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RAD 372 - Anatomy > TEST 1 (GU studies,) > Flashcards

TEST 1 (GU studies,) Flashcards

1
Q

Where IV Contrast is being used

??

A

Urinary system
Vascular System
CT/ MRI

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2
Q

A substance containing ions is called ___

A

ionic

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3
Q

Ion is ____

A

atom with + or - charge

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4
Q

cation ____ electrons
anion _____ electrons

A

loses
gains

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5
Q

what is ionization

A

separating neutral atom into ions

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6
Q

The # of osmoles of a solution is called ____

A

osmolality

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7
Q

what is osmoles

A

particles that contribute to osmotic pressure

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8
Q

what is required to stop osmosis

A

osmotic pressure

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9
Q

increased osmotic pressure = ____ osmotic events

A

increased

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10
Q

Osmosis is the movement of a solvent from ____ concentration to ____ concentration

A

low
high

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11
Q

What is the chain of events that happens when contrast is injected

A

increased osmoles –> increased chain of reactions –> body reacting more to maintain homeostasis

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12
Q

What contrast media is used for urography

A

Iodine

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13
Q

What does high atomic number of iodine indicate

A

high attenuation of X-ray beam and better visualization of structures

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14
Q

what is the structure of all iodinated contrast agents

A

benzene structure with 3 iodine atoms & 2 groups of amino acid

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15
Q

Iodine is a ____ element

A

opacifying

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16
Q

Iodine contrast agent is also referred as ____ molecule

A

tri-iodinated

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17
Q

What are 4 types of iodinated contrast

A
  1. Ionic - High Osmolar Contrast Media (HOCM)
  2. Nonionic - Low osmolar Contrast media (LOCM)
  3. Monomer
  4. Dimer
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18
Q

Which type of iodinated contrast does not contain charged ion

A

nonionic

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19
Q

Ionic contrast usually contains which charged component

A

positive (cation)

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20
Q

What is the role of cation in ionic contrast medium

A

increase solubility

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21
Q

What is the role of anion in ionic contrast medium

A

stabilize & detoxify

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22
Q

Injecting ionic contrast will ____ osmolality

A

increase

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23
Q

An ionic tri-iodinated monomer can increase the osmolality of plasma is considered _____

A

high-osmolar contrast media (HOCM)

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24
Q

Which type of iodinated contrast will decrease chance of reaction?

A

non-ionic & LOCM

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25
Q

Which type of iodinated contrast will increase chance of reaction?

A

ionic & HOCM

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26
Q

Which type of iodinated contrast is recommend for use as IV contrast injection

A

nonionic - LOCM

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27
Q

Why LOCM is preferred over HOCM

A

Pt less likely to have contrast medium reaction.
LOCA is nonionic so it doesn’t go through ionization so the molecule is intact –> lower osmoles –> decrease osmolality –> decrease chance of reaction. BUT there is an increase in concentration in the blood stream so the body doesn’t work as hard to maintain balance

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28
Q

Why monomer and dimer are used?
need to double check again

A

increase # of opacifying elements (iodine) per molecule to decrease amount of ___ to see vascular structures

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29
Q

What happened (molecular level) when the ion contrast is injected

A

ionization –> separate cation (salt) & anion –> increase osmolality -> increase osmotic events –> increase osmosis –> body tried to balance

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30
Q

What are the 3 things technologist must check for on patient’s chart before proceeding with the injection

A
  1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
  2. Creatinine
  3. eGFR ( estimated glomerular filtration rate)
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31
Q

what are the 2 diagnostic indicators of kidney function

A
  1. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
  2. Creatinine
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32
Q

An increase in level of BUN and creatinine indicated ____

A

compromised kidneys –> cant be injected with contrast

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33
Q

What is normal creatinine level

A

0.6 - 1.5 mg/dL

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34
Q

what is normal BUN level

A

8-25 mg/ 100mL

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35
Q

what is normal eGFR level?
what is the ACR recommends?

