Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are three complications of diverticulitis?

A

Abscess formation, rupture, and peritonitis.

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2
Q

What are seven clinical manifestations seen in people with Alzheimer’s?

A

Dementia, absentmindedness, emotional upset and behavioral changes if posterior frontal lobe is involved, rigidity, and changes to posture and gait.

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3
Q

If you are experiencing an lower GI bleed, what are the three sites that could be producing that bleeding?

A

The jejunum, ileum, or colon.

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4
Q

What does the basilar artery supply blood to?

A

It supplies blood to the brain stem and cerebellum.

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5
Q

Which tract carries sensations of pain, temperature, crude and light touch from the body to the brain for processing?

A

The spinothalamic tracts.

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6
Q

What treatment and/or prevention is used in regards to hepatitis A virus?

A

Vaccines for prevention and immunoglobulin shots for acute exposures.

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of Addison’s disease?

A

Autoantibodies that cause adrenal atrophy and hypofunction.

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves’ disease.

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9
Q

What are five things considered when observing a person’s level of consciousness (LOC)?

A
  1. Being alert or easily arousable to alertness if asleep.
  2. Being oriented x4: self, time, place, events
  3. Following commands appropriately
  4. Having normal speech
  5. Conversing appropriately
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10
Q

What are six signs and symptoms associated with the hepatitis A/B/C virus?

A

Fairly acute fever, malaise, jaundice, NandV, and diarrhea that is usually mild with full recovery; (HBV and HCV can be asymptomatic for years).

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11
Q

When is Immitrex supposed to be used in relation to a CNS disorder?

A

At the first sign of the prodromal stage of a migraine.

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12
Q

What is a severe, life-threatening disorder associated with the escape of pancreatic enzymes into the pancreas and surrounding tissues, causing autodigestion and hemorrhage?

A

Acute pancreatitis.

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13
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

A seizure that is unremitting and not-responsive to medications.

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14
Q

Following an illness, a patient becomes hypocalcemic. Which of the following negative-feedback, endocrine compensatory mechanisms will increase the calcium in her blood?

A

The parathyroid will increase its secretion of PTH.

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15
Q

*What are six signs and symptoms associated with acute pancreatitis?

A

Epigastric pain, abrupt onset post-prandial or post-ETOH ingestion, pain radiation to the back, possible jaundice due to biliary obstruction/inflammation.

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16
Q

What are six possible causes of cirrhosis?

A

Excessive ETOH intake, toxic reactions to drugs and chemicals, viral hepatitis, bile duct disease, and genetic disorders.

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17
Q

What would the lab results look like in acute pancreatitis?

A

High amylase and lipase which may occur with leukocytosis too.

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18
Q

What is Graves’ disease?

A

An autoimmune disorder where autoantibodies attack/stimulate TSH receptors on the thyroid, resulting in oversecretion of T3 and T4.

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19
Q

What is another name for a thyrotoxic crisis?

A

A thyroid storm.

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20
Q

What are several expected lab results in a person who has cirrhosis?

A

High indirect and low direct bilirubin, and elevated AST, ALT, and ALP.

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21
Q

What does myelin do?

A

It gives white matter its color and increases the speed of nerve impulse transmission.

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22
Q

Where does a microbe that causes meningitis most commonly enter the body?

A

Through the highly vascular nasopharyngeal area where it can be taken to the choroid plexus.

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23
Q

What are several symptoms associated with hypercalcemia?

A

Asthenia, lethargy, renal calculi, osteoporosis, and hyperpolarization.

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24
Q

Upon assessing his patient, a nurse notes hemiparesis of the right arm & leg and dysphasia which the patient states began 2 days ago. What does the nurse most likely think caused this?

A

A stroke involving the left hemisphere of the brain.

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25
Q

Which organs are located in the LUQ?

A

Stomach, spleen, and transverse colon.

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26
Q

What is the hypophysis?

A

The pituitary gland.

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27
Q

What is a patient’s status like in the post-ictal stage?

A

They are often dazed, confused, and sometimes combative because the brain’s “circuits” are still not back to normal.

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28
Q

How does dysarthria differ from dysphasia?

A

Both are difficulty speaking, but dysarthria is due to an issue with the jaws, while dysphasia is due to a neurological problem.

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29
Q

A patient with Type I diabetes has a pH of 7.32. This is most likely caused from the byproducts of increased what?

A

Gluconeogenesis.

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30
Q

What are four signs and symptoms seen with abnormal protein catabolism like in Cushing’s disease?

A

Myasthenia and muscle atrophy, short stature in children, and weakened collagen fibers which leads to purple striae.

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31
Q

What two conditions are known to cause stones in the gallbladder and the gallbladder duct?

A

Hypercholesterolemia and dehydration.

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32
Q

What substance(s) or chemical(s) is/are refluxed in GERD?

A

Hydrochloric acid and pepsin.

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33
Q

What happens because of the decreased dopamine levels present in people suffering from Parkinson’s disease?

A

There is an increased cholinergic effect which causes a variety of symptoms.

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34
Q

What are known causes of GERD?

A

Relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and/or delayed emptying of the stomach.

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35
Q

What part of the brain is most likely being affected when there are changes in heart rate and blood pressure?

