Test 2 Flashcards
What causes hypochromic RBCs?
When they lose hemoglobin content.
What do phospholipases do in the arachidonic pathway?
They are catalysts in the creation of arachidonic acid.
What is malaria?
A protozoan infection spread by mosquito vectors that reproduces in hepatocytes, which is then released into the blood causing hemolysis.
Which immunity exists when there is transfer of antibodies from mom to baby via the placenta or breast milk?
Natural passive acquired immunity.
What does immunoglobulin E do?
It binds to mast cells and basophils to be involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions.
What type of immunodeficiency is x-linked hypogammaglobulinemia?
Congenital, humoral immunodeficiency.
What is the average level of CD4 in the human body?
600-1500.
What are two expected lab results in someone with macrocytic anemia?
RBCs <4 million, and MCV >95.
What are the two primary ways antibodies defeat microbes?
Neutralization and opsonization.
What are four signs and symptoms associated with diphtheria?
Sore throat, pyrexia, and a pseudomembrane across the tonsils or throat.
When do the signs and symptoms of shock begin to appear?
When systolic hypotension is near 80 or 90.
What is Karposi’s sarcoma?
A type of malignant skin tumor that invades immunocompromised people.
What creates antibodies?
B-cells after they differentiate into plasma cells.
What are two expected lab results in someone with normocytic anemia?
RBCs <4 million, and MCV 80-95.
What is giardiasis?
A parasitic/protozoan GI infection that impairs fat absorption, causing greasy, frothy, foul-smelling, non-bloody diarrhea (along with pyrexia and dehydration).
What is a rare condition in which there is slow development of hyper-proliferation of bone marrow stem cells?
Primary polycythemia.
What is the condition that “coats” bacteria, promoting phagocytosis by optimizing recognition and “digestibility” of antigen for phagocytes known as?
Opsonization.
What are the two proteins on the viral envelope of influenza?
Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin.
What are five signs and symptoms associated with rubeola?
Dense, red maculopapular rash that starts on the head before traveling downwards, pyrexia, cough, rhinorrhea, and conjunctivitis.
What is the percentage of RBCs in the blood called?
Hematocrit.
People with type A blood have which kind of antigens?
They have “anti-B” immunoglobulins.
What is a protozoan infection spread by mosquito vectors that reproduces in hepatocytes, which is then released into the blood causing hemolysis known as?
Malaria.
What occurs when there is a known or suspected infection and the person is suffering from SIRS?
Sepsis or septicemia.
What is the birth pathway for prostaglandins?
The arachidonic pathway.
What are two stressors that can breach the first line defenses of the respiratory system?
Cigarette smoking (destroys cilia), and cough reflex suppression (from head injury or stroke).
What stimulates the coughing reflex?
When a foreign body reaches the carina via inhalation.
What is an arterial or venous clot attached to a vessel wall?
A thrombus.
What is an abnormality in one or more branches of the immune system that renders a person susceptible to diseases normally prevented by an intact immune system?
An immunodeficiency.
What does immunoglobulin M do?
It activates complement and is the first antibody in immune responses.
What allowed herpes varicella to spread?
Direct inhalation of virus from an infected person’s exhaling, sneezing, or coughing.
What are several signs and symptoms seen in patients with normocytic anemia?
Fatigue, asthenia, dull mentation, and sometimes SOB.
What is an autoimmune disease that dries up all lubricating fluids in the body?
Sjogren’s syndrome.
What is cellulitis?
An infection and inflammation of either the dermis or subcutaneous tissue.
What type of cell releases leukotrines, histamine, and prostaglandins?
Mast cells.
What is a collection of blood under skin greater than one centimeter in size from frank bleeding?
Ecchymosis.
What are the main signs, symptoms, and complications in patients with mumps?
Swelling, pyrexia, and possible infertility in males.
What is the normal count of WBCs in the body?
6,000 to 10,000.
What does M-CSF do?
It promotes growth and maturation of mononuclear phagocytes.
What is a granuloma?
A hunt of tissue that has been chronically inflamed and is now essentially just scar tissue.
