Test 4 - Heart Flashcards
1
Q
Who is usually in charge of surgical radiography
A
surgeon
2
Q
Who is 2nd in command for surgical surgery
A
anesthesiologist
3
Q
Who works with the surgeon for surgical radiography
A
surgical assistant
4
Q
Who assist the sterile team and work with surgical assistant
A
surg tech
5
Q
Who assist the non-sterile team
A
circulator
6
Q
Who prepare and protect sterile field
A
Scrub
7
Q
what are the 3 types of imaging for surgical radiography
A
C-arm
Portable
Stationary
8
Q
what are the essential attributes of technologists
A
confidence
mastery
problem-solving skills
communication skills
9
Q
The primary source of radiation exposure to fluoroscopy staff is from ___
A
scattered radiation from patient
10
Q
which of the following will minimize exposure to the neck and facial region
a. Keep tube below patient
b. keep tube above patient
c. keep image intensifier above patient
d. keep image intensifier below patient
e. A&C
f. B&D
A
E - tube below & intensifier above
11
Q
if C-arm tilted 30 degree, exposure field changes to increase exposure to ____
A
upper body and facial region
12
Q
which projection will have the least exposure to operator
a. AP
b. PA
c. 30 from vertical
d. horizontal
A
B
13
Q
which projection will have the least exposure at the intensifier side
a. AP
b. PA
c. 30 from vertical
d. horizontal
A
D
14
Q
which projection is not recommended as it result in high exposure
a. AP
b. PA
c. 30 from vertical
d. horizontal
A
A
15
Q
Lap Chole removed___
A
gallbladder
16
Q
what does lap chole try to locate
A
Biliary system
17
Q
What is retrograde urography
A
examination of urinary system with contrast injected backward (retrograde) -
18
Q
Fracture alignment with surgery is called —-
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning
A
B
19
Q
Fracture alignment without surgery is ____
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning
A
A
20
Q
Open reduction with external hardware is ____
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning
A
C
21
Q
Open reduction with internal hardware is ____
a. closed reduction
b. open reduction
c. external fixation
d. internal fixation
e. intramedullary fixation
f. hip pinning
A
D
22
Q
The surgical procedure in which rods, pins, screws are inserted to maintain alignment of bony fragments until new bone growth is called —–
A
ORIF (open reduction and internal fixation)
23
Q
IM fixation has IM rods and nails inserted within —– of —- bones
A
shaft of long bones
24
Q
Laminectomy is a —– procedure
a. orthopedic
b. spinal
A
B
25
what are the 3 spinal surgical procedure
a. laminectomy
b. fusion
c. microdiscectomy
26
why is Laminectomy performed
reduce pain caused by nerve impingement
27
why is Spinal Fusion performed
additional procedure to laminectomy which use rods, plates, screws to stabilize altered vertebrae
28
what is the primary centers of ossification
diaphysis
29
what is the secondary center of ossification
epiphysis
30
what is the area where bone grow in length
metaphysis
31
Metaphysis is between ___ & ____
diaphysis
epiphysis
32
What is the cartilage between epiphysis and metaphysis
epiphyseal plates
33
bone age study is to dertermine___
skeletal maturity
34
what are the 3 reasons to do bone age study
1. forensic
2. pathology
3. future growth potential
35
what is the standard image for bone age study
PA of left hand & wrist
36
what is the major ossification called
endochondral
37
what is the skull ossification called
intramembraneous
38
what must be included for lateral skull [peds]
C-spine
39
what must be included for bilateral oblique thorax [peds]
sternum, ribs, T&L spine
40
what must be included for AP Abdomen [peds]
pelvis
41
what are the projections for chest [peds]
Erect & PA
42
CR for Chest [peds]
midthorax (nipple line)
43
Expose CHEST [peds] on _____
inspiration
44
what are used for immobilization of extremities [peds]
tape
sandbag
sponges
helper
45
kV for extremities [peds]
50-60
46
what are used for immobilization of skull [peds]
sponges
tape
avoid helper due to artifact on lateral margin
47
kV for skull [peds]
70-80
48
CR for Reverse Caldwell
15 cephalad to OML
49
pt prep for upper GI fluoro for
neonate & infant: ____
older infant & children: ____
adolescents: ____
NPO 3hrs before
NPO 4hrs before
NPO 6hrs before
50
the older the child, the ___ the gastric emptying
a. faster
b. slower
slower
51
BE in children often used ___
a. single contrast
b. double contrast
A
52
what kind of barium is used for children
a. thick
b. thin
thin
53
what is intussusception
telescoping of one part of intestine into another.
