Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Do patients with asthma and emphysema often have respiratory acidosis or alkalosis?

A

Respiratory alkalosis often occurs with asthma and emphysema.

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2
Q

What are four diseases or conditions that can cause lung tissue restriction?

A

Pneumonia, TB, pulmonary edema, and lung cancer.

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3
Q

What is RHF caused by pulmonary vascular resistance known as?

A

Cor pulmonale.

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4
Q

What is an adjective used to describe the effects of different factors on cardiac contractility?

A

Inotropic.

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5
Q

What is a malignant neoplastic condition of the prostate gland common in males over age 50, diagnosed with an elevated PSA and rectal examination of the prostate?

A

Prostate cancer.

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6
Q

What condition has symptoms like the swelling of bronchial lining and constriction of bronchial musculature in response to an allergen, and wheezing on exhalation and use of accessory muscles?

A

Asthma.

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7
Q

What are signs and symptoms of the dangerous DVT sequela known as a pulmonary embolism?

A

Chest pain, SOB, hemoptysis, shock, and massive release of inflammatory mediators.

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8
Q

What are abnormal clumps of proteins and cells that flow with the urine or adhere to the luminal wall?

A

Casts.

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9
Q

What is one possible etiology that causes hypoventilation (aka bradypnea)?

A

Increased pressure on respiratory center from an intracranial bleed.

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10
Q

What two treatments are used in cardiogenic shock?

A

Positive inotropes to increase contractility, and peripheral vasodilators to decrease afterload.

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11
Q

What is the presence of air in the pleural space (for example, from trauma) which can cause a lung to collapse?

A

A pneumothorax.

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12
Q

What is another name for croup?

A

Laryngotracheobronchitis.

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13
Q

What two conditions are an indicator of renal ischemia or tubule death and with the possibility of casts being present in the urine?

A

Acute tubular necrosis or an intra-renal acute kidney injury.

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14
Q

What are several signs and symptoms associated with a pleural effusion?

A

Chills, pyrexia, pleurisy (pleuritic pain) upon deep breaths, and hypopnea.

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15
Q

What is preload?

A

What comes to the ventricles before contraction (from venous return).

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16
Q

Which muscles used during inhalation is normal, but is abnormal during exhalation?

A

The diaphragm and intercostal muscles.

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17
Q

What does BUN stand for?

A

Blood urea nitrogen.

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18
Q

What are inflammatory/infectious debris accumulate in alveoli and surrounding tissue called?

A

Infiltrates.

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19
Q

In which obstructive lung disease does chronic hypercapnia most often occur?

A

In chronic bronchitis.

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20
Q

What is the normal V/Q amount?

A

4 liters of ventilation over 5 liters of perfusion, equaling 0.8.

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21
Q

Is the “barrel chest” symptom one that occurs in emphysema or chronic bronchitis?

A

It occurs in emphysema.

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22
Q

If a patient is experiencing hyperphosphatemia due to CKD, how would this be treated?

A

With oral antacids so they can bind to phosphates and prevent their absorption.

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23
Q

Where do most venous disorders occur?

A

In the legs.

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24
Q

What is the hallmark sign of croup?

A

Stridor.

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25
Q

If a patient has depressed or absent gag, swallowing, and/or cough reflexes, which type of pneumonia are they at risk for?

A

Aspiration pneumonia.

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26
Q

What is a clot that develops on the wall of a vein, most of the time in deep veins (not usually surface veins) of thighs and calves called?

A

A deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

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27
Q

What are several signs and symptoms associated with pulmonary edema?

A

Cough, SOB, inspiratory rales, frothy-pink sputum, and hypoxemia.

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28
Q

What is a localized dilatation or outpouching of arterial vessel wall?

A

An aneurysm.

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29
Q

What is the presence of abnormal amounts of nitrogen and nitrogen-based compounds in the blood called?

A

Azotemia.

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30
Q

What is the most often cause of a hypercoagulable state?

A

Dehydration.

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31
Q

What is subjective sensation of not being able to get enough air?

A

Dyspnea.