A

> 60 mL/ min
<30 mL/ min has a risk for contrast

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36
Q

What is the most reliable diagnostic indicator on a pt’s chart [Urinary System]

A

eGFR

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37
Q

What are possible contraindications to iodine contrast (5)

A
  1. iodine sensitivity
  2. kidney problems (except stones)
  3. allergies
  4. prior reactions
  5. Diabetic
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38
Q

Patient whos taking ____ can be given iodine contrast only if their kidney function levels are within normal limit

A

metformin

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39
Q

What is Metformin

A

a drug for non-insulin dependent diabetes patient

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40
Q

What does metformin do ?

A

decrease hepatic glucose and increase body’s response to insulin

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41
Q

The patient can continue to use prior to or following contrast injection if the eGFR level is ____

A

30mL or greater

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42
Q

If there is evidence of AKI (acute kidney injury), what is the instruction for metformin use?

A

withheld prior to injection and for 48hours after injection

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43
Q

What are the common side effects that may occur after an IV injection (3)

A
  1. nausea
  2. metallic taste
  3. warm, flush feeling
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44
Q

Which medical equipment must be readily available whenever IV injection is performed

A

crash cart

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45
Q

What are two categories of contrast medium reaction

A

local
systemic

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46
Q

___ reactions affect specific region of the body

A

local

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47
Q

____ reactions do not affect site of injection but entire body or specific organ

A

systemic

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48
Q

Which categories of reactions can lead to significant complications

A

systemic

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49
Q

What are the 2 local reactions to contrast medium

A

extravasation & phlebitis

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50
Q

What is extravasation

A

contrast leak outside the vessel and fills the surrounding soft tissue surrounding the access site (BLOW VEIN)

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51
Q

extravasation aka ____

A

infiltration

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52
Q

What caused extravasation

A

venous access is lost

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53
Q

What is the common protocol for extravasation? (4)

A

Notify the nurse/physician
Elevate the affected arm above the heart
Cold and warm compress
Document

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54
Q

What is phlebitis

A

inflammation of vein

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55
Q

3 categories for systemic reactions

A

mild, moderate, severe

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56
Q

Which of the following is considered as a moderate reaction?
a. anxiety
b. hypotension
c. syncope
d. hives

A

B

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57
Q

A severe reaction is also known as __

A

vasovagal

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58
Q

The moderate reaction is also known as ___

A

anaphylactic reaction

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59
Q

Which of the 3 categories of systemic rxns is the most common

A

MILD

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60
Q

Uticaria is considered ____ reaction

A

MILD

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61
Q

Syncope (or ___) is considered ____ reaction

A

fainting - MILD

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62
Q

Tachycardia is _____ reaction
Bradycardia is _____ reaction

A

Moderate
Severe

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63
Q

Angioedema is ____ reaction

A

Moderate

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64
Q

what is angioedema

A

swelling of soft tissue

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65
Q

Convulsion, LUC are ____ reaction

A

Severe

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66
Q

Respiratory arrest is _____ reaction

A

severe

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67
Q

What is the cause of mild reaction like nausea or syncope

A

Anxiety

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68
Q

normal excretion of contrast is _____ within ___

A

100% - 24hrs

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69
Q

Reactions can be delayed up to ____

A

48hours

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70
Q

all life-threatening events occur within the first ____ after injection

A

20 min

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71
Q

Kidneys lies in the ____ space

A

retroperitoneal

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72
Q

Which kidney is higher than other? Why

A

LEFT because of the liver on the right side

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73
Q

Location of adrenal gland

A

superior & medial to each kidney

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74
Q

Location of kidney

A

between iliac crest and xiphoid process (T11-L3)

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75
Q

which structure connect kidney to urinary bladder

A

ureters

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76
Q

Urine is eliminated from the body through ___

A

urethra

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77
Q

Kidneys are in the most ___ part of the abdominal cavity
a. anterior
b. posterior

A

posterior

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78
Q

Normal obliquity of kidneys? due to what?

