule
Ligaments
Tendons
Cartilages

163
Q

What is contraindication to arthrography

A

iodinated contrast

164
Q

What are on the arthrogram tray

A

Sterile drapes
Needles
Contrast
Betadine

165
Q

Arthrogram are in conjunction with ___

A

CT & MRI

166
Q

[Arthrogram]
MRI will mix ___ and ___ contrast

A

Iodinated (xray)
Gadolinium (MRI)

167
Q

What are we looking for when doing an arthrogram for shoulder

A

Rotator cuff tear

168
Q

Rotator Cuff is made of ___ muscles/tendons

A

4
Inferior spinatus
Superior spinatus
Subscapularis
Teres minor

169
Q

What can help indicate a rotator cuff tear

A

Contrast within subacromial

170
Q

Arthrography can be used for a study of which joints

A

Hip
Knee, ankle
Shoulder, elbow, wrist
TMJ

171
Q

What are post procedure steps (arthrography)

A

Move joint
Inform patient of full feeling, pain, infection

172
Q

What is HSG

A

Hysterosalpingography
Contrast study of uterus and fallopian tube

173
Q

What are the reasons to perform HSG

A

infertility
Lesions
Fistula

174
Q

What are contraindications to HSG (4)

A

PREGNANCY
Iodinated
Acute PID
Active uterine bleeding

175
Q

What are on HSG tray

A

Speculum
Tube/balloon catheter
Contrast

176
Q

Patient prep for HSG

A

Bowel prep
Void prior to exam
Signed informed consent

177
Q

HSG procedure

A

Patient in lithotomy/ trendelenburg
Insert speculum and clean area
Place balloon catheter into uterus
Inject contrast
Images

178
Q

CR for HSG AP scout

A

2” superior to symphysis pubis

179
Q

what method is used to restrict blood flow

A

transcatheter embolization

180
Q

Seldinger Technique

A

insert needle into lumen of vessel
insert guidewire
remove needle
thread catheter
remove guidewire

181
Q

Injection areas for angiogram (4) which is preferred

A

femoral (preferred)
axillary
brachial
radial

182
Q

what is a PICC line used for

A

To give IV fluids, medications, or nutrition

183
Q

What is embolization used for

A

to restrict blood flow

184
Q

What age does metacarpals, phalanges, radius, and ulna develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years

A

A

185
Q

What age does capitate and hamate develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years

A

B

186
Q

What age does epiphyses of metacarpals, phalanges, distal radius, develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years

A

C

187
Q

What age does epiphyseal widening, triquetrum, lunate, trapezium, trapezoid, scaphoid develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years

A

D

188
Q

What age does epiphyseal overlap on metaphysis, pisiform, sesamoid develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years

A

E

189
Q

What age does epiphyseal fusion to metaphysis develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years

A

F

RAD 372 - Anatomy (6 decks)

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