A

The medulla.

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36
Q

What is the issue(s) in Cushing’s syndrome (NOT Cushing’s disease)?

A

Hypercortisolism due to receiving chronic steroid treatment.

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37
Q

What two types of medications are given in treatment of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Anticholinergics and ones that contain dopamine.

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38
Q

What level of serum glucose would be considered hypoglycemic?

A

A blood glucose <70.

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39
Q

If you suspect a patient is having a stroke, which four vital signs should you check?

A

BP, HR, RR, and temperature.

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40
Q

A patient who just came out of general anesthesia has lab work done. The serum osmo is 165. The nurse taking care of this patient suspects that his _____ is due to _________.

A

hypoosmolality; syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)

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41
Q

What happens if you don’t eat after your body has told you to eat and after it has released epinephrine and cortisol?

A

GH and glucagon are then secreted to begin glycogenolysis first, then gluconeogenesis if the former isn’t enough.

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42
Q

Which cranial nerve would be affected in the brain/brain stem to cause problems with the heart rate?

A

CN X, the vagus nerve.

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43
Q

What are seven signs and symptoms associated with ulcerative colitis?

A

Dehydration, bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, obstruction, fistula, confluent inflammation, and a mild risk for malnutrition.

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44
Q

What is the hallmark sign of posthepatic jaundice?

A

Gray-colored or clay-colored stool.

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45
Q

What are several, eleven, signs and symptoms seen in patients with hyperthyroidism?

A

Tachycardia, increased afterload, exophthalmus, goiter, increased body temperature, heat intolerance, diaphoresis, thin hair, alopecia, and overall increases to CNS and GI systems.

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46
Q

If a patient is having issues with their BP, HR, RR, or temperature, in addition to there being a suspected stroke, which part of the brain is most likely affected by the CVA?

A

The brain stem.

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47
Q

What treatment(s) is indicated for age-related macular degeneration?

A

There is no effective treatment.

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48
Q

A patient with cirrhosis and all its associated problems has an RBC count of 2 million, thrombocytopenia, and ascites. In reviewing the patient’s lab work, the nurse understands that one likely cause of the ascites is what?

A

A serum osmolality <280 due to decreased serum proteins.

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49
Q

What are three acute conditions that can precipitate a seizure?

A

Head injury, stroke, and cerebral edema.

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50
Q

What is the hallmark of myasthenia gravis?

A

Myasthenia that increases during periods of activity and improves after periods of rest.

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51
Q

What are the three main problems that result from portal hypertension?

A

Ascites, splenomegaly, and varices (hemorrhoidal, umbilical, or esophageal).

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52
Q

What are five etiologies indicated in diabetes insipidus?

A

Sick kidneys with decreased response to ADH, pituitary tumor, acute head injury, cerebral edema, or increased ICP.

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53
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus?

A

An uncommon disorder with dysplastic changes in esophageal tissue due to GERD.

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54
Q

What are nine signs and symptoms associated with hypocortisolism?

A

Hypoglycemia which can cause asthenia, fatigue, apathy, psychosis, anorexia, NandV, and diarrhea.

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55
Q

How does meningitis usually spread?

A

Via sneezing, tussis, and sharing eating utensils.

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56
Q

What are nine signs and symptoms seen in Cushing’s syndrome/disease?

A

Increased glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, abnormal lipolysis, abnormal protein catabolism, increased osteoclastic activity, prostaglandin suppression, hypokalemia, hirsutism, and hypervolemia.

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57
Q

What are three stressors that have been known to elicit a thyroid storm?

A

Infection, trauma, and surgery.

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58
Q

How is prehepatic jaundice treated when it has a physiologic etiology in neonates?

A

With UV light therapy to help immature glucuronyl transferase convert unconjugated bilirubin to conjugated.

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59
Q

A jaundiced patient has a higher than normal direct bilirubin. The mechanism most likely responsible for this is ________, and a likely responsible disease process is ____________.

A

posthepatic obstruction; cholelithiasis

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60
Q

What makes up intracranial pressure?

A

Arterial and venous pressures, CSF pressure, and brain tissue–the totalities of pressures in the brain.

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61
Q

What are several, ten, signs and symptoms associated with a thyrotoxic crisis?

A

Extreme restlessness and agitation, delirium, seizures, coma, tachycardia, HF, shock, hyperhidrosis, and hyperthermia.

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62
Q

A patient with myasthenia gravis is on a drug to block an enzyme called cholinesterase. This drug’s action will help the patient by decreasing what?

A

The breakdown of acetylcholine in neuromuscular junctions.

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63
Q

What are three signs and/or symptoms seen in GERD?

A

Pyrosis, epigastric pain, and coughing within one hour of eating.

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64
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of a hiatal hernia?

A

GERD, epigastric pain, and dysphagia, or asymptomatic.

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65
Q

What happens to steroids in a body suffering from cirrhosis?

A

They cannot be broken down normally, so people can experience Cushing’s disease, gynecomastia, and hirsutism.

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66
Q

What are several risk factors associated with cholecystitis?

A

Obesity, excessive estrogen, starvation, genetic component, and European heritage.