A

30
psoas muscles on two side

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79
Q

Ureters are anterior to which muscle group

A

psoas

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80
Q

Ureter starts from _____ to ____

A

renal pelvis
urinary bladder

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81
Q

Why stones are a problem with ureters

A

ureters’ normal size are 1mm-1cm whereas stones are bigger than that. Thus, it causes pain for patient

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82
Q

how do you position patient for the right kidney to be parallel to IR

A

30 LPO

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83
Q

What are the kidneys’ functions (5)

A
  1. urine production & elimination
  2. regulate water levels
  3. regulate acid-base
  4. regulate electrolytes
  5. remove nitrogenous waste
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84
Q

what are 3 things that kidneys regulate

A

water level
pH
electrolytes

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85
Q

Why nitrogenous waste must be removed?

A

remain in blood –> renal dysfunction

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86
Q

what are considered nitrogenous waste

A

urea & creatinine

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87
Q

Kidneys receive arterial blood from _____ through____

A

abdominal aorta - L/R renal arteries

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88
Q

____ _____ must be a large vessels to return blood from kidneys back to circulatory system (heart)

A

renal veins

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89
Q

What is directly connected to IVC to return blood to the heart

A

renal veins

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90
Q

Renal veins are directly connected to _____ to return blood to the ____ side of the heart

A

IVC - right

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91
Q

Renal veins are _____ (anterior/posterior) to renal arteries

A

anterior

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92
Q

What structure is located along medial border of each kidney that all of the renal veins & renal arteries go through ?

A

hilum

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93
Q

what kind of blood is supplied thru the kidneys

A

oxygenated

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94
Q

Route for blood supply through kidney & back to heart

A

abdominal aorta –> renal arteries –> kidneys –> renal veins –> IVC –> RT atrium –> RT ventricle –> lungs –> LT atrium –> LT ventricle.

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95
Q

what is stenosis

A

narrowing

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96
Q

Which macroscopic structures provide protection for kidneys

A

renal capsule

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97
Q

which macroscopic structures is a blood supply for kidneys

A

cortex

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98
Q

Give macroscopic structures of kidney from outer to inner

A

capsule –> cortex –> medulla (has renal pyramids) –> renal column

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99
Q

Medulla contains ___

A

renal pyramids

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100
Q

Cortex dips between pyramids to form _____

A

renal columns

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101
Q

Minor calyx converged from ____

A

renal papilla

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102
Q

what is renal papilla

A

opening of renal pyramids

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103
Q

minor calyx merge to form ____

A

major calyx

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104
Q

major calyx unite to form _____

A

renal pelvis

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105
Q

renal pelvis continues to form ___

A

ureter

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106
Q

Route of urine

A

nephron –> minor calyx –> major calyx –> renal pelvis –> ureter –> urinary bladder

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107
Q

what is the microscopic structure of the kidney

A

nephron

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108
Q

what is the function of nephron

A

urine production

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109
Q

how many nephron per kidney

A

1 million

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110
Q

Blood flows to the nephron through ____

A

afferent arterioles

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111
Q

Blood filtration happened at the ____ inside the _____

A

glomeruli - nephron

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112
Q

___ go through glomeruli then thru ____

A

waste - glomerular capsule

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113
Q

After blood is filtered in the glomeruli, where does it go next

A

efferent arterioles

114
Q

What remains in the nephron if blood is going out thru efferent arterioles

A

waste

115
Q

What is the blood that coming out of efferent arterioles?
a. blood with waste
b. blood without waste

A

B

116
Q

After the blood is filtered and waste remains in the nephron, where does blood go next?