common in infants <2y
54
what procedure can be done to reduce intussusception
air enema
55
the cardiovascular system is divided into ___ &____
cardio and vascular
56
what does the vascular component include
pulmonary and systemic
57
whst describes the circulation from heart to lungs and back
a. pulmonary
b. systemic
pulmonary
58
what describes the circulation throughout the body
a. pulmonary
b. systemic
systemic
59
which component comprise network of blood vessels that carry blood from the heart to body tissues and back to the heart again
a. vascular
b. cardio
vascular
60
which side of the heart is deoxygenated
a. right
b. left
right
61
which side of the heart has oxygenated blood
a. right
b. left
left
62
pulmonary arteries carry ____ blood to the lungs --> heart --> SVC/IVC
deoxygenated
63
which element of blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
a. arteries
b. veins
A
64
the SVC/IVC empty blood into _____ of the heart
right atrium
65
heart pump ___ blood from right ventricle thru ____ to the lungs
deoxygenated
pulmonary arteries
66
the ____ blood returns thru _____ to the left atrium of the heart
oxygenated
pulmonary veins
67
The blood circulation system is in which ____ blood first enters ___ then it get _____ in the ____
deoxygenated
right atrium
reoxygenated
lungs
68
Which valve is located in the right atrium
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic
A
69
which valve is located in the right ventricle
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic
B
70
which valve is located in the left atrium
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic
C
71
which valve is located in the left ventricle
a. tricuspid
b.pulmonary
c. bicuspid
d. aortic
D
72
blood returns from lungs to left atrium thru ____
pulmonary veins
73
what are the vessels that deliver blood to heart muscle
coronary arteries
74
what come off of the aortic bulb
R/L coronary artery
75
what is the major artery leaving the left ventricle of heart
aorta
76
what are the 3 branches arise from the aortic arch (from proximal to distal)
brachiocephalic
L common carotid
L subclavian
77
Brachiocephalic bifurcates into ____ & ____
right common carotid artery
right subclavian artery
78
which artery branches off of subclavian arteries
verbtebral
79
which artery arises from left common carotid artery
left internal & external carotid artery
80
which artery arise from left subclavian
left vertebral arteries
81
which artery arise from brachiocephalic
right common carotid and right subclavian
82
Common carotid artery is divided into ___ & ____
internal and external carotid arteries
83
what are the 2 neck arteries
common carotid and vertebral
84
What does external carotid artery supply?
a. anterior neck, face, scalp, meninges
b. cerebral hemisphere, pituitary gland, orbital structures, external nose, and anterior portion of brain
A
85
What does internal carotid artery supply?