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32
Q

What condition exists when a patient may be in chronic metabolic acidosis, anemic, and experience pruritus from high levels of urea in the blood?

A

Chronic kidney disease.

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33
Q

What are six signs and symptoms associated with emphysema?

A

Alveolar hyperinflation without elastic recoil, chronic hyperventilation, pursed-lip breathing, anorexia, and a barrel chest.

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34
Q

What are two ways to increase one’s level of HDLs?

A

Exercise and sometimes niacin.

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35
Q

Having CAD increases which two serum chemicals?

A

CRP and homocysteine (linked to worsening atherosclerosis).

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36
Q

What are two conditions that restrict the pleura?

A

Pleural effusion and pneumothorax.

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37
Q

What is the amount of blood ejected during every systole called?

A

Stroke volume.

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38
Q

What is another name for a closed pneumothorax?

A

A tension pneumothorax.

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39
Q

What is an autosomal recessive disease that causes abnormality in the chloride channel present on the surface of many types epithelial cells—airways, sweat ducts, pancreas?

A

Cystic fibrosis.

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40
Q

What are five factors that can lead to decreased contractility from RV weakness, leading to RHF?

A

Ischemia, MI, electrolyte disturbances, and/or HR/rhythm problems.

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41
Q

What happens to cardiac output with PADs?

A

Cardiac output is decreased with PAD.

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42
Q

Which blood pressure is the pressure in the arteries that is exerted when the heart is contracting and ejecting blood out to the arteries?

A

Systolic pressure.

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43
Q

What is the microbe that causes syphilis?

A

The spirochete Treponema pallidum.

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44
Q

What is another name for peripheral arterial disease?

A

Peripheral arterial insufficiency.

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45
Q

What disease has the signs and symptoms of inflammation of the larynx and bronchi with fever, increased RR, barking cough, stridor usually occurs in infants and children younger than 1 year old?

A

Croup.

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46
Q

What is almost always the cause of arterial insufficiency?

A

Atherosclerosis.

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47
Q

What is a disorder in which the coronary arteries are narrowed and/or occluded?

A

Coronary artery disease.

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48
Q

What condition consists of large, stiff, hyperinflated alveoli that have no elastic recoil, chronic hyperventilation, pursed-lip breathing, thin with no appetite, and a barrel chest?

A

Emphysema.

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49
Q

What are seven signs and symptoms specific to LHF?

A

Fatigue, asthenia, decreased LOC, hypotension, SOB, prolonged capillary refill, and oliguria.

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50
Q

What is the pressure issue that occurs in someone with pneumothorax?

A

The normal negative pressure of the lungs is disrupted, becoming the same of that of the atmosphere as air comes in.

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51
Q

What are two factors that contribute to venous congestion?

A

Gravity “winning”, and valve incompetence.

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52
Q

What are seven signs and symptoms associated with PADs?

A

Intermittent claudication, diminished/absent pulses, delayed capillary refill, delayed wound healing, pallor, no hair on legs, and oliguria.

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53
Q

The “lub” sound signifies what when listening to the heart?

A

The closure of the AV valves.

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54
Q

If a patient has an abnormally elevated serum BNP level, what diagnosis can be confirmed?

A

Heart failure.

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55
Q

What BP would be considered hypotension?

A

<90/<60.

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56
Q

Why does pruritus occur in patients with CKD?

A

Because the of urea deposition in the skin when the kidneys can get rid of it normally.

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57
Q

What are the four most common obstructive lung diseases?

A

Asthma, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and cystic fibrosis.

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58
Q

What changes would you see in the specific gravity of a patient with CKD?

A

A low specific gravity.

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59
Q

What are five treatments used in the treatment of venous problems?

A

Mobility, hydration, leg elevation, checks for skin breaks, and sometimes blood thinners.

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60
Q

What does a peak flow test measure?

A

How well a patient can force air out of their lungs.

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61
Q

What is the treatment for croup?

A

Cool mist and sometimes steroids.

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62
Q

What are six signs and symptoms of an asthma exacerbation?

A

Expiratory wheezing, accessory muscle use for exhaling, prolonged expirations, hyperventilation, respiratory alkalosis, and lower-than-normal PF.

