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Pathophysiologic Processes: Implications for Nursing > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What causes hypochromic RBCs?

A

When they lose hemoglobin content.

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2
Q

What do phospholipases do in the arachidonic pathway?

A

They are catalysts in the creation of arachidonic acid.

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3
Q

What is malaria?

A

A protozoan infection spread by mosquito vectors that reproduces in hepatocytes, which is then released into the blood causing hemolysis.

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4
Q

Which immunity exists when there is transfer of antibodies from mom to baby via the placenta or breast milk?

A

Natural passive acquired immunity.

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5
Q

What does immunoglobulin E do?

A

It binds to mast cells and basophils to be involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions.

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6
Q

What type of immunodeficiency is x-linked hypogammaglobulinemia?

A

Congenital, humoral immunodeficiency.

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7
Q

What is the average level of CD4 in the human body?

A

600-1500.

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8
Q

What are two expected lab results in someone with macrocytic anemia?

A

RBCs <4 million, and MCV >95.

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9
Q

What are the two primary ways antibodies defeat microbes?

A

Neutralization and opsonization.

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10
Q

What are four signs and symptoms associated with diphtheria?

A

Sore throat, pyrexia, and a pseudomembrane across the tonsils or throat.

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11
Q

When do the signs and symptoms of shock begin to appear?

A

When systolic hypotension is near 80 or 90.

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12
Q

What is Karposi’s sarcoma?

A

A type of malignant skin tumor that invades immunocompromised people.

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13
Q

What creates antibodies?

A

B-cells after they differentiate into plasma cells.

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14
Q

What are two expected lab results in someone with normocytic anemia?

A

RBCs <4 million, and MCV 80-95.

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15
Q

What is giardiasis?

A

A parasitic/protozoan GI infection that impairs fat absorption, causing greasy, frothy, foul-smelling, non-bloody diarrhea (along with pyrexia and dehydration).

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16
Q

What is a rare condition in which there is slow development of hyper-proliferation of bone marrow stem cells?

A

Primary polycythemia.

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17
Q

What is the condition that “coats” bacteria, promoting phagocytosis by optimizing recognition and “digestibility” of antigen for phagocytes known as?

A

Opsonization.

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18
Q

What are the two proteins on the viral envelope of influenza?

A

Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin.

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19
Q

What are five signs and symptoms associated with rubeola?

A

Dense, red maculopapular rash that starts on the head before traveling downwards, pyrexia, cough, rhinorrhea, and conjunctivitis.

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20
Q

What is the percentage of RBCs in the blood called?

A

Hematocrit.

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21
Q

People with type A blood have which kind of antigens?

A

They have “anti-B” immunoglobulins.

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22
Q

What is a protozoan infection spread by mosquito vectors that reproduces in hepatocytes, which is then released into the blood causing hemolysis known as?

A

Malaria.

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23
Q

What occurs when there is a known or suspected infection and the person is suffering from SIRS?

A

Sepsis or septicemia.

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24
Q

What is the birth pathway for prostaglandins?

A

The arachidonic pathway.

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25
Q

What are two stressors that can breach the first line defenses of the respiratory system?

A

Cigarette smoking (destroys cilia), and cough reflex suppression (from head injury or stroke).

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26
Q

What stimulates the coughing reflex?

A

When a foreign body reaches the carina via inhalation.

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27
Q

What is an arterial or venous clot attached to a vessel wall?

A

A thrombus.

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28
Q

What is an abnormality in one or more branches of the immune system that renders a person susceptible to diseases normally prevented by an intact immune system?

A

An immunodeficiency.

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29
Q

What does immunoglobulin M do?

A

It activates complement and is the first antibody in immune responses.

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30
Q

What allowed herpes varicella to spread?

A

Direct inhalation of virus from an infected person’s exhaling, sneezing, or coughing.

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31
Q

What are several signs and symptoms seen in patients with normocytic anemia?

A

Fatigue, asthenia, dull mentation, and sometimes SOB.