What is an autoimmune disease that causes IgG to attack platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia?
Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP).
What is another name for lockjaw?
Trismus.
What type of immunodeficiency is DiGeorge’s syndrome?
Congenital, cell-mediated immunodeficiency.
What is the main sign or symptom that results from thrombocytosis?
Hypercoagulation.
What is an anemia in which the size (MCV) is smaller than normal, so CBC would show RBCs of <4 million and MCV of < 80 known as?
Microcytic anemia.
What is the most common microbe that causes otitis media?
Resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Is type I diabetes mellitus considered a tissue-specific or systemic autoimmune disease?
Type I DM is a tissue-specific autoimmune disease.
What are the major “players” in the immune response?
B and T lymphocytes in addition to other lymphatic tissues.
People with type o blood have which kind of antigens?
They have “anti-A” and “anti-B” immunoglobulins.
What is sometimes another name for microcytic anemia?
Iron deficiency anemia.
What are two first line defenses our eyes have?
Tears and eyelashes.
What does immunoglobulin D do?
It is needed for B cell maturation.
What is another name for measles?
Rubeola.
What are several signs associated with whooping cough?
Violent coughing fits, possible malnutrition, and highly contagious.
What is an arterial or venous thrombus that has broken loose and travels in the circulatory system?
An embolus.
What type of immunodeficiency is SCIDS?
Congenital, combined B-cell & T-cell immunodeficiency.
What condition occurs when a normal systemic inflammatory response goes into overdrive the normal “braking” system of the inflammatory process does not occur?
Systemic inflammatory response syndrome.
What is von Willebrand disease?
An inherited disorder that causes mostly mild clotting deficiencies with mild incidences of “easy bleeding”.
How do the pain levels vary in someone with rheumatoid arthritis?
Pain tends to be worse in the morning and lessens as the day goes on (opposite of osteoarthritis).
What are six signs and symptoms that may been seen in people with SLE?
Malar (“butterfly”) rash, nonerosive arthritis, serositis, proteinuria, seizures, and fatigue.
What are two types of compatibility issues seen in humans?
Histocompatibility and ABO/Rh compatibility.
Is autoimmune hemolytic anemia considered a tissue-specific or systemic autoimmune disease?
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a tissue-specific disease.
What cells make up the immunocyte response?
B-cells and T-cells.
What is a disorder in which there are more than normal number of total circulating RBCs?
Polycythemia or erythrocytosis.
What is infectious diarrhea called when it is bloody and severe?
Dysentery.
What are two common infections that resistant to beta-lactam drugs?
MRSA, and resistant Staphylococcus pneumoniae.
To what do antibodies become attached to form immune complexes in systemic lupus erythematosus?
They combine with DNA.
What does SIRS stand for?
System inflammatory response syndrome.
What is the body’s second line of resistance?
Inflammation that is immediate and non-specific.
What are several stressors that can breach the GU system’s first line of defense?
Oliguria (from renal failure/lithiasis), or anything that changes vaginal acidity (like douching).
What are three expected lab results to be seen in microcytic anemia?
RBCs <4 million, MCV <42%, and Hgb <14 gm/L.
How does resolution differ from the convalescent period?
Resolution is total elimination of a pathogen without any remaining symptoms.
What is the treatment for primary polycythemia?
Removal of 300-500 mL of blood three to four times monthly.
Why is the second line of defense important in a skin laceration?
Because inflammation causes the process of clot formation to begin, stopping the bleeding.
What do autoantibodies bind to in people with rheumatoid arthritis?
They form immune complexes with collagen.
How does the Clostridium botulinum toxin exert its effects?
By blocking acetylcholine in the nerve synapses of muscle receptor cells.
What are two examples of drugs to which bacteria have developed resistance?
Beta lactam antibiotics, and vancomycin.
What does GM-CSF do?
It promotes neutrophil, eosinophil, and monocyte maturationg and growth, and activates mature granulocytes.
What is impetigo?