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63
Q

What are two ways that ischemia to the cardiac cells affect cardiac function?

A

It causes negative inotropic influences and decreased cardiac output.

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64
Q

What are seven known factors that contribute to the development of CVI?

A

Aging, heredity, obesity, job-related issues, immobility, lack of muscular assistance, and sometimes pregnancy.

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65
Q

If epinephrine is consistently over-released, what effect does that have on the heart?

A

It increases HR and contractility considerably.

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66
Q

Who are those that are most likely to fall in Virchow’s triad?

A

Sedentary lifestyles, casts or other immobilizing devices, bed-ridden, wheelchair-bound, pregnant, obese, diuretics, certain hormone therapies (like BCPs), and pre-existing circulation issues.

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67
Q

Which seven signs and symptoms are associated with decreased cardiac output?

A

Fatigue, asthenia, mental status changes, hypotension, dyspnea, prolonged capillary refill, and oliguria.

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68
Q

What do blood tests look for to see if a patient is suffering from an acute myocardial infarction?

A

CK and troponin.

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69
Q

How is cardiac output calculated?

A

By multiplying the heart rate and the stroke volume.

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70
Q

What is the normal time for capillary refill (or nail blanching)?

A

A time equal to or less than two seconds.

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71
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

The presence of functioning endometrium outside the uterus.

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72
Q

What are sequelae of HTN and hypervolemia caused by RAAS over-activity?

A

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of arterial smooth muscles, and intima damage of the arteries and arterioles.

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73
Q

The “dub” sound signifies what when listening to the heart?

A

The closure of the pulmonary and aortic valves.

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74
Q

What are six signs and symptoms seen in patients with lung cancer?

A

Pleural effusion, cough, hemoptysis, SOB, chest wall pain, and anorexia.

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75
Q

What are the two subcategories of someone with acute coronary syndrome?

A

Unstable angina and myocardial infarction.

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76
Q

In which form of COPD are you likely to destruction of the alveoli and the capillaries?

A

In emphysema.

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77
Q

What is the most common cause of atrial fibrillation?

A

When the myocardium has to endure long-term hypoxic strain or a chronic problem such as HF.

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78
Q

What condition exists when a patient will chronically have hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, possibly hypernatremia, and high serum levels of BUN and creatinine?

A

Chronic kidney disease.

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79
Q

What are three pathological causes of primary hypertension?

A

Atherosclerosis, overactivity of the SNS, and overactivity of the RAAS.

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80
Q

What is the organism that causes TB?

A

The Gram-neutral Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

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81
Q

What are two commonalities of arterial disease in all parts of body?

A

Alteration in vasomotor tone (loss of flexibility and responsiveness), and non-patent lumen.

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82
Q

In which form of COPD are you more likely to see cor pulmonale?

A

In chronic bronchitis.

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83
Q

In which form of COPD are you likely to see an overall pink appearance?

A

In emphysema.

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84
Q

What is hypopnea?

A

Shallow breathing.

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85
Q

What is atelectasis?

A

Lung tissue collapse with the loss of volume.

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86
Q

What is hypoventilation?

A

A respiratory rate under 12 breaths per minute.

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87
Q

What are four treatments used to address stable angina?

A

Ones that maximize coronary patency, ones that decrease cardiac workload, NTG, and ASA.

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88
Q

Which type of COPD has chronic hyperventilation, emphysema or chronic bronchitis?

A

Emphysema.

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89
Q

What conditions exists when a valve orifice is constricted and narrowed so blood cannot easily flow forward through it, causing turbulence that can be heard as a murmur?

A

Stenosis.

90
Q

What is systemic vascular resistance?

A

The afterload of the left ventricle.

91
Q

What is characterized by excruciating or colicky flank or groin pain, a decrease in urinary output, hematuria, and may create hydronephrosis if not treated quickly?

A

Renal lithiasis.

92
Q

What are thin-walled vessels that take deoxygenated blood from tissue beds all over the body back to the right side of the heart?

A

Veins.

93
Q

What is excess water in the alveoli from a cardiac problem, such as LHF known as?