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67
Q

What is another name for the ascending sensory tracts used for observing neurologic function below the shoulders?

A

The spinothalamic tracts.

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68
Q

What are the three main functions of calcium in our bodies?

A

Building and maintenance of appropriate bone density, cell electrical activity, and clotting.

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69
Q

What is edema and inflammation of the optic nerve where it enters the retina that cannot be detected without an ophthalmoscope?

A

Papilledema.

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70
Q

What are four things known to exacerbate the signs and symptoms of GERD?

A

Lying down, alcohol, coffee, and smoking.

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71
Q

What causes ascites to occur in cirrhosis?

A

Increased pressure in the portal veins which causes increased venous hydrostatic pressure, forcing fluid into the abdominal cavity.

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72
Q

What are two treatments used with IBD?

A

Steroids to control inflammation and sometimes surgery for a colectomy.

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73
Q

What are several signs and symptoms of myxedema coma?

A

Sudden impaired LOC, hypotension, and hypoventilation.

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74
Q

What are three known causes of prehepatic jaundice?

A

Hemolytic anemia, erythroblastosis fetalis, and simple physiologic immaturity in newborns

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75
Q

What immediate interventions are carried out in a medical setting once a patient has been diagnosed with a CVA?

A

O2, BP management, HOB elevated at least 30 degrees, diuretics, and sometimes an ICP monitor.

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76
Q

What is homonymous hemianopia and what typically causes it?

A

A visual deficit in one side of both eyes due to cerebral focal edema around the right CN II.

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77
Q

What is the normal fasting serum glucose range?

A

70-99.

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78
Q

Which tends to be milder, viral or bacterial meningitis?

A

Viral meningitis.

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79
Q

Besides oral steroids, what else is recommended that patients with Addison’s disease do as a treatment?

A

To take in lots of fluids and to eat a high-sodium diet.

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80
Q

What are the two general types of Alzheimer’s disease seen in people?

A

Familial which makes up 30% of cases, and non-hereditary (sporadic) Alzheimer’s which makes up 70% of cases.

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81
Q

Why are NSAIDs and steroids considered to worsen GI issues with the stomach?

A

Because they decrease synthesis of prostaglandins which normally have a protective effect on the stomach lining.

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82
Q

What does the treatment of migraines usually consist of?

A

Trigger-avoidance, NSAIDs, and “abortive” drugs like Immitrex.

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83
Q

If both pupils respond equally to light and constrict to the same size, which cranial nerves are intact according to this assessment?

A

CN II and III.

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84
Q

What does the treatment of diverticulitis consist of?

A

Increased dietary fiber, avoidance of seeds and nuts, and sometimes antibiotics and surgery.

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85
Q

Regardless if a CVA’s origin is ischemic or hemorrhagic, what are ultimately the actual two causes of the negative effects seen in these conditions?

A

Cerebral edema and increased ICP.

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86
Q

What are some symptoms present in people with age-related macular degeneration?

A

Good peripheral vision, but central vision is affected which feels like having a black spot in the middle of one’s vision.

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87
Q

What is mydriasis?

A

Pupillary dilation normally due to NE stimulating alpha-1 adrenergic receptors.

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88
Q

What is a mostly age-related disease process where there is an elevation of intraocular pressure that results in a loss of visual fields and can eventually lead to blindness?

A

Glaucoma.

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89
Q

What is the normal range of bicarbonate (HCO3) in our bodies?

A

22-26.

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90
Q

Where do diverticula most commonly occur?

A

In the sigmoid colon.

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91
Q

What are the two types of inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis.

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92
Q

*What are five symptoms that are unique to a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Intense headache (10/10), cervicalgia, photophobia, and N&V.

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93
Q

Which two lab results are expected to be seen in a patient with hypothyroidism?

A

High TSH and low T4.

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94
Q

What are some characteristics of conjugated bilirubin?

A

It is made in the liver to be water soluble so that is can more easily be incorporated into bile to emulsify fats.

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95
Q

What is the chronic inflammatory condition of the stomach and proximal duodenum where disturbance of their mucosal lining allows acid to ulcerate the underlying tissues?

A

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD).

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96
Q

Which two forces is the maintenance of effective cerebral blood flow dependent on?

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) and intracranial pressure (ICP).

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97
Q

What is the main culprit in causing increased ICP, causing a loss of balance between the ICP and CPP?

A

Cerebral edema.

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98
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is micro- and macroangiopathy seen?

A

Type I and II.

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99
Q

What are two lab results expected to be seen in patients suffering from cholecystitis?

A

Leukocytosis and high direct bilirubin.

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100
Q

Which type of stroke has a higher mortality rate, ischemic or hemorrhagic?

A

Hemorrhagic strokes have a higher mortality rate.

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101
Q

What kind of stroke occurs when fragments break from an arterial thrombus and travel downstream until they get stuck in a smaller artery of the brain?

A

An embolic stroke.

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102
Q

What is an Addisonian crisis?

A

Severe hypotension due to fluid losses.

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103
Q

What are five signs and/or symptoms associated with Schwartz-Bartter syndrome?

A

Oliguria, hyponatremia, peripheral and pulmonary edema, and low serum osmolality.