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32
Q

What is an autoimmune disease that dries up all lubricating fluids in the body?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome.

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33
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

An infection and inflammation of either the dermis or subcutaneous tissue.

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34
Q

What type of cell releases leukotrines, histamine, and prostaglandins?

A

Mast cells.

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35
Q

What is a collection of blood under skin greater than one centimeter in size from frank bleeding?

A

Ecchymosis.

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36
Q

What are the main signs, symptoms, and complications in patients with mumps?

A

Swelling, pyrexia, and possible infertility in males.

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37
Q

What is the normal count of WBCs in the body?

A

6,000 to 10,000.

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38
Q

What does M-CSF do?

A

It promotes growth and maturation of mononuclear phagocytes.

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39
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

A hunt of tissue that has been chronically inflamed and is now essentially just scar tissue.

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40
Q

What is an autoimmune disease that causes IgG to attack platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia?

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP).

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41
Q

What is another name for lockjaw?

A

Trismus.

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42
Q

What type of immunodeficiency is DiGeorge’s syndrome?

A

Congenital, cell-mediated immunodeficiency.

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43
Q

What is the main sign or symptom that results from thrombocytosis?

A

Hypercoagulation.

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44
Q

What is an anemia in which the size (MCV) is smaller than normal, so CBC would show RBCs of <4 million and MCV of < 80 known as?

A

Microcytic anemia.

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45
Q

What is the most common microbe that causes otitis media?

A

Resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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46
Q

Is type I diabetes mellitus considered a tissue-specific or systemic autoimmune disease?

A

Type I DM is a tissue-specific autoimmune disease.

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47
Q

What are the major “players” in the immune response?

A

B and T lymphocytes in addition to other lymphatic tissues.

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48
Q

People with type o blood have which kind of antigens?

A

They have “anti-A” and “anti-B” immunoglobulins.

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49
Q

What is sometimes another name for microcytic anemia?

A

Iron deficiency anemia.

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50
Q

What are two first line defenses our eyes have?

A

Tears and eyelashes.

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51
Q

What does immunoglobulin D do?

A

It is needed for B cell maturation.

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52
Q

What is another name for measles?

A

Rubeola.

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53
Q

What are several signs associated with whooping cough?

A

Violent coughing fits, possible malnutrition, and highly contagious.

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54
Q

What is an arterial or venous thrombus that has broken loose and travels in the circulatory system?

A

An embolus.

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55
Q

What type of immunodeficiency is SCIDS?

A

Congenital, combined B-cell & T-cell immunodeficiency.

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56
Q

What condition occurs when a normal systemic inflammatory response goes into overdrive the normal “braking” system of the inflammatory process does not occur?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome.

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57
Q

What is von Willebrand disease?

A

An inherited disorder that causes mostly mild clotting deficiencies with mild incidences of “easy bleeding”.

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58
Q

How do the pain levels vary in someone with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Pain tends to be worse in the morning and lessens as the day goes on (opposite of osteoarthritis).

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59
Q

What are six signs and symptoms that may been seen in people with SLE?

A

Malar (“butterfly”) rash, nonerosive arthritis, serositis, proteinuria, seizures, and fatigue.

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60
Q

What are two types of compatibility issues seen in humans?

A

Histocompatibility and ABO/Rh compatibility.

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61
Q

Is autoimmune hemolytic anemia considered a tissue-specific or systemic autoimmune disease?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a tissue-specific disease.

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62
Q

What cells make up the immunocyte response?

A

B-cells and T-cells.

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63
Q

What is a disorder in which there are more than normal number of total circulating RBCs?

A

Polycythemia or erythrocytosis.

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64
Q

What is infectious diarrhea called when it is bloody and severe?

A

Dysentery.

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65
Q

What are two common infections that resistant to beta-lactam drugs?

A

MRSA, and resistant Staphylococcus pneumoniae.

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66
Q

To what do antibodies become attached to form immune complexes in systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

They combine with DNA.

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67
Q

What does SIRS stand for?