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

94
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for adults?

A

12-20 breaths per minute.

95
Q

In which form of COPD is there a bronchial component?

A

In chronic bronchitis, but not emphysema.

96
Q

Which organs are considered to be a part of the central circulatory system?

A

The heart, lungs, brain, and kidneys.

97
Q

What most commonly causes nosocomial pneumonia?

A

The Gram-negative microbes of Pseudomonas.

98
Q

What are the four primary reasons for low V/Q disorders?

A

Chest wall restrictions, airway restrictions, pleural restrictions, and lung tissue restrictions.

99
Q

If a patient has oliguria and the specific gravity is low, what should a nurse do?

A

Look for a renal problem.

100
Q

Is asthma a restrictive or obstructive lung disease?

A

It’s an obstructive lung disease.

101
Q

What is the compensatory response to stable angina with its subtle ischemia?

A

Arteriogenesis (aka collateral circulation).

102
Q

What group of lung diseases refers to processes related to difficult with inhalation?

A

Restrictive lung diseases.

103
Q

What are the eight signs and symptoms associated with pneumonia?

A

Pyrexia, chills, malaise, pleurisy, cough, SOB, rales, and diminished breath sounds.

104
Q

With RHF, you would generally see signs and symptoms of poor cardiac output and fluid back up to where?

A

To the periphery like JVD, ascites, and peripheral edema in the legs and feet.

105
Q

What is the genus of the species that causes gonorrhea.

A

Neisseria.

106
Q

What are three signs and symptoms associated with prostate cancer?

A

Age over 50, elevated PSA, and palpable changes during digital rectal exam.

107
Q

What does venous stasis do to pressures inside the body?

A

It causes an increase in hydrostatic pressure inside the affected veins.

108
Q

What are two common pathological causes of aneurysms?

A

Atherosclerosis and HTN.

109
Q

What is the volume of blood returning to the right side of the heart from the veins of the body?

A

Preload.

110
Q

True or false, cold feet with diminished pulses is a sign of atherosclerosis?

A

True.

111
Q

What are three causes of tachycardia?

A

Neurohormonal influences, electrolyte changes that cause hypopolarization, and SA/AV node “glitches”.

112
Q

What is chronic venous insufficiency (CVI) most often caused by?

A

Leg vein valves wearing out and becoming “floppy”; so, they don’t close tightly during diastole, allowing backflow into distal veins of legs and feet.

113
Q

What is a normal BNP level?

A

50 pg/mL.

114
Q

What is one common etiology associated with noncardiogenic pulmonary edema?

A

Inhalation of smoke leading to capillary endothelium injury, causing increased capillary permeability and disrupting surfactant production.

115
Q

What are four conditions that would lead to systemic vascular resistance?

A

HTN, increased peripheral arterial vasoconstriction, and narrowed/blocked systemic arteries.

116
Q

What is a normal heart rate?

A

60-100 bpm.

117
Q

If HTN is caused by over-activity of the RAAS, what can you expect to see in relation to vasculature?

A

High blood volume and pressure.

118
Q

What is the presence of functioning endometrium outside the uterus, accompanied by signs and symptoms of dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, and infertility?

A

Endometriosis.

119
Q

What is the average stroke volume in someone healthy?

A

Around 70 mL/heartbeat.

120
Q

In which form of COPD are you likely to see weight loss?

A

Emphysema.

121
Q

In which form of COPD are you likely to see weight gain?

A

Chronic bronchitis.

122
Q

When is tuberculosis referred to as miliar TB?

A

When it invades tissues other than lung tissue.

123
Q

What is afterload?

A

Any form of resistance to the ejection of blood from a heart.

124
Q

What is a normal BUN level?

A

7-25 mg/dL.

125
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Shock that is caused by a heart problem.

126
Q

What are seven factors that cause damage to the arterial vessels?

A

HTN, smoking, diabetes, infection, hypercholesterolemia, free radicals, and aging.

127
Q

What is an infection of the female reproductive tract, often caused by STIs with signs and symptoms like abnormal vaginal discharge and pelvic/abdominal pain?

