Test 3 - Skull Flashcards

1
Q

How many cranium bones are there

A

8

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2
Q

How many facial bones are there

A

14

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3
Q

Cranium bone is divided into ____ & ____

A

calvarium
floor

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4
Q

Which bones do calvarium consist of

A

frontal
parietal
occipital

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5
Q

Which bones do floor consist of

A

temporal
ethmoid
sphemoid

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6
Q

Skull is divided into ___ & ___ bone

A

facial & cranium bone

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7
Q

Which bone is consider the ceiling of orbit

A

frontal

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8
Q

What are the two main part of frontal bone

A

squamous and horizontal

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9
Q

In frontal bone,
horizontal portion aka ___
squamous portion aka ___

A

orbital
vertical

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10
Q

How many bones do FRONTAL BONES articulate with?
What are those?

A

4

2 parietal bones
sphenoid
ethmoid

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11
Q

what is the raised prominence structure between the eyebrow

A

Glabella

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12
Q

What is the slight depression above eyebrows

A

Supraorbital groove

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13
Q

What is the superior rim of each orbit

A

Supraorbital margin

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14
Q

Which structure of the horizontal portion of frontal bone form the superior part of each orbit

A

orbital plate

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15
Q

which structure separate the orbital plate

A

ethmoidal notch

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16
Q

which structure of horizontal portion is bilateral

A

orbital plate

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17
Q

Ethmoidal notch separated ____

A

orbital plate

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18
Q

Which structure do we look at to determine if patient tilt

A

orbital plate

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19
Q

what is the widest portion of parietal

A

parietal tubercle (eminence)

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20
Q

How many bones do PARIETAL BONES articulate with?
What are those?

A

5

frontal
occipital
temporal
sphenoid
parietal

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21
Q

The frontal bone is ____ to parietal

A

anterior

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22
Q

The occipital bone is ____ to parietal

A

posterior

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23
Q

the temporal bone is ___ to parietal

A

inferior

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24
Q

the greater wings of sphenoid are ___ to parietal

A

inferior and anterior

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25
Q

which portion of the occipital bone form most of the back of the head

A

squamous

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26
Q

which structure is inferior to the squamous portion of occipital bone

A

external occipital protuberance

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27
Q

external occipital protuberance is also called

A

inion

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28
Q

What is the large opening at the base of occipital bone

A

foramen magnum

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29
Q

what go thru foramen magnum

A

spinal cord

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30
Q

which structure of occipital bone are bilateral with oval processes and convex surfacess

A

occipital condyles

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31
Q

what does occipital condyle articulate with

A

lateral mass of C1

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32
Q

occipital condyle and atlas form which joint

A

atlantoccipital joint

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33
Q

How many bones do OCCIPITAL BONES articulate with?
What are those?

A

6

2 parietals
2 temporal
sphenoid
atlas

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34
Q

Which cranium bone house the organs of hearing and balance

A

temporal

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35
Q

temporal bone is between ___ & ____

A

greater wing of sphenoid
occipital bone

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36
Q

temporal bone is
____ to greater wing of sphenoid
_____ to occipital bone

A

posterior
anterior

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37
Q

Temporal bone is divided into ___ portions which are ____

A

3

squamous
mastoid
petrous

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38
Q

which portion of temporal bone is easiest to fracture

A

squamous

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39
Q

Which portion of temporal bone is posterior to EAM

A

mastoid portion

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40
Q

Which portion of temporal bone houses organs for hearing and balance

A

petrous

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41
Q

What is the upper border of petrous pyramid called

A

petrous ridge

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42
Q

petrous portion of temporal bone is also called

A

petrous pyramid

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43
Q

superior to jugular foramen is _____

A

internal acoustic meatus

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44
Q

external and internal acoustic meatus are located on ____

A

posteriorinferior aspect of petrous pyramid

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45
Q

How many cranial bones do TEMPORAL BONES articulate with?
What are those?