A

thru efferent arteriole –> renal veins –> IVC –> back to heart to get reoxygenated

117
Q

Progression of waste through nephron

A

glomeruli –> capsule –> proximal convoluted tubules –> ascending & descending loop of Henle –>distal convoluted tubule –> collecting tubule –> minor calyx

118
Q

Which structures of the nephron are located in the cortex of the kidney

A

glomeruli/ capsuple
proximal & distal convoluted tubules

119
Q

Which structures of the nephron are located in the medulla of the kidney

A

loop of henle & collecting tubules

120
Q

Ureter is anterior to ___

A

psoas major muscle

121
Q

Ureter extend from _____ to _____

A

renal pelvis
urinary bladder

122
Q

Stones might have trouble passing through the 3 ureter constriction points which are ___

A
  1. ureteropelvic junction ( UPJ)
  2. Pelvic Brim
  3. Ureterovesical junction ( UVJ)
123
Q

Pelvic brim is the crossing of _____ over ___

A

iliac blood vessels over ureters

124
Q

ureter join the bladder at _____

A

UVJ (ureterovesical junction)

125
Q

renal pelvis funnels down into small ureter at ____

A

UPJ

126
Q

kidneys stones usually stuck at which constriction point

A

UVJ

127
Q

What is the muscolomembraneous sac that serves as a reservoir for urine

A

urinary bladder

128
Q

what are the 3 opening of trigone

A

2 ureters
1 urethra

129
Q

what is the capacity for urinary bladder

A

350-500mL

130
Q

bladder location in male

A

posterior to symphysis pubis & extend to peritoneal cavity

131
Q

bladder location in female

A

posterior to symphysis pubis & anterior to uterus

132
Q

What is the bladder capacity to trigger the urge to void

A

250mL

133
Q

IUS & EUS controls _____

A

retention of urine

134
Q

what is IUS

A

internal urethral sphincter

135
Q

what is EUS

A

external urethral sphincter

136
Q

Which sphincter is voluntarily controlled

A

EUS

137
Q

Which sphincter is involuntarily controlled

A

IUS

138
Q

relaxation of which sphincter allows urine to exit

A

EUS

139
Q

What is IVU?

A

intravenous urography

140
Q

Prior to contrast injection, what do we need to verify

A

contraindications
signed consent

141
Q

How to prep patient for IVU

A

NPO 8 hours
bowel prep
void prior to exam

142
Q

Why do patient need to void prior to IVU exam

A

1.a full bladder can rupture, especially if there are compressions
2.urine in the bladder can dilute contrast medium

143
Q

Routine for IVU Imaging (7)

A

Scout
Nephrogram
Timed films
RPO
LPO
Prone
Upright Post Void

144
Q

What is the most important step for IVU exam

A

document time

145
Q

When is nephrogram taken

A

1 minute post injection

146
Q

WHat should be noted before injection of contrast medium? (3)

A

start time
type of contrast
amount of contrast

147
Q

Where is CR for Nephrogram

A

between iliac crest & xiphoid

148
Q

What does nephrogram show

A

flushing of kidneys

149
Q

What is the purpose of RPO/LPO position for IVU exam

A

to see different angle of kidney and project ureter away from spine

150
Q

Obliquity for IVU exam

A

30 degree posterior

151
Q

where is CR for RPO/LPO [IVU]

A

iliac crest & midline

152
Q

Which position will show the LEFT kidney in AP and RIGHT ureter unobstructed

A

RPO

153
Q

LPO shows ___ kidney in AP and _____ureter unobstructed

A

Right
Left

154
Q

where is CR for upright post void

A

1” below iliac crest

155
Q

Upright Post Void must include____

A

entire bladder

156
Q

What is Retrograde Urography

A

contrast is injected backward into the pelvicalyceal system via catheter by urologist in the OR