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104
Q

What two lab results are expected to be seen in someone suffering from hyperthyroidism?

A

High T4 and low TSH.

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105
Q

If a patient has a focal lesion of the brain, would you expect their signs and symptoms to be unilateral or bilateral?

A

Unilateral.

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106
Q

What are some of the most common causes of an UGI bleed?

A

Acute hemorrhagic gastritis, esophageal varices, & peptic ulcers.

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107
Q

Which arteries form the right and left middle cerebral arteries (MCA) that supply blood to the right and left cerebral cortices?

A

The right and left internal carotid arteries.

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108
Q

How would you differentiate a partial seizure from a general seizure?

A

They are normally local (not diffuse) and the patient has some varied level of consciousness.

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109
Q

What is the most common cause of esophageal varices?

A

Liver disease.

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110
Q

What are eight signs and symptoms associated with Crohn’s disease?

A

Bloody diarrhea, abdominal cramps, transmural patchy inflammation, malabsorption, obstruction, fistula, malnutrition, & weight loss.

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111
Q

How is HAV normally transmitted?

A

Via enterally (fecal/oral) like with tainted oysters.

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112
Q

What risk factors are associated with the development of AMD?

A

HTN, smoking, Caucasian race, and diabetes.

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113
Q

What are several, six, known causes of hemorrhagic strokes?

A

HTN, atherosclerosis, aneurysm, congenital vascular malformations, bleeding into a tumor, and coagulation disorders.

114
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is neuropathy seen?

A

Type I and II.

115
Q

What is an autoimmune disorder where autoantibodies attack/stimulate TSH receptors on the thyroid, resulting in oversecretion of T3 and T4?

A

Graves’ disease.

116
Q

Which three lab results reflect the existence of posthepatic jaundice?

A

High total, normal indirect, & high direct bilirubin.

117
Q

What are three types of treatments used for myasthenia gravis?

A

Anti-cholinesterase drugs, steroids, and sometimes thymectomy.

118
Q

What is a chronic autoimmune disease sometimes associated with thymic abnormalities that cause the body to block, alter, or destroy receptors for acetylcholine?

A

Myasthenia gravis.

119
Q

If a patient were experiencing a head injury, a brain tumor, or stroke, would this disrupt cerebral perfusion pressure of intracranial pressure?

A

Intracranial pressure.

120
Q

What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Cirrhosis causing the liver to have a decreased ability to break down ammonia into urea, which can cause encephalitis at toxic levels.

121
Q

What is asymptomatic diverticular disease known as?

A

Diverticulosis.

122
Q

What are eight unique signs and symptoms associated with bacterial meningitis?

A

Restlessness, decreased LOC, leukocytosis, petechiae, purpura, hyperproteinemia, decreased CSF glucose, and blood in CSF.

123
Q

What should nurses teach laypeople about CVAs if they think someone is experiencing one?

A

Teach them to act FAST: Face, Arms, Speech, and Time. Is one side of the face drooping? Does one arm drift downward? Can the person repeat a simple sentence? If any of the previous questions are answered with a yet, go to the nearest hospital emergency room.

124
Q

What is another name for jaundice?

A

Icterus.

125
Q

What is one complication due to chronic gastritis?

A

Pernicious anemia due to the loss of intrinsic factor.

126
Q

What are a few known causes of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone?

A

General anesthetics, cerebral trauma, and an ectopic source (i.e. small-cell bronchogenic cancer).

127
Q

What is a volvulus?

A

A torsion or twisting of the intestine with occlusion of blood supply.

128
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

A relatively common autoimmune disorder that results from previous viral insult and causes the body’s own T-cells to attack myelin proteins in brain neurons.

129
Q

What are eleven known causes of PUD?

A

NSAID use, chronic steroid use, heavy ETOH use, cigarette smoking, chronic gastritis, liver disease, CKD, diabetes, COPD, severe psychological stress, and H. pylori.

130
Q

What are four precipitating factors that are known to cause a myxedema crisis in patients with hypothyroidism?

A

An infection, drug, exposure to cold, or trauma.

131
Q

What are some signs and symptoms that are noticed in the prodomal stage of some people who suffer from migraines?

A

An aura that may be perception of a strange light, an unpleasant smell, or confusing thoughts.

132
Q

What is sometimes another name for “closed-angle” glaucoma?

A

Acute glaucoma.

133
Q

What are several, nine, signs and symptoms associated with both viral and bacterial meningitis?

A

Photophobia, HA, irritability, N&V, nuchal rigidity, pyrexia, and Brudzinski’s and/or Kernig’s signs.

134
Q

What are seven signs and symptoms associated with hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lack of mental alertness, confusion, coma, blurred vision, tremors, seizures, and an early-sign is asterixis.

135
Q

A patient with cirrhosis and all its associated problems has an RBC count of 2 million, and thrombocytopenia. These low numbers are most likely caused by what?

A

Splenomegaly secondary to portal hypertension.

136
Q

What most often causes appendicitis?

A

Fecal matter getting caught in the lumen of the appendix, which then causes infection and inflammation.

137
Q

What are a few known etiologies of hypoglycemia?

A

Not eating or food isn’t absorbed, over-exercising, natural hyperinsulinism, or too much exogenous insulin.