An eruption of blisters usually around nose and mouth that are itchy, crusty, and contagious when cellulitis follows a milder staph infection of the skin.
Which immunocyte defends the body by direct attack against invading microbes?
T-lymphocytes.
Why are steroids the strongest and best antiinflammatories?
Because they affect the early stages of the arachidonic pathway, thus blocking both prostaglandins and leukotrienes.
What are pinpoint red spots that do not blanch under the skin from frank bleeding?
Petechiae.
What is a fulminating illness?
One with an abrupt onset with little or no prodrome.
What is the key criterion for categorizing someone as having passive acquired immunity?
That they have been given someone else’s antibodies; they did not develop the antibodies on their own.
What is polycythemia vera?
A rare condition in which there is slow development of hyper-proliferation of bone marrow stem cells.
Which two organisms are known to house the Salmonella genus?
Cows and chickens normally house it in their guts.
What are two common causes of normocytic anemia?
Rapid blood loss, or chronic disease that slows RBC production (like AIDS, lupus, or chronic renal failure).
What two lab results are required for a diagnosis of polycythemia?
RBCs > 6 million, and hematocrit > 52%.
Which type of cancer is one of the hematopoietic system where there is uncontrolled proliferation of leukocytes, causing over-crowding of bone marrow and decreased production of normal hematopoietic cells?
Leukemia.
What are common signs and symptoms associated with viral diarrhea?
Emesis and watery diarrhea.
What is the most serious complication associated with measles?
Encephalitis.
What are some expected lab results in a person with systemic lupus erythematosus?
High CRP, and high ANA.
What are six signs and symptoms associated with tetanus?
Anxiety, agitation, confusion, seizures, dysphagia, and dysdipsia.
What disease is VRE?
Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus.
What is a fomite?
An inanimate vector.
If a B cell is “in charge” of developing immunity, you can say the person developed what?
Humoral immunity.
Which syndrome is caused by diverse genetic mutations that lead to complete absence of all immune function?
Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCIDS).
What is another name for small pox?
Variola.
What are three secondary causes known to result in thrombocytosis?
RA, cancer, and post-splenectomy.
True or false, the third line of defense is not delayed and specific in its manner of protection?
False, it IS delayed and specific.
What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?
An autoimmune disease that causes IgG to attack platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia.
What is dry eye syndrome?
Dry eyes due to the slowing down of tear manufacturing.
What do mast cells release in the inflammation process?
They leak chemical granules known as local inflammatory mediators called leukotrines, histamine, and prostaglandins.
What are two conditions that can arise in immunocompetent people with the normal flora of Staphylococcus aureus of their skin?
They can develop cellulitis and boils.
What is the third line of defense?
Acquired (or adaptive) immunity.
Which immunity exists when a person’s plasma cells build up antibodies in response to receiving inoculations of a much-weakened or inactive microbe?
Artificial active acquired immunity.
What are the mutations in the influenza viral proteins that happens yearly called?
Antigenic drift.
What does hypersplenism result from?
Splenomegaly.
What are the normal levels of Hgb?
14-18 gm/L.
What are the four key manifestations of inflammation?
Swelling, heat, erythema, and pain.
What is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?
Immunoglobulin G.
What type of drugs make up the beta lactam antibiotics?
Penicillin and its derivatives.
What causes botulism?
The toxin created by Clostridium botulinum when it invades the body.
What is a tissue-specific autoimmune disease that attacks connective tissue in the pulmonary and glomerular basement membrane, causing pulmonary hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis?
Goodpasture’s syndrome.
What five signs and symptoms are associated with SIRS, but you only need two for a diagnosis?
Pyrexia greater than 100.4F, tachycardia, tachypnea, abnormal WBC count, and unexplained change(s) in mental status.
Why is it important for pregnant women or women trying to become pregnant to be protected against rubella?
Can cause congenital conditions like mental retardation, eye problems, and hearing problems.
In which five bodily fluids is HIV not found?
Stool, urine, tears, sweat, and saliva.
What is another name for histocompatibility antigens?
Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs).
What is the first white blood cell to arrive to an injury site in the inflammatory response?