157
Q

Retrograde Urography is an examination of ___

A

urinary system

158
Q

What are the steps post uroscopy

A

catheter insertion
stent placement

159
Q

what is the position patient in for Retrograde urography

A

Lithotomy

160
Q

Retrograde cystography is also known as ___

A

cystogram

161
Q

Retrograde Cystography is an examination of ___

A

urinary bladder

162
Q

Cystogram is done with ____
a. radiologist
b. urologist

A

A

163
Q

[Cystogram]The contrast flow in by _____ only

A

gravity

164
Q

What does VCUG stand for

A

voiding cystourethrography

165
Q

Retrograde Cystography is examination of ___

A

urinary bladder

165
Q

VCUG is an examination of ____

A

bladder & urethra

166
Q

VCUG evaluates the patient’s ability to ____

A

urinate

167
Q

Steps of VCUG

A

fill bladder –> remove catheter –> tilted patient while voiding

168
Q

What does the bony thorax consists of ? (3)

A

1 sternum
12 thoracic vertebrae
12 rib pairs

169
Q

What is the purpose of bony thorax

A

protects respiratory & mediastinum

170
Q

What are the 3 parts of the sternum

A
  1. manubrium
  2. body
  3. xiphoid tip
171
Q

what is the superior portion of the sternum

A

manubrium

172
Q

what is the most inferior portion of the sternum

A

xiphoid tip

173
Q

Which structure is located at T2-3

A

Jugular notch

174
Q

What is the depression on the manubrium

A

Jugular notch

175
Q

What does the body of sternum articulate with

A

manubrium

176
Q

What is the articulation angle of the body to the manubrium called?

A

sternal angle

177
Q

Location of sternal angle

A

T4-5

178
Q

What structure located at T9-10

A

Xiphoid tip

179
Q

What structure provide anterior articulation of the cartilage of the rib

A

facet of the body of the sternum

180
Q

There are no bony articulation of the rib ____
a. anteriorly
b. posteriorly

A

A

181
Q

Ribs articulate with bony joint ____
a. anteriorly
b. posteriorly

A

B

182
Q

Which structure articulate laterally to the jugular notch?

A

medial end of clavicle

183
Q

SC joint is the formation of ____ & _____

A

medial end of clavicle and clavicular notch

184
Q

How many ribs articulate with the sternum

A

7

185
Q

Ribs articulate with the sternum through ____

A

costocartilage

186
Q

Why does costocartilage show up as a gap on radiograph?

A

cartilage is not dense enough for Xray attenuation

187
Q

What are other names for jugular notch

A

suprasternal & manubrial notch

188
Q

Which structure of the manubrium and the body accept the costocartilage

A

facet

189
Q

The 1st pair of ribs articulate with which part of the sternum

A

manubrium

190
Q

the 2nd pair of ribs articulate with the ____ of the sternum

A

sternal angle

191
Q

___ through ___ pair of ribs connect directly to the body of sternum through costocartilage

A

3rd - 7th

192
Q

___ through ____ pair of ribs connect to costocartilage 7, which then connects to sternum

A

8th - 10th

193
Q

Routine for sternum. Which routine is usually preferred?

A

RAO
Lateral

Lateral

194
Q

[Sternum] SID?
RAO: ____
Lateral: __

A

RAO: 40”
Lateral: 72”

195
Q

[Sternum] kVp?

A

70-80

196
Q

Position patient for RAO sternum

A

rotate 15-20 toward right side

197
Q

Why RAO sternum over LAO sternum

A

Rotate sternum away from vertebrae and superimpose the heart

198
Q

Why is it important for the sternum to superimpose the heart when imaging

A

increase density of sternum –> better attenuation –> more visualization of sternum

199
Q

CR for RAO sternum

A

mid-sternum
1” left to midline
between jugular notch & xiphoid process

200
Q

What does breathing technique do?

A

blur ribs/ areas that not in interested

201
Q

for a bigger patient, would you need a higher or lower obliquity for RAO Sternum

A

lower (15)

202
Q

If breathing technique is not possible, suspend respiration on ____

A

expiration

203
Q

Why we dont image sternum in a true AP or PA projection

A

thoracic spine is denser than sternum therefore, we cant see the sternum

204
Q

Patient with a shallow or thin chest would need ____ rotation than a patient with a deep chest

A

MORE

205
Q

[Sternum] If patient is unable to stand for RAO, what is the alternate position?