A

System inflammatory response syndrome.

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68
Q

What is the body’s second line of resistance?

A

Inflammation that is immediate and non-specific.

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69
Q

What are several stressors that can breach the GU system’s first line of defense?

A

Oliguria (from renal failure/lithiasis), or anything that changes vaginal acidity (like douching).

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70
Q

What are three expected lab results to be seen in microcytic anemia?

A

RBCs <4 million, MCV <42%, and Hgb <14 gm/L.

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71
Q

How does resolution differ from the convalescent period?

A

Resolution is total elimination of a pathogen without any remaining symptoms.

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72
Q

What is the treatment for primary polycythemia?

A

Removal of 300-500 mL of blood three to four times monthly.

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73
Q

Why is the second line of defense important in a skin laceration?

A

Because inflammation causes the process of clot formation to begin, stopping the bleeding.

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74
Q

What do autoantibodies bind to in people with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

They form immune complexes with collagen.

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75
Q

How does the Clostridium botulinum toxin exert its effects?

A

By blocking acetylcholine in the nerve synapses of muscle receptor cells.

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76
Q

What are two examples of drugs to which bacteria have developed resistance?

A

Beta lactam antibiotics, and vancomycin.

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77
Q

What does GM-CSF do?

A

It promotes neutrophil, eosinophil, and monocyte maturationg and growth, and activates mature granulocytes.

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78
Q

What is impetigo?

A

An eruption of blisters usually around nose and mouth that are itchy, crusty, and contagious when cellulitis follows a milder staph infection of the skin.

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79
Q

Which immunocyte defends the body by direct attack against invading microbes?

A

T-lymphocytes.

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80
Q

Why are steroids the strongest and best antiinflammatories?

A

Because they affect the early stages of the arachidonic pathway, thus blocking both prostaglandins and leukotrienes.

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81
Q

What are pinpoint red spots that do not blanch under the skin from frank bleeding?

A

Petechiae.

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82
Q

What is a fulminating illness?

A

One with an abrupt onset with little or no prodrome.

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83
Q

What is the key criterion for categorizing someone as having passive acquired immunity?

A

That they have been given someone else’s antibodies; they did not develop the antibodies on their own.

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84
Q

What is polycythemia vera?

A

A rare condition in which there is slow development of hyper-proliferation of bone marrow stem cells.

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85
Q

Which two organisms are known to house the Salmonella genus?

A

Cows and chickens normally house it in their guts.

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86
Q

What are two common causes of normocytic anemia?

A

Rapid blood loss, or chronic disease that slows RBC production (like AIDS, lupus, or chronic renal failure).

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87
Q

What two lab results are required for a diagnosis of polycythemia?

A

RBCs > 6 million, and hematocrit > 52%.

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88
Q

Which type of cancer is one of the hematopoietic system where there is uncontrolled proliferation of leukocytes, causing over-crowding of bone marrow and decreased production of normal hematopoietic cells?

A

Leukemia.

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89
Q

What are common signs and symptoms associated with viral diarrhea?

A

Emesis and watery diarrhea.

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90
Q

What is the most serious complication associated with measles?

A

Encephalitis.

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91
Q

What are some expected lab results in a person with systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

High CRP, and high ANA.

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92
Q

What are six signs and symptoms associated with tetanus?

A

Anxiety, agitation, confusion, seizures, dysphagia, and dysdipsia.

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93
Q

What disease is VRE?

A

Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus.

94
Q

What is a fomite?

A

An inanimate vector.

95
Q

If a B cell is “in charge” of developing immunity, you can say the person developed what?

A

Humoral immunity.

96
Q

Which syndrome is caused by diverse genetic mutations that lead to complete absence of all immune function?

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCIDS).

97
Q

What is another name for small pox?

A

Variola.

98
Q

What are three secondary causes known to result in thrombocytosis?

A

RA, cancer, and post-splenectomy.

99
Q

True or false, the third line of defense is not delayed and specific in its manner of protection?