A

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

128
Q

What are TWELVE signs and symptoms seen in people with acute coronary syndrome?

A

Diaphoresis, chest pain unrelieved by rest, abnormal HR, dysrhythmia, NandV, fatigue, asthenia, hypotension, SOB, prolonged capillary refill, and oliguria.

129
Q

What does the P wave signify on an EKG?

A

Atrial depolarization.

130
Q

What are several risk factors associated with the occurrence of renal calculi?

A

Male, gout, dehydration, dietary factors, and diseases that cause hypercalcemia (like multiple myeloma).

131
Q

What is hyperpnea?

A

Increased depth (tidal volume) of respirations.

132
Q

If HTN were due to altered hemodynamics associated with a disease process such as an adrenal tumor or renal problem, what would this be called?

A

Secondary HTN.

133
Q

What is another name for community-acquired pneumonia?

A

“Walking” pneumonia.

134
Q

What is arteriosclerosis?

A

A chronic disease of arterial system usually related to aging, in which artery walls become thick and hardened.

135
Q

What does the QRS complex signify on an EKG?

A

Ventricular depolarization.

136
Q

What are four conditions that cause pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

Increased pulmonary arterial vasoconstriction, chronic bronchitis, and narrowed/blocked pulmonary arteries.

137
Q

Which blood pressure is the pressure existing in the arteries when the heart is between systoles?

A

Diastolic pressure.

138
Q

What are the 5 P’s of PAD?

A

Pain, paresthesia, pallor, pulselessness, and poikilothermia.

139
Q

What are seven common signs and symptoms associated with lung cancer?

A

Pleural effusion, cough, hemoptysis, chest wall pain, SOB, anorexia, and weight loss.

140
Q

What are six signs and symptoms seen in somone with cardiogenic shock?

A

Hypotension, tachycardia, SOB, oliguria, pallor, and decreased LOC.

141
Q

What does ST signify on an EKG?

A

The time interval between end of ventricular depolarization (S) & repolarization (T).

142
Q

What is the hypersecretion of mucus and chronic productive cough for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years known as?

A

Chronic bronchitis.

143
Q

If an AKI was caused by BPH, what type of AKI would it be?

A

A postrenal AKI due to BPH.

144
Q

If either the left or right ventricle is overwhelmed by fluid overload, what is that condition called and what does it lead to?

A

Increased preload while leading to decreased cardiac output.

145
Q

What are eight signs and symptoms associated with TB?

A

Cough, fatigue, weight loss, anorexia, low-grade pyrexia, nocturnal diaphoresis, purulent sputum, and hemoptysis.

146
Q

In which form of COPD are you likely to see an overall blue appearance?

A

In chronic bronchitis.

147
Q

What results from an increased HR and contractility?

A

Increased cardiac output and ejection pressure, which in itself leads to a higher volume.

148
Q

What is a malignant neoplastic condition characterized by abdominal bloating, mild abdominal discomfort, and constipation that can be found early during yearly pelvic exams?

A

Ovarian cancer.

149
Q

What is pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

The afterload of the right ventricle.

150
Q

Where can syphilis present itself on the human body?

A

Anywhere where the microbe contacts the mucosa.

151
Q

What are three lab results you would expect to see in a prerenal AKI?

A

High BUN, high specific gravity, and normal creatinine.

152
Q

To which demographics is spontaneous pneumothorax most like to occur?

A

To those who are tall, thin, and smokers.

153
Q

What can be caused by kidney stones, BPH, or uterine prolapse?

A

A post-renal acute kidney injury.

154
Q

What are the two forms of symptomatic CAD?

A

Stable angina and acute coronary syndrome.

155
Q

What does the T wave signify on an EKG?

A

Ventricular repolarization.

156
Q

What are several known causes of pleural effusion?

A

Lung cancer, and heaving coughing (from bronchitis or pneumonia).

157
Q

With LHF, you would generally see signs and symptoms of poor cardiac output and fluid back up to where?

A

To the lungs.

158
Q

What are four conditions that lead to chest wall restrictions and therefore decreasing ventilation?