138
Q

What are several signs and symptoms of a LGI bleed?

A

Occult bleeding and hematochezia.

139
Q

What six conditions are known to be associated with paralytic ileus?

A

Immobility, post-anesthesia effects, surgery (especially abdominal), peritonitis, electrolyte imbalances, and spinal trauma.

140
Q

What are some causes of nonviral hepatitis?

A

Autoimmunity, microbes, and idiopathic.

141
Q

What are the two most common strains of bacteria that cause bacterial meningitis?

A

Meningococcus and pneumococcus.

142
Q

How would you differentiate a general seizure from a partial seizure?

A

General seizures always cause unconsciousness with the tonic-clonic convulsions.

143
Q

What are three signs and symptoms seen in people with colorectal cancer?

A

Occult or visible blood in stool, and overall changes in bowel habits.

144
Q

Which type or types of diabetes mellitus use Kussmaul respirations as a compensatory response to a crisis?

A

Type I.

145
Q

Which organs are located in the LLQ?

A

Descending colon and sigmoid colon.

146
Q

What are several signs and symptoms of pancreatic cancer?

A

Insidious pain, posthepatic jaundice, and weight loss.

147
Q

When do fat emboli normally occur?

A

When a person with osteoporosis fractures a bone and then fat is released from the marrow of the injured bone to systemic circulation.

148
Q

What are several known etiologies of an intestinal obstruction?

A

Adhesions from scar tissue (from surgery or chronic inflammation), hernia, tumor of intestinal lumen, intussusception, volvulus, and paralytic ileus.

149
Q

What are eight signs and symptoms seen in people who are suffering from Addison’s disease?

A

Hypoglycemia, anorexia, N&V, diarrhea, polyuria, hypovolemia, and hypotension.

150
Q

What causes papilledema?

A

The blockage of venous return from the retina mainly because of increased ICP.

151
Q

With any kind of brain lesion, which absent or diminished reflexes might be clinically manifested?

A

The deep tendon, gag, or coughing reflexes.

152
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is DKA seen?

A

Type I.

153
Q

Where does jaundice cause abnormal pigmentation?

A

In the skin, sclera, inferior portion of tongue, and the oral palate.

154
Q

What are three major aspects associated with myxedema coma?

A

Hypothermia, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, and CO2 retention with hypoxemia.

155
Q

What does the treatment of cirrhosis consist of?

A

Sobriety, liver transplant, low-protein diet, diuretics, and sometimes IV albumin.

156
Q

What is the shifting of fluid from portal veins throughout the abdomen into the abdominal cavity known as?

A

Ascites.

157
Q

What is papilledema?

A

Edema and inflammation of the optic nerve where it enters the retina.

158
Q

What are five abilities and skills associated with the right hemisphere of the cerebrum?

A

Spatiality, insight, creativity, facial recognition, and musical ability.

159
Q

What is another name for the corticospinal tracts?

A

The pyramidal or motor tracts.

160
Q

What are six signs and symptoms associated with hypocalcemia?

A

Muscle spasms, tetany, CKD, petechiae, purpura, and positive Chvostek’s.

161
Q

What are seven risk factors associated with the occurrence of CVAs?

A

Preexisting atherosclerosis, preexisting HTN, age greater than 65, family history, diabetes, smoking, and a high-fat diet.

162
Q

What produces insulin in the human body?

A

The beta cells of the pancreas.

163
Q

If a patient was experiencing hyper- or hypotension, or an arterial blockage of the blood flow to the brain, would this disrupt cerebral perfusion pressure or intracranial pressure?

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure.

164
Q

What is are three known causes of acute gastritis?

A

The overuse of NSAIDs or ETOH, and cancer therapy.

165
Q

What are six signs and symptoms associated with DI?

A

Polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, hypotonic urine, poor skin turgor, and dry mucosa.

166
Q

What are six signs and symptoms associated with an intestinal obstruction?

A

Abdominal distention, severe-colicky abdominal cramping, NandV, constipation, and sometimes liquid diarrhea.

167
Q

What is the effect seen with drug metabolism when someone is suffering from cirrhosis?

A

Drug effects are amplified because there isn’t enough albumin to bind to.

168
Q

What are some types of behaviors, skills, and abilities that are associated with the left hemisphere of the brain?

A

Speech, math, organization, reason, and analyzing.

169
Q

*What are seven risk factors that predispose someone to colorectal cancer?

A

Age over 50, high-fat diet, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, smoking, excessive ETOH, and family history.

170
Q

What is paralytic ileus?

A

The loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine.

171
Q

What are several signs and symptoms PUD?

A

Can be asymptomatic, epigastric pain 1-3 hours after meals, pain that wakes you up at night, and GI bleeding.

172
Q

What are three factors known to cause acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones that cause obstruction in the pancreatic duct, biliary reflux, and ETOH consumption.

173
Q

What are sensorimotor abnormalities below the neck and shoulders you would expect to see in someone right hemispheric stroke?

A

Drooping of the left arm and left leg.

174
Q

Which are the two primary causes of symptoms in persons suffering from Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Amyloid proteins abnormally build up in the brain causing senile plaques, and microtubules of brain neurons become distorted and twisted creating neurofibrillary tangles.