A

3

parietal
occipital
sphenoid

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46
Q

what is the anterior projection off of squamous portion of temporal bone

A

zygomatic arch

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47
Q

Mandible fits into the temporomandibular fossa to form ___

A

temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

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48
Q

posterior process of zygoma articulate with zygomatic process of temporal bone to form___

A

zygomatic arch

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49
Q

What is the articulation to the mandible

A

TM fossa

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50
Q

Superiorly to temporal bone, we have the articulation to___

A

parietal bone

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51
Q

Anteriorly to temporal bone, we have articulation to___

A

sphenoid

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52
Q

What is the purpose of tube angle for most of the skull positioning

A

move the petrous pyramids away from superimposition of underline structure

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53
Q

what is the attachment point for muscles on temporal bone

A

styloid process

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54
Q

which bone forms the anchor for other cranial bones

A

sphenoid

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55
Q

which structure of the brain lies in the sella turcica

A

pituitary gland

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56
Q

where does pituitary gland lie on

A

sella turcica

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57
Q

Posterior to sella turcica is ____

A

dorsum sellae

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58
Q

What is the depression on the posteroinferior aspect of dorsum sellae

A

CLivus

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59
Q

The clivus extends posteriorly to _____

A

foramen magnum

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60
Q

which structure of sphenoid bone project laterally from the superoanterior portion of body and extend to middle of each orbit

A

anterior clinoid process

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61
Q

which structure of sphenoid bone project superiorly from dorsum sellae

A

posterior clinoid process

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62
Q

Which clinoid process is larger

A

anterior

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63
Q

the depressed area of Clivus houses which portion of the brainstem

A

pons

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64
Q

Lesser wings of sphenoid bone terminates at ____

A

anterior clinoid

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65
Q

which wing is a portion of the cranial wall

A

greater wings

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66
Q

Greater wings articulate with which portion of which bone

A

squamous portion of temporal bone

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67
Q

Sphenoid bone is ____ to ethmoid bone

A

posterior

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68
Q

which pterygoid process has pterygoid hamulus

A

medial

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69
Q

which structure help forms the wall of nasal cavity

A

pterygoid of sphenoid bone

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70
Q

The 3 pairs of foramen exist in which structure of sphenoid bone

A

greater wings

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71
Q

what go through the 3 foramen of sphenoid bone

A

cranial nerves

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72
Q

Foramen rotundum has ____ go thru
Foramen Ovale has ____ go thru
Foramen Spinosum has ____ go thru

A

maxillary nerve
mandibular nerve
artery

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73
Q

Which structure is located anterior to sphenoid body and the lesser wings

A

optic groove chiasm

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74
Q

Optic nerves cross each other at _____

A

optic chiasm

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75
Q

Optic nerve go through ____ to cross at optic chiasm

A

optic foramen

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76
Q

what is the space lateral to optic foramen and between lesser and greater wings?

A

superior orbital fissures

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77
Q

Ethmoid bone lies below the _____ of cranium

A

floor

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78
Q

what is the upper horizontal portion of ethmoid bone

A

cribriform plate

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79
Q

Superior to cribriform plate is__

A

Crista galli

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80
Q

what go through the foramen of cribriform plate

A

olfactory nerves (smell)

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81
Q

Faux Cerebri is attached to which structure

A

crista galli

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82
Q

Inferior to cribriform plate is ____

A

perpendicular plate

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83
Q

Lateral to perpendicular plate is _____

A

lateral labyrinths

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84
Q

Which structure helps break up the air as we breath in

A

nasal conchae

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85
Q

Which nasal concha is its own separate bone

A

inferior conchae

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86
Q

Which nasal conchae associated with ethmoid bone

A

superior and middle

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87
Q

Articulations of ethmoid bone

A

frontal
sphenoid
11 facial bones

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88
Q

which structure helps form the nasal septum

A

perpendicular plate

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89
Q

Lateral mass of ethmoid helps form medial wall of ____ and lateral wall of ___

A

orbit
nasal cavity

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90
Q

The articulation of joints of the cranium are called ____

A

sutures

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91
Q

coronal suture separated ____ from___

A

frontal bone
parietal bone

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92
Q

sagittal suture separate _____

A

parietal bones

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93
Q

lambdoidal suture separate _____ from ___

A

2 parietal bones from occipital bone

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94
Q

squamosal sutures is formed by which bones

A

parietal & temporal bones

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95
Q

What are the areas of post ossification of fontanels

A

Bregma
Lambda
Pterion
Asterion

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96
Q

anterior end of sagittal suture is _____

A

Bregma (anterior fontanels)

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97
Q

posterior end of sagittal suture is ____

A

Lambda (posterior fontanels)

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98
Q

where coronal suture and sagittal suture meets is which fontanels

A

Bregma (anterior)

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99
Q

anterior to temporal bone is which fontanels

A

Pterion (sphenoid fontanel)