A

Kyphosis, obesity, polio, and myasthenia gravis.

159
Q

What condition is present if RHF is caused by a pulmonary vascular resistance problem?

A

Cor pulmonale.

160
Q

What is extra fluid in the pleural space from infection or cancer called?

A

Pleural effusion.

161
Q

What is the normal range for partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (the PO2)?

A

80-100 mmHg.

162
Q

What are seven signs and symptoms associated with low CO and low perfusion?

A

Fatigue, asthenia, LOC changes, hypotension, SOB, prolonged capillary refill, and oliguria.

163
Q

What are the two major categories of heart valve problems?

A

Stenosis and incompetence.

164
Q

What usually causes orthopnea?

A

When a person is lying down, causing an increase in venous return to the heart, but usually due to LHF the heart can’t handle the extra flow, causing dyspnea.

165
Q

What are three medications used for asthma?

A

Bronchodilators, NSAIDs, and steroids.

166
Q

Which disease is characterized by dysuria, frequency and urgency of urination, hematuria, pyuria, and can also include pyrexia or pain at the costo-vertebral angle?

A

A urinary tract infection.

167
Q

Which two heart chambers are contracting during systole?

A

The right and left ventricle.

168
Q

What are nine signs and symptoms associated with tuberculosis?

A

Cough, fatigue, weight loss, anorexia, low-grade pyrexia, nocturnal diaphoresis, purulent sputum, hemoptysis, and granulomatous lesions.

169
Q

What are two sequelae of atrial fibrillation?

A

Decreased cardiac output, and blood pooling in atria.

170
Q

What is a chaotic series of electrical impulses in the ventricles that cause them to quiver ineffectively instead of contracting smoothly?

A

Ventricular fibrillation.

171
Q

What is the most common cause of PID in women?

A

Chlamydia.

172
Q

What is a chronic disease of arterial system usually related to aging, in which artery walls become thick and hardened?

A

Arteriosclerosis.

173
Q

What are four known causes of a pre-renal acute kidney injury?

A

Acute vasoconstriction or trauma to the aorta or renal arteries, hypotension/hypovolemia from hemorrhage, and inadequate cardiac output.

174
Q

What is a proliferation of prostate glandular tissue which results in signs and symptoms that include urgency, delay in starting urine flow, decrease in flow of urine, urine retention?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia.

175
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

The presence of air in the pleural space which can cause a lung to collapse.

176
Q

What begins systole?

A

An electrical signal generated by the SA node.

177
Q

What is is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways due to bronchial hyperresponsiveness to stimuli such as allergens in environment known as?

A

Asthma.

178
Q

What is any form of resistance to the ejection of blood from a heart?

A

The afterload.

179
Q

What condition can be caused by nephrotoxic drugs; poisons & toxins; renal infections, or autoimmune situations?

A

An intra-renal acute kidney injury.

180
Q

What lab results are expected to be seen in someone with an intrarenal AKI?

A

High serum creatinine and presence of casts in UA.

181
Q

What are two responses to the tissue irritation caused by atherosclerosis?

A

Both inflammatory and coagulatory responses are triggered.

182
Q

What is the goal of electrical and mechanical functions of heart?

A

To create effective cardiac output.

183
Q

In males with unresolved cryptorchidism, what are they at greater risk for?

A

Testicular cancer.

184
Q

What are the four organs primarily affects by hypertension?

A

The brains, eyes, heart, and kidneys.

185
Q

What disease or condition presents in men ages 15 to 35 with a painless testicular mass?

A

Testicular cancer.

186
Q

What is the average for cardiac output?

A

4-6 L/min.

187
Q

Would a patient with CKD take or avoid drugs if they increased potassium reabsorption in DCT?

A

CKD patients avoid drugs that increase potassium reabsorption.

188
Q

Why is there such variation in the radiation of pain from an MI or angina?

A

Because afferent sensory nerve fibers for the heart include C3 to T4.

189
Q

What is given to help combat RAAS over-activity?

A

ACE inhibitors.

190
Q

What is an acute infection of the lower respiratory tract caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites characterized by atelectasis and consolidation?