A

SUPINE LPO with CR angled 15-20 across right side of patient

206
Q

How do you know if patient is correctly rotated for RAO sternum

A

sternum alongside vertebral column with no superimposition by vertebrae

207
Q

excessive rotation of thorax could caused ____

A

distortion of sternum

208
Q

For lateral sternum, which position can the patient be in

A

erect or recumbent

209
Q

Lateral Sternum
For erect, arms ____
For recumbent, arms ____
What is the purpose?

A

Back
Up
Avoid superimposition of humerus over sternum

210
Q

CR for Lateral Sternum

A

mid sternum

211
Q

where is mid sternum

A

between jugular notch & xiphoid process

212
Q

[sternum] when patient is in lateral, suspend respiration on _____

A

inspiration

213
Q

Why suspend respiration on inspiration for Lateral Sternum

A

chest expands and pushes sternum out

214
Q

Patient is in which projection if SC joint being imaged?

A

PA

215
Q

Why patient in prone for SC joint images

A

place clavicle closer to IR

216
Q

How to position patient for SC joint exam

A

place arms up beside head or down by the side

217
Q

CR for SC joint

A

midsagittal to T2-3
or
3” distal to vertebral prominence (C7)

218
Q

Which structure is found at T2-3

A

jugular notch

219
Q

For SC joint, suspend respiration on ____

A

expiration

220
Q

Which positions are possible for SC joint beside a PA?
a. RAO
b. LAO
c. RPO
d. LPO

A

A & B

221
Q

Obliquity for RAO/LAO SC joint

A

10-15 degree

222
Q

CR for SC joint obliques

A

Upside SC

223
Q

How many ribs are considered “true” ribs

A

7

224
Q

True ribs are direct ____ attachment

A

anterior

225
Q

How many ribs are considered “false” ribs

A

5

226
Q

_____ ribs have no anterior attachment

A

FALSE & floating

227
Q

Rib 8-10th have ____ that join together at rib ____ connects to sternum

A

costocartilage
7

228
Q

Which are the “floating ribs” ?

A

11 & 12th

229
Q

does floating ribs have costocartilage?

A

NO

230
Q

Which ribs do not connect to the sternum?
a. floating
b. true
c. false
d. all ribs are connect to sternum

A

A

231
Q

If floating ribs are not connect to sternum, what does it connect to?

A

T12

232
Q

Which structures of the ribs are located posteriorly

A

Head
Neck
Tubercle

233
Q

Head of ribs articulate with _____

A

vertebral body

234
Q

What is the rib angle

A

forward

235
Q

what is the internal structure of rib

A

costal groove

236
Q

what does costal groove house

A

artery, vein, nerve

237
Q

What could happened if there is a rib fracture

A
  1. HEMOTHORAX (puncture of parietal pleural surround the lungs. The veins inside the costal groove severed and leaks into the pleural )
  2. PNEUMOTHORAX (puncture causing air leakage)
238
Q

Tubercle of ribs articulate with ____

A

transverse process of a vertebra

239
Q

On a radiograph, the part of ribs that most superior is ___, and most inferior is ____

A

posterior end (vertebral end)
Anterior end

240
Q

What is a joint between costocartilage and ribs

A

costochondral

241
Q

What is a joint between costocartilage & sternum

A

sternocostal

242
Q

What is a joint between costocartilages?

A

interchondral

243
Q

Interchondral joint is between the ___ of which ribs

A

costalcartilage / 6-10

244
Q

Sternocostal joint is between ___ & ___ ribs

A

1-7

245
Q

What is the joint between head of ribs and vertebral body

A

costovertebral joint

246
Q

Costovertebral joint is between ___ & ____

A

head of ribs
vertebral body

247
Q

What is the joint between tubercle to transverse process

A

costotransverse

248
Q

Costotransverse joint is between __ & ___

A

tubercle & transverse process

249
Q

Costotransverse joint are found on which ribs

A

1 - 10

250
Q

Which joint does 11th & 12th rib don’t have?