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100
Q

Mastoid fontanel is at the the intersection of _____

A

occipital, temporal, parietal

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101
Q

Pterions fontanel is at the intersection of _____

A

frontal, temporal, parietals

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102
Q

Asterion fontanels is at the intersection of which sutures

A

squamosal & lambdoidal

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103
Q

What are fontanels

A

regions where sutures join are slower in ossification

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104
Q

which is the largest facial bone

A

maxillary

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105
Q

What are the 14 facial bones

A

2 maxillary
2 zygomatic
2 lacrimal
2 nasal
2 inferior nasal conchae
2 palatine
vomer
mandible

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106
Q

what are the 4 processes of maxillary

A

frontal
zygomatic
alveolar
palatine

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107
Q

which maxillary process is on the lateral margin of nasal cavity

A

frontal

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108
Q

which maxillary process articulate with zygoma

A

zygomatic

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109
Q

what structure is the anterior fusion of maxillary

A

acanthion

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110
Q

the maxillary assists in the formation of ___ (3)

A

orbit
nasal cavity
mouth

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111
Q

which structure of maxillary is inferior to nasal cavity

A

anterior nasal spine

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112
Q

which maxillary process is a part of the hard palate

A

palatine

113
Q

what is the structure where nose and upper lip meet called ?

A

acanthion

114
Q

which maxillary process support the teeth

A

alveolar

115
Q

which structure form the roof of mouth

A

palatine processes

116
Q

incomplete joining of two palatine process result in ____

A

cleft palate

117
Q

Palatine is divided in to 2 portion, the horizontal portion forms the ____

A

posterior part of hard palate

118
Q

Palatine is divided into 2 portion, the vertical portion is between ____ & __

A

maxilla
pterygoid of sphenoid

119
Q

Maxillary articulate with which cranial bone

A

frontal and ethmoid

120
Q

what form the zygomatic arch

A

anteriorly - zygoma bone
posteriorly - zygomatic process of temporal bone

121
Q

a blow to the cheek will affect 3 articulation points which are ___

A

maxillary bone
zygomatic process of temporal
frontal bone

122
Q

zygoma articulate with which cranial bones (3) AND which facial bone (1)

A

frontal
sphenoid
temporal

maxilla

123
Q

inferior projection of cribriform plate is _____

A

perpendicular plate

124
Q

Perpendicular plate articulate with which facial bone

A

vomer

125
Q

Nasal septum is formed by the articulation between ___

A

perpendicular plate and vomer

126
Q

location of lacrimal bone

A

posterior to maxillae frontal process

127
Q

which bone helps make up the superior orbital margin

A

frontal bone

128
Q

which bones help make up the inferior orbital margin

A

maxillary
zygomatic

129
Q

why lacrimal bone cannot be seen well radiographically

A

super small
superimposed by ethmoid and maxillary sinuses

130
Q

lacrimal bone articualtes with which cranial bones (2) and which facial bones

A

frontal & ethmoid

maxillae & inferior nasal conchae

131
Q

superior and middle conchae are part of which bone

A

ethmoid

132
Q

which structures helps separate the facial bones from cranial bone

A

cribriform plate & crista galli

133
Q

inferior nasal conchae articulate with which bone

A

ethmoid

134
Q

palatine articulate with which cranial bones (2)

A

sphenoid & ethmoid

135
Q

what position is preferred for facial bone projections

A

erect

136
Q

Routines for facial bone

A

PA Caldwell
Waters
Lateral

137
Q

SID & kVp for facial bone

A

40”
70-85

138
Q

position parameter for facial bone PA caldwell, include CR

A

OML perpen to IR
15 caudad tube angle
CR: exit at nasion

139
Q

[PA Caldwell - facial bone] if we want to see the floor of orbits, what do we do

A

increase tube angle to 30 caudad

140
Q

[PA Caldwell - facial bone]
if we want to include more of the mandible, where is the CR

A

exit at acanthion

141
Q

[PA Caldwell - facial bone]
if we want to include more of the orbital floor, where is the CR