A

False, it IS delayed and specific.

100
Q

What is idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura?

A

An autoimmune disease that causes IgG to attack platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia.

101
Q

What is dry eye syndrome?

A

Dry eyes due to the slowing down of tear manufacturing.

102
Q

What do mast cells release in the inflammation process?

A

They leak chemical granules known as local inflammatory mediators called leukotrines, histamine, and prostaglandins.

103
Q

What are two conditions that can arise in immunocompetent people with the normal flora of Staphylococcus aureus of their skin?

A

They can develop cellulitis and boils.

104
Q

What is the third line of defense?

A

Acquired (or adaptive) immunity.

105
Q

Which immunity exists when a person’s plasma cells build up antibodies in response to receiving inoculations of a much-weakened or inactive microbe?

A

Artificial active acquired immunity.

106
Q

What are the mutations in the influenza viral proteins that happens yearly called?

A

Antigenic drift.

107
Q

What does hypersplenism result from?

A

Splenomegaly.

108
Q

What are the normal levels of Hgb?

A

14-18 gm/L.

109
Q

What are the four key manifestations of inflammation?

A

Swelling, heat, erythema, and pain.

110
Q

What is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?

A

Immunoglobulin G.

111
Q

What type of drugs make up the beta lactam antibiotics?

A

Penicillin and its derivatives.

112
Q

What causes botulism?

A

The toxin created by Clostridium botulinum when it invades the body.

113
Q

What is a tissue-specific autoimmune disease that attacks connective tissue in the pulmonary and glomerular basement membrane, causing pulmonary hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis?

A

Goodpasture’s syndrome.

114
Q

What five signs and symptoms are associated with SIRS, but you only need two for a diagnosis?

A

Pyrexia greater than 100.4F, tachycardia, tachypnea, abnormal WBC count, and unexplained change(s) in mental status.

115
Q

Why is it important for pregnant women or women trying to become pregnant to be protected against rubella?

A

Can cause congenital conditions like mental retardation, eye problems, and hearing problems.

116
Q

In which five bodily fluids is HIV not found?

A

Stool, urine, tears, sweat, and saliva.

117
Q

What is another name for histocompatibility antigens?

A

Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs).

118
Q

What is the first white blood cell to arrive to an injury site in the inflammatory response?

A

Neutrophils.

119
Q

What is a hunk of tissue that has been chronically inflamed and is now essentially just scar tissue called?

A

A granuloma.

120
Q

What term is used to describe a disease that exists all the time in certain communities?

A

Endemic.

121
Q

What are two stressors that can breach the first line defenses of our eyes?

A

Dry eye syndrome and Sjogren’s syndrome.

122
Q

What term is used to describe an outbreak of a disease that spreads within a certain time frame to people of one or several communities (i.e. yearly flu in the USA)?

A

Epidemic.

123
Q

What are four sources that make GM-CSF?

A

T-cells, macrophages, endothelial cells, and fibroblasts.

124
Q

What is the most common cause of iatrogenic and nosocomial diarrhea?

A

C. difficile after being on long-term antibiotics.

125
Q

What congenital immunodeficiency is defect on chromosome 22 that prevents normal thymus development?

A

DiGeorge’s syndrome.

126
Q

What is the key criterion for categorizing someone as having active acquired immunity?

A

That their own immunocyte system developed the antibodies that established immunity.

127
Q

What is an immune complex?

A

Autoimmune reactions in which antibody and self-antigens pair up into a molecule.

128
Q

What are stressors that can breach the skin and its glands?

A

Lacerations, abrasions, and punctures.

129
Q

What is a part of the GU system’s first line of defense?

A

Urine flow and natural vaginal acidity.

130
Q

What are disorders in which tissue damage or dysfunction is produced by a microorganism called?

A

Infectious diseases.

131
Q

If a T cell is “in charge” of developing immunity, you can say the person developed what?

A

Cell-mediated immunity.

132
Q

Besides the first and second lines of resistance provided by innate resistance, what is another form of it?