A

costotransverse

251
Q

Routines for RIB

A

PA chest
AP Above Diaphragm
AP Below Diaphragm
RPO/LPO

252
Q

kVp for RIB

A

75-85

253
Q

unilateral rib - SID ____
bilateral rib - SID ____

A

40”
40-72”

254
Q

[AP Above Diaphragm]
unilateral rib - CR ____
bilateral rib - CR ____

A

T7 (between midsagittal plane & lateral margins)
T7 (midsagittal)

255
Q

suspend respiration on :
AP Above Diaphragm : _____
AP Below Diaphragm :___

A

inspiration
expiration

256
Q

CR?
AP Above Diaphragm : ____
AP Below Diaphragm : ____

A

midsagittal plane & T7
between xiphoid tip and iliac crest

257
Q

AP Below Diaphragm looks for which ribs

A

11 & 12th

258
Q

AP Above Diaphragm can be done for ____
a. bilateral
b. unilateral
c. both

A

C

259
Q

AP below diaphragm can be done for ____
a. bilateral
b. unilateral
c. both

A

A (unless otherwise noted)

260
Q

RPO/LPO ribs can be done for ____
a. bilateral
b. unilateral
c. both

A

B

261
Q

How much rotation is needed for RPO/LPO Rib

A

45

262
Q

[RIB] if the right side is affected, which position will elongate the right side

A

RPO

263
Q

If you are given an order for right rib, what is the routine?

A

both RPO & LPO for RIGHT SIDE

264
Q

[RIB] if the right side is affected, which position will shorten the right side

A

LPO

265
Q

[RIB] if the right side is affected, which position allow you to visualize the angle

A

LPO

266
Q

[RIB] if the left side is affected, which position will elongate the left side

A

LPO

267
Q

Routine for Cystogram

A

AP Axial
LPO/RPO

268
Q

[Cystogram] AP Axial
CR?
Tube agle?

A

2” superior to symphysis pubis
10-15 caudad tube angle

269
Q

[Cystogram] LPO/RPO
CR?
Tube angle?
Obliquity?

A

2” superior to symphysis pubis
no tube angle
45-60 posterior

270
Q

which examination image the contrast in the urethra

A

VCUG

271
Q

4 general goals when selecting patient for contrast medium injection

A
  1. ensure correct administration of contrast
  2. balance likelihood of adverse reaction
  3. promote accurate diagnosis & treatment
  4. be prepared to treat a reaction
272
Q

What is considered the greatest risk factor for predicting future adverse reactions

A

prior allergic-like

273
Q

Patient who has prior allergic-like reaction or unknown-type reaction have approximately ____ increased risk
a. 2-fold
b. 3-fold
c. 4-fold
d. 5-fold

A

D

274
Q

If a patient has a reaction to gadolinium-based contrast medium, does it mean they also reacts to iodinated contrast medium?

A

NO

275
Q

Between infants/children and middle-aged patients who have a higher reaction rate

A

middle-aged

276
Q

If patient experiences Air Embolism as a reaction to IV contrast injection, which position should patient be placed in? treatment include?

A

Left lateral decub
inject 100% oxygen

277
Q

What is the most significant adverse effect of Metformin

A

lactic acidosis

278
Q

What are contraindications to use of Metformin

A

increase lactate production by increasing anaerobic metabolism (cardiac failure, cardiac or peripheral muscle ischemia, severe infection)

279
Q

ACR classify patient taking metformin in Category I as _____

A

no AKI with eGFR > 30mL/min
patient doesnt have to discontinue use of metformin prior to or after procedure

280
Q

ACR classify patient taking metformin in Category II as _____

A

AKI with eGFR <30mL/min, metformin should be temporarily discontinued prior to and after 48hours of the procedure

281
Q

Approximately ____ in 10,000 have serious acute reaction to ____

A

4
IV LOCM

RAD 372 - Anatomy (6 decks)

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