A

exit at nasion

142
Q

position paratmeter for Waters facial bone, include CR

A

MML perpen to IR
CR: exit at acanthion

143
Q

if we cant get the odontoid on regular C spine imaging, what is the alternative

A

waters of facial bone

144
Q

MML perpndicular to IR will put ___ inside the foramen magnum

A

odontoid process

145
Q

CR for lateral facial bone

A

zygomatic prominence

146
Q

CR for lateral cranium

A

2” above EAM

147
Q

routine for nasal bone

A

waters
lateral

148
Q

kVp for [ nasal bone]
water: ___
lateral: ___

A

70-85
65-80

149
Q

CR for lateral nasal bone

A

nasal bones
or 1/2” inferior to nasion

150
Q

Routine for Zygomatic Arch

A

AP Towne
SMV
Tangential

151
Q

kVp for zygomatic arch

A

70-85 kVp

152
Q

if we cant get the zygomatic arch on SMV, what is the alternative

A

tangential

153
Q

Position parameter for tangential zygomatic arch, include CR

A

Start in SMV
rotate & tilt 15 tw affected side
chin raises until IOML parallel to IR
CR: zygomatic arch

154
Q

what is the topographic landmark between eyebrow

A

glabella

155
Q

what is the topographic landmark connecting outer points of the eyes

A

interpupillary line

156
Q

what is the topographic landmark that is a depression at bridge of nose

A

nasion

157
Q

what is the topographic landmark at the area of upper lip and nasal septum

A

acanthion

158
Q

what is the topographic landmark acts as a point of lower posterior mandible

A

gonion

159
Q

what are the 3 ear landmarks

A

auricle
tragus
TEA (top of ear attachment)

160
Q

which ear landmark is the large flap of ear
a. auricle
b. tragus
c. TEA (top of ear attachment)

A

A

161
Q

which ear landmark is the small flap anterior to EAM
a. auricle
b. tragus
c. TEA (top of ear attachment)

A

B

162
Q

tragus is ____ to EAM
a. anterior
b. posterior

A

anterior

163
Q

what are the 3 eye landmarks

A

canthi
SOM (supraorbital margin)
IOM (infraorbital margin)

164
Q

what is the landmark that is the superior rim of bony orbit of eye

A

SOM

165
Q

Ear landmarks are important because ____

A

corresponds to highest level of petrous ridges

166
Q

Eye landmarks are important because ___

A

contribute to base of orbit

167
Q

what is the average difference between angle of OML and IOML

A

7-8 degrees

168
Q

what are the 2 skull line used for facial bone imaging

A

OML and MML

169
Q

what do you need to watch out for in skull imaging (3)

A
  1. positioning lines to ensure no rotation or tilt
  2. pt condition
  3. tube angles
170
Q

Routine for Cranium

A

PA caldwell
AP towne
RT/LT lateral
SMV

171
Q

kVp for Cranium

A

75-85

172
Q

CR for PA Axial (caldwell) cranium

A

exit at nasion
15 caudad tube angle

173
Q

CR for AP axial (Caldwell) cranium

A

exit at nasion
15 cephalic

174
Q

Petrous position for PA Cranium
a. one-third of orbit
b. inside orbit

A

B

175
Q

CR for AP Towne Cranium

A

2.5” above glabella
30 caudad

176
Q

Factors to determine AP Town Cranium is done correctly

A

dorsum sellae in foramen magnum
foramen magnum equidistant to lateral skull margin

177
Q

what structure should be seen if AP Towne Cranium is done correctly

A

posterior clinoid process

178
Q

Dorsum sellae associated with which structure

A

sella turcica

179
Q

what is the depression on the posterior side of dorsum sellae

A

clivus

180
Q

Position parameter for Lateral Cranium

A

anterior oblique with head turned in lateral
Interpupillary perpendicular
IOML perpendicular to front edge of IR

181
Q

CR lateral cranium

A

2” superior EAM

182
Q

A & P separation of lateral cranium is an indication of _____

A

rotation

183
Q

Rotation for lateral cranium is determined through which structure

A

EAM
sphenoid greater wings

184
Q

Tilt for lateral cranium is determined through which structure

A

EAM & orbital plates

185
Q

position parameter for SMV cranium

A

IOML // IR

186
Q

CR for SMV cranium

A

midway bw gonion
exit vertex

187
Q

S & I separation of lateral cranium is an indication of ____

A

tilt

188
Q

which skull line are used for PA Caldwell

A

OML

189
Q

which skull line are used for AP Towne

A

OML or IOML

190
Q

which skull lines are used for Waters

A

MML or OML

191
Q

which skull lines are used for Lateral

A

IOML

192
Q

which skull lines are used for SMV
A. IOML perpendicular to IR
B. IOML parallel to IR
C. OML perpendicular to IR
D. OML parallel to IR