Neutrophils.
What is a hunk of tissue that has been chronically inflamed and is now essentially just scar tissue called?
A granuloma.
What term is used to describe a disease that exists all the time in certain communities?
Endemic.
What are two stressors that can breach the first line defenses of our eyes?
Dry eye syndrome and Sjogren’s syndrome.
What term is used to describe an outbreak of a disease that spreads within a certain time frame to people of one or several communities (i.e. yearly flu in the USA)?
Epidemic.
What are four sources that make GM-CSF?
T-cells, macrophages, endothelial cells, and fibroblasts.
What is the most common cause of iatrogenic and nosocomial diarrhea?
C. difficile after being on long-term antibiotics.
What congenital immunodeficiency is defect on chromosome 22 that prevents normal thymus development?
DiGeorge’s syndrome.
What is the key criterion for categorizing someone as having active acquired immunity?
That their own immunocyte system developed the antibodies that established immunity.
What is an immune complex?
Autoimmune reactions in which antibody and self-antigens pair up into a molecule.
What are stressors that can breach the skin and its glands?
Lacerations, abrasions, and punctures.
What is a part of the GU system’s first line of defense?
Urine flow and natural vaginal acidity.
What are disorders in which tissue damage or dysfunction is produced by a microorganism called?
Infectious diseases.
If a T cell is “in charge” of developing immunity, you can say the person developed what?
Cell-mediated immunity.
Besides the first and second lines of resistance provided by innate resistance, what is another form of it?
States of resistance related to our species (i.e. humans can’t be infected with canine distemper).
What are the four precautions taken into consideration when working with the ill?
Standard, contact, droplet, and airborne precautions.
People with type B blood have which kind of antigens?
They have “anti-A” immunoglobulins.
What causes tetanus?
The exotoxins made by Clostridium tetanii.
What are the two types of prostaglandins our bodies make?
Pro-inflammatory, and protective PGs.
Why can rheumatic heart disease be a sequela of strep throat?
Because if the patient doesn’t take all their antibiotics, the antibodies keep looking for strep antigens and sometimes think the heart valve is similar enough to the strep bacteria.
What level of CD4 cells is associated with the presence of opportunistic infections in someone with HIV/AIDS?
Less than 200 CD4 cells.
What is the most common treatment given to patients suffering from long-term normocytic anemia?
Erythropoietin.
What is another name for antibiotic-associated diarrhea?
Pseudomembranous colitis.
What is the first line of resistance in the human body?
The body’s physical barriers, which are immediate and non-specific.
Which microbe causes strep throat?
The bacteria Streptococcus pyogenes.
What are four opportunistic infections seen in patients with AIDS/HIV?
Thrush, pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, cytomegalovirus retinitis, and Karposi’s sarcoma.
In what five ways are protective prostaglandins protective?
They maintain gastric mucosa, appropriate vasomotor tone, and normal immunocyte function, while also having roles in clotting and renal function.
True or false, RBCs do NOT have HLAs on their cell membranes.
True.
What is hypersensitivity to a target antigen from the environment, called an allergen called?
An allergic response.
What is another name of primary polycythemia?
Polycythemia vera.
What are the three subtypes of T-lymphocytes?
CD4 (helper) T-cells, CD8 (cytotoxic) T-cells, and memory T-cells.
What is hematocrit?
The percentage of RBCs in the blood.
What is one of the few drugs that can tackle MRSA?
Vancomycin.
What stage involves the containment of an infection and resolution of its signs and symptoms?
The convalescent period.
Which cancer involves the plasma cells becoming malignant and overproducing antibodies which infiltrate bones, causing increases in osteoclastic activity?
Multiple myeloma.
What are several signs and symptoms associated with malaria?
Moderate-severe pyrexia, chills, arthralgia, anemia, splenomegaly, cerebral ischemia, and HF.
What is a malignancy of the lymph nodes known as?
Lymphoma.
What are eleven signs and symptoms associated with ebola?