A

Pneumonia.

191
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

RHF due to a pulmonary vascular resistance problem.

192
Q

What is contractility when talking about the heart?

A

The heart’s vigorousness of its contraction.

193
Q

What are five signs and symptoms associated with fluid back-up into the peripheral veins?

A

JVD, liver congestion (leading to hepatomegaly), ascites, and peripheral edema.

194
Q

What can be caused by acute vasoconstriction or trauma to aorta and/or renal arteries, hypotension/hypovolemia from hemorrhage, dehydration, and/or an inadequate CO?

A

A pre-renal AKI.

195
Q

What group of lung diseases is due to difficulty with exhalation?

A

Obstructive lung diseases.

196
Q

What is a normal serum creatinine level?

A

0.6-1.2 mg/dL.

197
Q

What are of the most common causes of urethritis and prostatitis in men?

A

Chlamydia and gonorrhea.

198
Q

What condition exists when the kidneys make a small amount of urine (or none at all) with a low specific gravity. Chronically high levels of serum wastes are present?

A

Chronic kidney disease.

199
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

The average amount of blood the LV ejects (and is therefore in circulation) per minute.

200
Q

If something has a “positive inotropic effect” what does it do?

A

It enhances contractility of the heart.

201
Q

What are the two factors that contribute to good arterial perfusion of distal tissues?

A

A patent lumen and good vasomotor tone.

202
Q

What are five signs and symptoms of chronic bronchitis?

A

Immobility, central cyanosis, digital clubbing, chronic hypercapnia, and excessive sputum production.

203
Q

If a pulmonary embolus blocks one of the branches of the pulmonary arterial vasculature, what would you expect to happen to the V/Q?

A

It would lead to a high V/Q due to decreased perfusion.

204
Q

What are six signs and symptoms of croup?

A

Laryngitis, bronchitis, pyrexia, tachypnea, stridor, and a “barking” cough.

205
Q

What is the most common symptoms of CAD?

A

Angina.

206
Q

What are the four sequelae of congestive heart failure?

A

Diminished CO, poor perfusion, hypervolemia, and backing-up of fluid.

207
Q

When thinking about cardiac output, what three things happen in a patient with CHF?

A

Decreased (pumping) contractility, increased afterload, and increased preload.

208
Q

What are four signs and symptoms of cystic fibrosis?

A

Sputum overproduction, frequent URIs, very salty sweat, and blocking of pancreatic enzymes.

209
Q

What are four known acquired causes of chronic kidney disease?

A

AKI that is not “fixed quickly”, HTN, atherosclerosis, and DM.

210
Q

What are the two greatest factors in maintaining normal flow of oxygenated blood in arteries?

A

Vasomotor tone and patent lumen.

211
Q

What are three drugs used to treat heart failure?

A

Positive inotropic drugs, vasodilators, and diuretics.

212
Q

What makes up Virchow’s triad and what does it signify?

A

Venous endothelium injury, blood flow stasis, and hypercoagulability states; having one of these puts you at high risk of DVT.

213
Q

In which form of COPD can patients be seen standing in a tripod position?

A

In emphysema.

214
Q

What is the normal specific gravity of the urine?

A

1.002 to 1.028.

215
Q

Because of the increased venous hydrostatic pressure from venous stasis, what happens next?

A

Edema in the affected area which can lead to ulcers, and varicose veins.

216
Q

What is a pleural effusion?

A

Extra fluid in the pleural space from an infection or cancer.

217
Q

What are four forms of airway restrictions?

A

Croup, foreign bodies, and tumors of the trachea/bronchi.

218
Q

Some venous blood tends to stay and settle out in the veins of the leg and foot tissues, what is this known as?

A

Venous congestion.

219
Q

What is the process of delivery of oxygen and nutrients via arterial system to tissue beds all over body?

A

Perfusion.

220
Q

What are several signs and symptoms associated with a DVT?

A

Inflammatory signs, usually unilateral, can be very painful or asymptomatic.

221
Q

What is pulmonary consolidation?

A

The abnormal presence of liquid within lung tissue.