A

B

193
Q

which skull lines are used for Tangential IF patient cant rotate head
A. IOML perpendicular to IR
B. IOML parallel to IR
C. OML perpendicular to IR
D. OML parallel to IR

A

A

194
Q

which is the only movable bone in adult skull

A

mandible

195
Q

which structure is anterior to gonion

A

body of mandible

196
Q

which structure is superior to gonion

A

ramus of mandible

197
Q

where does the ramus terminate

A

mandibular notch

198
Q

anterior to mandibular notch is ____

A

coronoid process

199
Q

posterior to mandibular notch is ____

A

condyloid process

200
Q

TMJ is formed between _____ & _____

A

condyle of condyloid process and TM fossa of temporal bone

201
Q

mandible nerves go thru _____

A

mental foramen

202
Q

optic foramen located at the ____ of its respective orbit

A

apex

203
Q

with _____ parallel to the floor, orbit project 30 superiorly and 37 medially
a. OML
b. MML
c. IOML

A

A

204
Q

to radiograph optic foramen, how do you position the patient

A

extend chin 30
rotate head 37
rhese

205
Q

what are the 3 orbit openings

A

optic foramen
superior orbital fissure
inferior orbital fissure

206
Q

orbit openings provide passage for _____ nerves

A

cranial

207
Q

what structure encapsulate optic foramen

A

sphenoid strut

208
Q

what is the small hole in the sphenoid bone that located posteriorly at the apex of orbit

A

optic foramen

209
Q

what structure located between greater and lesser wings of sphenoid bone

A

superior orbital fissure

210
Q

what structure located between maxilla, zygomatic bone, and greater wing of sphenoid

A

inferior orbital fissure

211
Q

what is sphenoid strut

A

root of bone that separate superior orbital fissure from optic canal

212
Q

Routine for Mandible

A

PA
AP Towne
Axiolateral
Lateral
Panorex

213
Q

kVp for mandible

A

70-90

214
Q

Position parameter for PA Mandible, include CR

A

OML perpendicular
mouth closed
CR: exit at junction of lips

215
Q

Position parameter for AP Towne Mandible, include CR

A

OML perpendicular to IR
CR: glabella
35-43 caudad

216
Q

Position parameter for Axiolateral Mandible, include CR

A

15 tilt with 10 cephalad
lateral with 25 cephalad
25 tilt with straight CR
CR: exit mandibular

217
Q

Position parameter for Panorex Mandible, include CR

A

IOML perpen floor
tube and IR rotate around head

218
Q

Routine for TMJ

A

Law
Schuller

219
Q

kVp for TMJ

A

75-85

220
Q

position parameter for Law TMJ, include CR

A

start in facial bone lateral
rotate 15 tw table
CR: downside TMJ or 1.5” superior to EAM
15 caudad

221
Q

position parameter for Schuller TMJ, include CR

A

position facial bone in lateral
25-30 caudad
CR: downside TMJ OR 1.5” anterior and 2” superior to EAM

222
Q

Routine for Orbit

A

Waters
Rhese

223
Q

position parameter for Rhese Orbit, include CR

A

place chin, cheek, nose on IR
start in PA, rotate head 37 tw affected side
AML perpen IR
CR: downside orbit

224
Q

Which structures corresponds to external ear

A

Auricle
Tragus
EAM

225
Q

Wht are structures corresponds to middle ear

A

Tympanic membrane
Tympanic cavity
Auditory ossicles
Eustachian tube

226
Q

tympanic membrane is part of _____ ear

A

middle

227
Q

which structures of middle ear are bones

A

auditory ossicles

228
Q

superior to auditory ossicles is ____

A

epitympanic recess

229
Q

inferior to auditory ossicles is _____

A

tympanic cavity proper

230
Q

what are the 3 bones of auditory ossicles

A

malleus
incus
stapes

231
Q

tympanic cavity communicates anteriorly with the nasopharynx thru _____

A

eustachian tube

232
Q

what is the passageway bw nasopharynx and middle ear

A

eustachian tube

233
Q

the petrous pyramid of inner ear is divided into 2 parts which are ____

A

osseous labyrinth
membraneous labyrinth

234
Q

osseous labyrinth houses _____ labyrinth

A

membraneous

235
Q

the osseous labyrinth is divided into 3 parts

A

cochlea
semicircular canals
vestibule

236
Q

which part of osseous labyrinth is most anterior
a. cochlea
b. semicircular canals
c. vestibule

A

cochlea

237
Q

which part of osseous labyrinth is central
a. cochlea
b. semicircular canals
c. vestibule