Severe HA, rash, myalgia, asthenia, fatigue, severe pyrexia, emesis, diarrhea, unexplained hemorrhages, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.
What are four signs and symptoms seen in patients with leukemia?
Leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and increased risk of infections.
Besides anaphylaxis, what are nine signs and symptoms associated with allergic hypersensitivities?
Urticaria, angioedema, NandV, diarrhea, cramps, wheezing, SOB, and hypotension.
What are any proteins that can stimulate immunocyte reactions against them called?
Antigens.
What is the main sequela of hypersplenism?
Pancytopenia.
What is a normal hematocrit?
42%-52%.
What is it called when there is little microbe involvement in exudate, causing it to have a clear gold color?
Serous exudate.
What are HLA antigens?
Ones that present on cell membranes of most of our tissues to let our immune system know “I am self”.
What is granulating tissue?
Pink, healthy, healing tissue.
What are some defensive properties of our skin and its glands?
Physical protection of underlying tissues/organs, desquamation of the skin, and sweat that is acidic with antibacterial and antifungal properties.
Which antibody is missing or lessened significantly in x-linked hypogammaglobulinemia?
IgG.
What kind of response is hypersensitivity to another person’s antigens (the target antigen), such as when an organ is transplanted?
An alloimmune response.
What are the three subtypes of B-lymphocytes?
B-cells, plasma cells (for antibodies), and memory B cells.
What is a compensatory increase in RBCs in response to hypoxic conditions s such as living at higher altitudes (>10,000 feet); smoking (due to increased level of CO2); chronic low-O2 conditions such as COPD called?
Secondary polycythemia.
What is the mechanism of compensation in secondary polycythemia?
Hypoxic conditions causes the kidneys to secrete more erythropoietin.
Who is a greater risk for rheumatic fever, males or females?
Females do 10:1.
What does immunoglobulin G do?
It is responsible for the secondary immune response that normally wipes out infections, and is the only Ig that crosses the placenta.
What are three nosocomial ways that MRSA can spread?
Direct patient hand contact, colonization of healthcare workers’ nares, and occasionally stethoscopes.
What type of virus inserts its RNA into a host cell cytoplasm, converts its own RNA into DNA, then back into RNA?
A retrovirus.
What are eight signs and symptoms associated with the Zika virus?
Pyrexia, HA, rash, arthralgia, myalgia, conjunctivitis, sometimes Guillain-Barre syndrome, and microcephaly in newborns.
What differentiates into plasma cells?
B-lymphocytes (aka B-cells).
What is the most common virus that invades the parotid glands?
Mumps.
Does cirrhosis cause a deficiency in clotting factors and/or platelets?
Cirrhosis causes a clotting factor deficiency.
What are several signs and symptoms associated with systemic inflammation?
Malaise, aches, pains, pyrexia, leukocytosis, and elevated serum CRP.
What is hypersensitivity to self-antigens (the target antigen), a reaction of our body to our own antigens?
An autoimmune response.
What is another name for an allergic hypersensitivity?
An IgE-mediated reaction.
What test is used after an ELISA if someone tests positive for HIV for further confirmation?
A Western blot.
What is the breaking apart of mast cells with spillage of granules of biochemical mediators into tissue?
Degranulation.
Which immunity exists when antibodies are injected during treatment, usually in emergencies or as a stop-gap measure until active immunity can develop?
Artificial passive acquired immunity.
What condition exists when a microbe or its toxins enter the blood and are carried throughout the body, triggering a system-wide inflammation?
Sepsis.
What cell does HIV invade and kill?
The CD4 cells.
What is it called when a disease outbreak spreads from being epidemic (a few communities) to being worldwide?
A pandemic.
What are two more common systemic autoimmune diseases that affect people?
Lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.
What are three examples of conditions that can cause microcytic anemia?
Heavy menses, occult GI bleeding, and iron deficiency.
What is another name for the German measles?
Rubella.
Which immunity exists when a person’s plasma cells build up antibodies in response to a microbial-induced illness, as in meningitis?
Natural active acquired immunity.
What lab result is required for a diagnosis of thrombocytosis?