175
Q

Which organs are located in the RUQ?

A

Liver, gallbladder, pancreas, and transverse colon.

176
Q

What are seven factors that increase the risk of a person suffering from an embolic or thrombotic stroke?

A

A-fib, carotid atherosclerosis, air emboli (usually iatrogenic during surgery), clot around mitral/aortic valve prosthesis or vegetation from infected valve, or intracranial artery plaque.

177
Q

What is cirrhosis defined as?

A

The end-stage, irreversible disease of liver.

178
Q

How is the pathogenesis of migraines once an episode is triggered?

A

The trigger causes an alteration in the production of neurotransmitter chemicals, activating the inflammatory response that causes vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and a throbbing unilateral HA.

179
Q

What is another name for chronic gastritis?

A

Atrophic gastritis.

180
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is there a risk of dehydration seen?

A

Type I and II.

181
Q

What are the two etiologies of type 2 DM?

A

Abnormally low insulin production and impaired insulin utilization.

182
Q

What is myxedema?

A

A dermatological symptom of hypothyroidism that causes water to get trapped under the dry, coarse skin, causing an overall puffy appearance.

183
Q

Which three lab results reflect the existence of prehepatic jaundice?

A

High total, high indirect, & normal direct bilirubin.

184
Q

What is another name for posthepatic jaundice?

A

Obstructive jaundice.

185
Q

What are five signs and symptoms associated with metabolic syndrome?

A

Type II DM, increased triglycerides, decreased HDLs, HTN, and abdominal obesity.

186
Q

What are a few conditions known to exacerbate the manifestations of multiple sclerosis?

A

Stressors like heat, cold, and emotional pressure.

187
Q

What are three issues known to cause nystagmus to exist?

A

Congenital defect, cerebellar dysfunction, or inner-ear dysfunction.

188
Q

What does the vertebral artery merge with to supply blood to both the brain stem and cerebellum?

A

The basilar artery.

189
Q

What is the medical term for pupillary constriction?

A

Miosis.

190
Q

What is miosis?

A

Pupillary constriction on the iris responding to acetylcholine released by CN III.

191
Q

What is a severe and irreversible loss of central vision due to destruction of the macula?

A

Age-related macular degeneration.

192
Q

What is the telescoping of one portion of the bowel into the other, causing strangulation of blood supply that is more common in infants called?

A

Intussusception.

193
Q

What is the specific part of the nervous system that is affected in Parkinson’s?

A

The basal ganglia of the extrapyramidal tracts (AKA the extrapyramidal system) that travel downward regulating fine motor control, gait, and posture.

194
Q

What are the results of hypoparathyroidism?

A

Hypocalcemia which leads to hypopolarization.

195
Q

What is the primary glucocorticoid?

A

Cortisol.

196
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is diabetic coma seen?

A

Type I and II.

197
Q

What is the pressure required to get oxygenated blood into the brain to perfuse the cells of the brain?

A

Cerebral perfusion pressure.

198
Q

What is one infectious organism found in most patients who have been diagnosed with PUD?

A

Helicobacter pylori.

199
Q

How does acute gastritis normally resolve?

A

It resolves spontaneously once the offending agent is removed.

200
Q

What are three signs and symptoms of diverticulitis?

A

Pain that is most often in the LLQ, pyrexia, and leukocytosis.

201
Q

What does the word decussate mean when talking about the CNS?

A

Decussation is the anatomical crossing over of neurologic axons in the corticospinal tracts, giving them a pyramidal appearance.

202
Q

What kind of stroke occurs from a clot/plaque that blocks off an artery in which it has developed and causes distal ischemia?

A

A thrombotic stroke.

203
Q

What is a basal ganglia dysfunction disease caused by an unknown source, but is suspected to be genetic, viral, or environmental toxin-induced depletion in dopamine?

A

Parkinson’s disease.

204
Q

What are the demographics of people suffering from multiple sclerosis?

A

Onset between 20 and 50 years of age with a male to female ratio of 1:2.

205
Q

Where is Crohn’s disease normally found?

A

Any part of the intestines can be infected, but 70% of cases involve duodenum, ileum, and cecum; and 20% of cases involve the large intestine.

206
Q

Would infections, acidosis, or alkalosis disrupt cerebral perfusion pressure or intracranial pressure?

A

Intracranial pressure.

207
Q

What is the normal function of aldosterone in the body?

A

It directs the kidneys to hold onto sodium (therefore holding onto water since H2O generally follows Na+) and to get rid of potassium.

208
Q

Which manifestations are associated with protein depletion problems in a patient suffering from cirrhosis?

A

Ascites, generalized edema, and decreased levels of clotting associated with prolonged and easily bleeding (so thrombocytopenia and splenomegaly).

209
Q

What are six of the most common etiologies of a cerebrovascular accident?

A

Cerebral, carotid, and vertebral atherosclerosis; hypertension; brain aneurysms and heart problems involving decreased cardiac output.

210
Q

What is a myasthenia crisis?

A

When myasthenia begins to affect breathing.

211
Q

How does H. pylori normally enter the human body?