A

States of resistance related to our species (i.e. humans can’t be infected with canine distemper).

133
Q

What are the four precautions taken into consideration when working with the ill?

A

Standard, contact, droplet, and airborne precautions.

134
Q

People with type B blood have which kind of antigens?

A

They have “anti-A” immunoglobulins.

135
Q

What causes tetanus?

A

The exotoxins made by Clostridium tetanii.

136
Q

What are the two types of prostaglandins our bodies make?

A

Pro-inflammatory, and protective PGs.

137
Q

Why can rheumatic heart disease be a sequela of strep throat?

A

Because if the patient doesn’t take all their antibiotics, the antibodies keep looking for strep antigens and sometimes think the heart valve is similar enough to the strep bacteria.

138
Q

What level of CD4 cells is associated with the presence of opportunistic infections in someone with HIV/AIDS?

A

Less than 200 CD4 cells.

139
Q

What is the most common treatment given to patients suffering from long-term normocytic anemia?

A

Erythropoietin.

140
Q

What is another name for antibiotic-associated diarrhea?

A

Pseudomembranous colitis.

141
Q

What is the first line of resistance in the human body?

A

The body’s physical barriers, which are immediate and non-specific.

142
Q

Which microbe causes strep throat?

A

The bacteria Streptococcus pyogenes.

143
Q

What are four opportunistic infections seen in patients with AIDS/HIV?

A

Thrush, pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, cytomegalovirus retinitis, and Karposi’s sarcoma.

144
Q

In what five ways are protective prostaglandins protective?

A

They maintain gastric mucosa, appropriate vasomotor tone, and normal immunocyte function, while also having roles in clotting and renal function.

145
Q

True or false, RBCs do NOT have HLAs on their cell membranes.

A

True.

146
Q

What is hypersensitivity to a target antigen from the environment, called an allergen called?

A

An allergic response.

147
Q

What is another name of primary polycythemia?

A

Polycythemia vera.

148
Q

What are the three subtypes of T-lymphocytes?

A

CD4 (helper) T-cells, CD8 (cytotoxic) T-cells, and memory T-cells.

149
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

The percentage of RBCs in the blood.

150
Q

What is one of the few drugs that can tackle MRSA?

A

Vancomycin.

151
Q

What stage involves the containment of an infection and resolution of its signs and symptoms?

A

The convalescent period.

152
Q

Which cancer involves the plasma cells becoming malignant and overproducing antibodies which infiltrate bones, causing increases in osteoclastic activity?

A

Multiple myeloma.

153
Q

What are several signs and symptoms associated with malaria?

A

Moderate-severe pyrexia, chills, arthralgia, anemia, splenomegaly, cerebral ischemia, and HF.

154
Q

What is a malignancy of the lymph nodes known as?

A

Lymphoma.

155
Q

What are eleven signs and symptoms associated with ebola?

A

Severe HA, rash, myalgia, asthenia, fatigue, severe pyrexia, emesis, diarrhea, unexplained hemorrhages, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia.

156
Q

What are four signs and symptoms seen in patients with leukemia?

A

Leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, anemia, and increased risk of infections.

157
Q

Besides anaphylaxis, what are nine signs and symptoms associated with allergic hypersensitivities?

A

Urticaria, angioedema, NandV, diarrhea, cramps, wheezing, SOB, and hypotension.

158
Q

What are any proteins that can stimulate immunocyte reactions against them called?

A

Antigens.

159
Q

What is the main sequela of hypersplenism?

A

Pancytopenia.

160
Q

What is a normal hematocrit?

A

42%-52%.

161
Q

What is it called when there is little microbe involvement in exudate, causing it to have a clear gold color?

A

Serous exudate.

162
Q

What are HLA antigens?

A

Ones that present on cell membranes of most of our tissues to let our immune system know “I am self”.

163
Q

What is granulating tissue?

A

Pink, healthy, healing tissue.

164
Q

What are some defensive properties of our skin and its glands?