A platelet count greater than 400,000.
What is unique about where mast cells are found?
They are WBCs that can only be found in tissue and not in the blood.
What are several signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma?
Osteoporosis (leading to pathological fractures), and hypercalcemia (causing hyperpolarization and renal lithiases).
What is innate resistance?
The defense mechanisms with which we are born.
What does G-CSF do?
It promotes growth and maturation of neutrophils consumed in inflammatory reactions.
What is an invading organism that causes harm called?
A pathogen.
What are several signs and symptoms of septic shock?
SIRS but worse, hypotension, and possible ischemia.
What are several signs and symptoms seen in patients with polycythemia?
Ischemic pain, HF, and lung failure.
If exudate is thick and white or yellow in color, what does that signify?
Purulent exudate.
What are large areas that look purplish under the skin from frank bleeding?
Purpura.
What is another name for innate resistance?
Natural resistance.
What is the ability of arteries to constrict when your body needs less blood supply to an area, and to dilate when your body needs more blood supply known as?
Vasomotor tone.
What is the most common genus that causes bacillary dysentery?
Shigella.
What makes up the first line defenses of the respiratory system?
Mucus viscosity, bronchial cilia, and the cough reflex.
What is Goodpasture’s syndrome?
A tissue-specific autoimmune disease that attacks connective tissue in the pulmonary and glomerular basement membrane, causing pulmonary hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis.
What is multiple myeloma?
A cancer involving the plasma cells becoming malignant and overproducing antibodies which infiltrate bones, causing increases in osteoclastic activity.
How do steroids block the formation of prostaglandins and leukotrienes?
By suppressing phospholipase.
What is a granuloma?
A hunk of tissue that has been chronically inflamed and is now essentially just scar tissue.
What is the most common example of macrocytic anemia?
Pernicious anemia.
What is the primary symptom associated with botulism?
Descending symmetric paralysis.
What are the potential virulence factors of an infecting organism?
Toxins, adhesion factors, invasion factors, and evasive factors.
What are several signs and symptoms seen in patients with rubella?
Pyrexia, rash, and swollen glands.
What is the pathogenesis of macrocytic anemia?
Another disease causes faulty DNA coding of RBC size, causing them to be larger than normal.
What are five signs and symptoms associated with AIDS?
Weight loss, anorexia, cachexia, asthenia, and dementia.
What six things make up the first line defenses of the GI system?
Saliva enzymes, stomach acid, gag reflex, emesis, bowel flora, and defecation.
What is the body’s third line of defense?
Immunocyte response.
What does immunoglobulin A do?
It is predominant in body secretions (like saliva, mucus, and breast milk) to protect these mucous membranes.
What is an infection of the dermis and/or subcutaneous tissue?
Cellulitis.
What is another name for pertussis?
Whooping cough.
What are sometimes called immunocytes?
B-cells and T-cells.
What has to end before a person is no longer considered contagious with the chicken pox?
Until the last lesion crusts.
What are five signs and symptoms of strep throat?
Erythematous sore throat, often white patches on tonsils, and scarlet fever which can cause pyrexia and a body-wide rash.
What is the normal mean corpuscular volume of blood?
80-95.
What is “floppy baby syndrome”?
Botulism in children when they eat honey contaminated with C. botulinum.
What is the most common clotting disease with an incidence of 1 in every 100 persons having a variation of it?
von Willebrand disease (vWD).
What type of immunodeficiency is AIDS/HIV?
Acquired, cell-mediated immunodeficiency.
What is the precursor to macrophages before they migrate into tissues?
Monocytes.
What is another name for macrocytic anemia?
Megaloblastic anemia.
What are two known stressors that disrupt the GI system’s first line defenses?
Sjogren’s syndrome, and anything that changes bowel flora (like antibiotics).
What are six known causes of splenomegaly?
Pathologic hemolysis, leukemia, hepatitis, TB, CMV, and mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr virus).
What is a type of cancer that usually begins as enlarged, painless mass in the lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy) of the neck and also has good cure rates?
Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