A

B

238
Q

which part of osseous labyrinth is most posterior
a. cochlea
b. semicircular canals
c. vestibule

A

C

239
Q

which which part of osseous labyrinth relate to sense of direction or equilibrium
a. cochlea
b. semicircular canals
c. vestibule

A

B

240
Q

which which part of osseous labyrinth relate to sense of hearing
a. cochlea
b. semicircular canals
c. vestibule

A

A

241
Q

what is the opening bw epitympanic recess and mastoid portion of temporal bone

A

aditus

242
Q

aditus connects directly to ____ within mastoid portion

A

antrum

243
Q

antrum connects to _____

A

mastoid air cells

244
Q

connections of different parts within the mastoid portion of temporal bone could potentially lead to _____ if there are bacteria

A

infection in middle ear

245
Q

what is Tegmen Tympani

A

a plate of bone of the mastoid portion that forms the roof of antrum, aditus, and epitympanic recess

246
Q

what structure connect middle ear to mastoid portion

A

aditus of mastoid portion

247
Q

what surrounds nasal cavity

A

sinuses

248
Q

sinuses drain into nasal cavity via ____

A

osteomeatal complex

249
Q

sinuses are ____-filled and ____-lined

A

air
mucus

250
Q

osteomeatal complex is _____ (location)

A

anterior to nasal cavities

251
Q

what are the 4 sinuses

A

frontal
ethmoid
sphenoid
maxillary

252
Q

location of maxillary sinus
a. body of maxillae
b. ramus of maxillae

A

A

253
Q

which sinus is lateral to nose and inferior to orbit
a. frontal
b. ethmoid
c. sphenoid
d. maxillary

A

maxillary

254
Q

location of maxillary sinus (3)

A

within body of maxillae
lateral to nose
inferior to orbit

255
Q

how does maxillary sinus communicate to nasal cavity

A

middle nasal meatus –> infundibulum –> inferior nasal meatus

256
Q

if there is swelling in maxillary tissues, what happened

A

infundibulum is blocked –> cant drain –> bacteria breathe –> filled up –> sinus infection

257
Q

what structure made up the medial wall of infundibulum

A

ucinate process of ethmoid

258
Q

which sinus is posterior to glabella
a. frontal
b. ethmoid
c. sphenoid
d. maxillary

A

A

259
Q

location of frontal sinus

A

bw inner and outer table of frontal bone AND posterior to glabella

260
Q

frontal sinus communicate with nasal cavity via _____

A

frontal ostium

261
Q

frontal ostium will drain into ____

A

ethmoid sinus

262
Q

which sinus is medial to orbit
a. frontal
b. ethmoid
c. sphenoid
d. maxillary

A

B

263
Q

location of ethmoid sinus

A

within lateral labyrinth of ethmoid bone
medial to orbit

264
Q

ethmoid sinus communicate with nasal cavity via ____

A

anterior collection

265
Q

ethmoid sinuses help forms the _____ wall of orbit

A

medial

266
Q

which sinus is inferior to sella turcica
a. frontal
b. ethmoid
c. sphenoid
d. maxillary

A

C

267
Q

location of sphenoid sinus

A

within body of sphenoid
inferior to sella
posterior to ethmoid sinus

268
Q

sphenoid sinus communicate with nasal cavity through _____

A

ethmoid sinus

269
Q

ethmoid bulla received drainage from _____ & ____ sinus

A

frontal
ethmoid

270
Q

Routine for Sinus

A

PA Caldwell
Waters
Lateral
SMV

271
Q

kvp for sinus

A

75-85

272
Q

position parameter for waters sinus

A

same for other waters
OPEN MOUTH

273
Q

[WATERS] , if we can see sphenoid sinus thru the mouth, where is the location for other sinuses

A

ethmoid: superior
maxillae: lateral
frontal: most superior

274
Q

why do we do waters open mouth for sinus

A

to prevent teeth superimpose sphenoid sinuses

275
Q

a good WATERS for sinus will have petrous ridges ____

A

inferior to maxillary sinus

276
Q

position parameter for PA CALDWELL SINUS

A

OML 15 to IR OR IR 15 to IOML
no tube angle
cr: exit nasion

277
Q

why no tube angle for PA CALDWELL SINUS

A

we need to see sinus without creating distortion

278
Q

CR SMV Zygomatic arch

A

midway bw zygomatic arches at 0.5” inferior to mandibular symphysis