a. anterior neck, face, scalp, meninges
b. cerebral hemisphere, pituitary gland, orbital structures, external nose, and anterior portion of brain
B
86
External carotid artery supply _____
anterior neck, face, scalp, meninges
87
Internal carotid artery supply____
cerebral hemisphere, pituitary gland, orbital structures, external nose, and anterior portion of brain
88
Right vertebral artery arise from ______ to pass through the ___ of cervical spine
right subclavian artery
transverse foramina
89
What is the S-shaped portion of internal carotid artery is called ____
carotid siphon
90
which artery are the two end branches of internal carotid artery
anterior & middle cerebral artery
91
Blood to the brain is supplied by ____
internal carotid & vertebral arteries
92
What is circle of Willis
posterior circulation communicate w anterior circulation along the base of the brain
93
for the posterior circle of willis, vertebral artery fused to _____
basilar artery
94
Posterior communication is between ___ & ___
internal carotid and posterior vertebral
95
Which artery directly arise from internal carotid
Middle cerebral
96
The abdominal aorta is the continuation of ____
thoracic aorta
97
the abdominal aorta bifurcates into _____
common iliac arteries
98
[Pathway of blood flow thru heart]
Deoxygenated blood starts in _____ --> ____ --> _____
Oxygenated blood starts in ___ --> ____ --> _____
right atrium - right ventricle - pulmonary arteries
left atrium - left ventricle - aorta
99
What the difference between pulmonary arteries and aorta arteries
pulmonary carry deoxygenated blood
aorta carry oxygenated blood
100
function of pulmonary circuit
carries deoxygenated blood into lungs
101
function of systemic circuit
delivers oxygenated blood to tissues
102
The aorta is divided into 5 parts which are (list in order)
bulb
ascending
arch
thoracic aorta (descending)
abdominal aorta
103
abdominal aorta splits into _____ to supply blood to _____
iliac arteries
lower extremities
104
what are the 5 branches arise from abdominal aorta
celiac
superior mesenteric
RT/LT renal
inferior mesenteric
iliac
105
Celiac branches off further into ____ (3) [list from right to left]
gastric
hepatic
splenic
106
The arteries branches off celiac trunk supply blood to which organs ___ (3)
stomach
liver
spleen
107
common iliac bifurcates into ____
external & internal iliac
108
superior mesenteric supplies blood to ____
pancreases , small intestine
109
inferior mesenteric supplies blood to _____
large intestine
110
internal iliac supplies blood to ____
pelvic organs ( urinary bladder, rectum, reproductive organs, pelvic muscles)
111
external iliac supplies blood to ____
lower extremities
112
what is the first artery to enter lower extremity (continuation of external iliac)
common femoral artery
113
Common femoral artery is divided into ___
deep and superficial femoral
114
The femoral artery extend down the leg and becomes _____ artery
popliteal
115
Popliteal artery bifurcates into _____
anterior and posterior tibial
116
anterior tibial artery supplies the ____ & ____
ankle
foot
117
posterior tibial artery supplies the ___ & ___
calf
plantar surface of foot
118
which other artery share the same branch as posterior tibial artery
peroneal (fibula) artery
119
The arterial circulation of upper extremities begin at ____
subclavian artery
120
what is the difference bw the LT & RT subclavian artery
LT: originate from aortic arch
RT: originate from brachiocephalic artery
121
LT subclavian artery originate from _____
aortic arch
122
RT subclavian artery originate from ____
brachiocephalic artery
123
List the continuation of RT subclavian artery
axillary --> brachial
124
Brachial artery bifurcates into ____
ulnar and radial arteries
125
Ulnar and radial arteries unite to form ____
palmar arch (deep & superficial)
126
what are the 3 major veins that drain the head, face, and neck region
internal jugular
external jugular
vertebral
127
internal jugular vein drains ___ & ___
meninges
brain
128
the R and L brachiocephalic veins join to form _____
superior vena cava
129
external jugular vein drains ___
scalp and much of face and neck
130
internal jugular vein eventually become ___
brachiocephalic
131
external jugular vein eventually joined to become ___
subclavian vein
132
Vertebral veins enter ___ of C1-C6 and enters ____ vein
transverse foramen
subclavian
133
a space between two layers of dura, along the superior portion of longitudinal fissure is ____
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus
A
134
____ sinus flow posteriorly and drains into the straight sinus
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus
B
135
the straight sinus and superior sagittal sinus empty into ___
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus
C
136
which sinus curves medially to occupy a groove along mastoid portion of temporal bone
a. superior sagittal sinus
b. inferior sagittal sinus
c. transverse sinus
d. sigmoid sinus
C
137
sigmoid sinus curve to continue as the _____
internal jugular veins
138
the venous system of upper limb is divided into____
deep and superficial veins
139
Cephalic veins are ___
a. lateral
b. medial
A
140
basilic veins are ____
a. lateral
b. medial
B
141
which vein is the most commonly used to draw blood
median cubital
142
which vein is anterior to the elbow joint
median cubital
143
what are upper limb superficial veins
cephalic
basilic
median cubital
144
what are upper limb deep veins
brachial veins
radial veins
ulnar veins
145
brachial veins of upper limb drains into___ (3)
radial vein
ulnar vein
palmar arch
146
deep venous route of upper limb
deep brachial veins join superficial basilic veins --> axillary veins --> subclavian --> SVC
147
axillary accepts drainage from ____
brachial
basilic
cephalic
148
what are the lower limb superficial veins
great saphenous
small saphenous
149
great saphenous vein starts at __
a. dorsum foot
b. lateral foot
A
150
small saphenous vein starts at __
a. dorsum foot
b. lateral foot
B
151
popliteal vein of lower limb accept drainage from ____
small saphenous vein
152
femoral vein receive drainage from____
great saphenous
popliteal
153
external iliac fused into _____
inferior vena cava
154
external iliac fused into _____
inferior vena cava
155
popliteal veins of lower limb continue upward to become ____ first then become ____
femoral vein
external iliac vein
156
Route of contrast from median cubital vein to SVC
median cubital --> basilar or cephalic --> axillary --> subclavian --> brachiocephalic --> SVC
157
Which vein drain into axillary vein
Basilic veins
158
Internal jugular veins drain into ___
Brachiocephalic
159
External jugular vein drains into___
Subclavian
160
Axillary accepts drainage from ___
Brachial, basilic, cephalic
161
What is arthrography
Contrast study of synovial joint
162
Arthrography demonstrates____
Joint capsule
Ligaments
Tendons
Cartilages
163
What is contraindication to arthrography
iodinated contrast
164
What are on the arthrogram tray
Sterile drapes
Needles
Contrast
Betadine
165
Arthrogram are in conjunction with ___
CT & MRI
166
[Arthrogram]
MRI will mix ___ and ___ contrast
Iodinated (xray)
Gadolinium (MRI)
167
What are we looking for when doing an arthrogram for shoulder
Rotator cuff tear
168
Rotator Cuff is made of ___ muscles/tendons
4
Inferior spinatus
Superior spinatus
Subscapularis
Teres minor
169
What can help indicate a rotator cuff tear
Contrast within subacromial
170
Arthrography can be used for a study of which joints
Hip
Knee, ankle
Shoulder, elbow, wrist
TMJ
171
What are post procedure steps (arthrography)
Move joint
Inform patient of full feeling, pain, infection
172
What is HSG
Hysterosalpingography
Contrast study of uterus and fallopian tube
173
What are the reasons to perform HSG
infertility
Lesions
Fistula
174
What are contraindications to HSG (4)
PREGNANCY
Iodinated
Acute PID
Active uterine bleeding
175
What are on HSG tray
Speculum
Tube/balloon catheter
Contrast
176
Patient prep for HSG
Bowel prep
Void prior to exam
Signed informed consent
177
HSG procedure
Patient in lithotomy/ trendelenburg
Insert speculum and clean area
Place balloon catheter into uterus
Inject contrast
Images
178
CR for HSG AP scout
2” superior to symphysis pubis
179
what method is used to restrict blood flow
transcatheter embolization
180
Seldinger Technique
insert needle into lumen of vessel
insert guidewire
remove needle
thread catheter
remove guidewire
181
Injection areas for angiogram (4) which is preferred
femoral (preferred)
axillary
brachial
radial
182
what is a PICC line used for
To give IV fluids, medications, or nutrition
183
What is embolization used for
to restrict blood flow
184
What age does metacarpals, phalanges, radius, and ulna develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years
A
185
What age does capitate and hamate develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years
B
186
What age does epiphyses of metacarpals, phalanges, distal radius, develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years
C
187
What age does epiphyseal widening, triquetrum, lunate, trapezium, trapezoid, scaphoid develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years
D
188
What age does epiphyseal overlap on metaphysis, pisiform, sesamoid develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years
E
189
What age does epiphyseal fusion to metaphysis develop?
A. birth - 3 months
B. 3 months - 14 months
C. 14 months - 3 years
D. 3 years - 9 years
E. 9 years - 14 years
F. 14+ years
F