A

It is ingested via food, drinking water, or other oral/fecal route more commonly seen in the same families or other crowded conditions.

212
Q

What is intussusception?

A

The telescoping of one portion of the bowel into the other, causing strangulation of blood supply that is more common in infants.

213
Q

If a patient were suffering from hypocalcemia, would Chvostek’s sign be positive or negative?

A

It would be positive.

214
Q

What are ten signs and symptoms seen in appendicitis?

A

Epigastric or periumbilical pain that migrates to the RLQ, pain exacerbated by movement, rebound tenderness, N&V, diarrhea, anorexia, pyrexia, and leukocytosis.

215
Q

In which population does atrophic gastritis mainly occur?

A

The elderly.

216
Q

If there is a present issue with CN VII related to a stroke, what signs and or symptoms might be seen?

A

Facial expression abnormalities.

217
Q

What are always almost the two causes of cholecystitis?

A

Cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis.

218
Q

What are two signs and/or symptoms associated with open-angle glaucoma?

A

Slow loss of peripheral vision, and is normally painless.

219
Q

What are four signs and symptoms associated with hypoaldosteronism?

A

Possibly hyponatremia, polyuria, hypovolemia, and hypotension.

220
Q

What nutritional problems, if any, arise in people suffering from cirrhosis?

A

Bile salt production is impaired which causes impaired fat and fat-soluble vitamin absorption, and impaired glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis (leading to hypoglycemia).

221
Q

What are some known causes of the two inflammatory bowel diseases?

A

Infectious agents like bacteria and viruses, family history, and autoimmune response that is known to occur with arthritis and vasculitis.

222
Q

What is another name for viral meningitis?

A

Aseptic meningitis.

223
Q

What are eight signs and symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

RUQ and epigastric pain, painful spasms known as biliary colic, exacerbation after a high-fat meal, pain radiation to R shoulder and scapula, N&V, and posthepatic jaundice.

224
Q

True or false, any dysfunction that affects the extrapyramidal system results in “parkinsonianisms”?

A

True.

225
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is acetone-like breath seen/smelled?

A

Type I.

226
Q

What are cataracts?

A

A cloudy, opaque area of the lends resulting from protein coagulation in the lens.

227
Q

Which organs are located in the epigastric region?

A

Pyloric valve, duodenum, and pancreas.

228
Q

What disease results because of hypocortisolism and hypoaldosteronism?

A

Addison’s disease.

229
Q

A patient presents with signs and symptoms of dehydration, weight loss, and a blood glucose of 50. What is a likely diagnosis?

A

Addison’s disease.

230
Q

What are eight signs and symptoms that occur in people with Parkinson’s disease?

A

Mask-like face, overall hypertonia, dysarthria, dysphagia, “cog-wheel” rigidity of forearms, dyskinesia, “pill-rolling” tremor, and stooped-shuffling gait.

231
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is the symptom of polyphagia seen?

A

Type I.

232
Q

What is a cloudy, opaque area of the lens that results from protein coagulation in the lens called?

A

Cataracts.

233
Q

How do you describe epilepsy when talking about seizures in patients?

A

Epilepsy is a congenital seizure disorder, while the word seizure only refers to convulsions.

234
Q

Which hormone or hormones does the adrenal cortex secrete?

A

Cortisol and aldosterone.

235
Q

What abnormal levels of cerebral perfusion pressure can cause cerebral edema and increased ICP?

A

Both too low and too high CPP can cause those conditions.

236
Q

What is the role of H. pylori in peptic ulcer disease?

A

The gram-negative bacteria doesn’t produce ulcers itself, but it damages the mucosa making it more vulnerable to pepsin and HCl.

237
Q

What are four signs and symptoms seen with suppression of prostaglandin activity?

A

Anti-clotting effects, anti-immunocyte effects, decreased protection of stomach lining, and increased peripheral vasoconstriction.

238
Q

Which three types of medications are used to treat PUD?

A

H2-blockers, PPIs, and antibiotics if H. pylori is present.

239
Q

What is the general term that means pathologically “porous bone”?

A

Osteoporosis.

240
Q

What is the name of the abnormal breathing pattern seen in comatose patients who are not on a ventilator and suspected of suffering a brain/brain stem attack?

A

Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

241
Q

What is the normal level of osmolality in humans?

A

280-295.

242
Q

What is the primary mineralcorticoid?

A

Aldosterone.

243
Q

What word means the movement of a substance back into the circulation from somewhere else?

A

Resorption.

244
Q

What are some characteristics of unconjugated bilirubin?

A

It is released by the spleen as a water-insoluble substance, so it must bind to a protein carrier to be taken to the liver.

245
Q

What is peptic ulcer disease?

A

A chronic inflammatory condition of the stomach and proximal duodenum where disturbance of their mucosal lining allows acid to ulcerate the underlying tissues.

246
Q

What are three expected lab results to be seen in hepatic jaundice?

A

High or normal total, high indirect, & low direct bilirubin.

247
Q

Which hormone increases calcium movement from blood into bone?

A

The thyroid hormone calcitonin.

248
Q

Why does portal hypertension occur in cirrhosis?

A

Because of the development of fibrotic tissues in the liver cause it to become resistant to normal portal venous flow.

249
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a migraine during an episode?

A

HA that is often unilateral, N&V, photophobia, and phonophobia.

250
Q

What is the issue(s) in Cushing’s disease?

A

Pathologic oversecretion of ACTH, or the presence of an adrenal cortex tumor or malfunction that causes it to hypersecrete cortisol and aldosterone.

251
Q

The nurse caring for a patient with cirrhosis notices signs and symptoms of encephalopathy such as confusion and asterixis. What is the cause of these most likely?

A

Increased serum ammonia.

252
Q

In what four ways is hepatitis B and C normally transmitted?

A

Normally parenterally via IV drug abuse, blood transfusion, needlestick injury, and sexual intercourse.

253
Q

What are three known causes of chronic gastritis?

A

H. pylori, autoimmunity, and reflux of post-gastric contents.

254
Q

A patient complains of severe vertigo and nausea. The RN notes the presence of nystagmus. What is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

A

A cerebellar stroke.

255
Q

What is another word for a patient who is in a post-seizure condition?

A

Post-ictal.

256
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

A chronic autoimmune disease sometimes associated with thymic abnormalities that cause the body to block, alter, or destroy cholinergic receptors.

257
Q

How is Cushing’s diagnosed?

A

Observation of signs and symptoms, and obtaining cortisol levels at different times of the day.

258
Q

If you are not eating enough food even though your body is telling you that you’re hungry, what hormone(s) is/are released first?

A

Epinephrine and cortisol are secreted causing shakiness, irritability, diaphoresis, & hunger pangs.

259
Q

In which type(s) of diabetes mellitus is hyperglycemic-hyperosmolar-nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS) seen?

A

Type II.

260
Q

What is cretinism?

A

The manifestations of untreated congenital hypothyroidism.

261
Q

What is the principal process in diabetes insipidus?

A

The undersecretion of ADH.

262
Q

What are seven signs and symptoms seen in a cerebellar stroke?

A

Vertigo, nystagmus, N&V, ataxia, falls, and vertebral-basilar artery occlusion.

263
Q

What treatments are available for hepatitis B and C?

A

Vaccine and immunoglobulin available for B, but neither is available for C.

264
Q

What are several signs and symptoms associated with a patient suffering from closed-angle glaucoma?

A

Acute pain, blurred (especially peripheral) vision, and halos around objects.

265
Q

*What are nine known factors that increase the risk of pancreatic cancer?

A

Smoking; diet high in fat, meat, salt, dehydrated, and fried foods; refined sugars; genetic risk; and age between 60-80 years.

266
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of acute gastritis?

A

Epigastric pain, pyrosis, sour stomach, hemorrhage, and hematemesis.

267
Q

What treatments are implemented in people suffering from an ischemic stroke?

A

Correction of underlying problems (like a-fib), thrombolytic drugs must be started in 3-4.5 hours of incident, and anticoagulation therapy that starts with Heparin then Coumadin.

268
Q

What are some known triggers to migraines in some people?

A

Chemicals in red wine, chocolate, and certain cheeses; a stressful event; a smell; or a sound.

269
Q

What is ascites?

A

The shifting of fluid from portal veins throughout the abdomen into the abdominal cavity.

270
Q

What are three of some of the most common causes of a lower gastrointestinal bleed?

A

IBD, diverticulitis, and neoplasms.

271
Q

If a person were experiencing signs and symptoms like hearing loss, vertigo, nystagmus, and tinnitus, which cranial nerve would most likely be affected to result in these conditions?

A

Cranial nerve VIII, the vestibulocochlear nerve.

272
Q

Which organs are located in the RLQ?

A

Cecum, appendix, and ascending colon.

273
Q

What are five signs and symptoms associated with an upper gastrointestinal bleed?

A

Visible, occult, or coffee ground hematemesis, and occult fecal bleeding or melena.

274
Q

What is diverticulosis?

A

Asymptomatic diverticular disease.

275
Q

Which organs are located in the umbilical region?

A

Lower duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

276
Q

What is the time frame of a transient ischemic attack?

A

A transient stroke that only had symptoms that last less than 24 hours and have no lasting neurologic deficit.

277
Q

Why is smoking considered to cause or exacerbate several GI disorders?

A

Because it stimulates HCl secretion and decreases blood flow to tissues in the area.

278
Q

Is primary or secondary/tertiary Addison’s disease associated with autoimmune conditions?

A

Primary Addison’s disease is associated with autoimmune conditions, not secondary/tertiary.

279
Q

*What are several signs and symptoms seen with multiple sclerosis?

A

Paresthesia, myasthenia, vertigo, ataxia, dysarthria, diplopia, and incontinence–all of which are usually asymmetrical.

280
Q

What is a fast, deep breathing pattern which is also a compensatory response to metabolic acidosis in which the lungs “blow off” CO2 to increase the pH?

A

Kussmaul respirations.

281
Q

Why is there an increased risk of infection in cirrhosis?

A

Because the Kupffer cells (macrophages) of the liver no longer filter bacteria properly.

282
Q

What is the most common form of a brain attack?

A

Ischemic CVAs which make up 80% of all strokes.