A

Physical protection of underlying tissues/organs, desquamation of the skin, and sweat that is acidic with antibacterial and antifungal properties.

165
Q

Which antibody is missing or lessened significantly in x-linked hypogammaglobulinemia?

A

IgG.

166
Q

What kind of response is hypersensitivity to another person’s antigens (the target antigen), such as when an organ is transplanted?

A

An alloimmune response.

167
Q

What are the three subtypes of B-lymphocytes?

A

B-cells, plasma cells (for antibodies), and memory B cells.

168
Q

What is a compensatory increase in RBCs in response to hypoxic conditions s such as living at higher altitudes (>10,000 feet); smoking (due to increased level of CO2); chronic low-O2 conditions such as COPD called?

A

Secondary polycythemia.

169
Q

What is the mechanism of compensation in secondary polycythemia?

A

Hypoxic conditions causes the kidneys to secrete more erythropoietin.

170
Q

Who is a greater risk for rheumatic fever, males or females?

A

Females do 10:1.

171
Q

What does immunoglobulin G do?

A

It is responsible for the secondary immune response that normally wipes out infections, and is the only Ig that crosses the placenta.

172
Q

What are three nosocomial ways that MRSA can spread?

A

Direct patient hand contact, colonization of healthcare workers’ nares, and occasionally stethoscopes.

173
Q

What type of virus inserts its RNA into a host cell cytoplasm, converts its own RNA into DNA, then back into RNA?

A

A retrovirus.

174
Q

What are eight signs and symptoms associated with the Zika virus?

A

Pyrexia, HA, rash, arthralgia, myalgia, conjunctivitis, sometimes Guillain-Barre syndrome, and microcephaly in newborns.

175
Q

What differentiates into plasma cells?

A

B-lymphocytes (aka B-cells).

176
Q

What is the most common virus that invades the parotid glands?

A

Mumps.

177
Q

Does cirrhosis cause a deficiency in clotting factors and/or platelets?

A

Cirrhosis causes a clotting factor deficiency.

178
Q

What are several signs and symptoms associated with systemic inflammation?

A

Malaise, aches, pains, pyrexia, leukocytosis, and elevated serum CRP.

179
Q

What is hypersensitivity to self-antigens (the target antigen), a reaction of our body to our own antigens?

A

An autoimmune response.

180
Q

What is another name for an allergic hypersensitivity?

A

An IgE-mediated reaction.

181
Q

What test is used after an ELISA if someone tests positive for HIV for further confirmation?

A

A Western blot.

182
Q

What is the breaking apart of mast cells with spillage of granules of biochemical mediators into tissue?

A

Degranulation.

183
Q

Which immunity exists when antibodies are injected during treatment, usually in emergencies or as a stop-gap measure until active immunity can develop?

A

Artificial passive acquired immunity.

184
Q

What condition exists when a microbe or its toxins enter the blood and are carried throughout the body, triggering a system-wide inflammation?

A

Sepsis.

185
Q

What cell does HIV invade and kill?

A

The CD4 cells.

186
Q

What is it called when a disease outbreak spreads from being epidemic (a few communities) to being worldwide?

A

A pandemic.

187
Q

What are two more common systemic autoimmune diseases that affect people?

A

Lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.

188
Q

What are three examples of conditions that can cause microcytic anemia?

A

Heavy menses, occult GI bleeding, and iron deficiency.

189
Q

What is another name for the German measles?

A

Rubella.

190
Q

Which immunity exists when a person’s plasma cells build up antibodies in response to a microbial-induced illness, as in meningitis?

A

Natural active acquired immunity.

191
Q

What lab result is required for a diagnosis of thrombocytosis?

A

A platelet count greater than 400,000.

192
Q

What is unique about where mast cells are found?

A

They are WBCs that can only be found in tissue and not in the blood.

193
Q

What are several signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma?

A

Osteoporosis (leading to pathological fractures), and hypercalcemia (causing hyperpolarization and renal lithiases).

194
Q

What is innate resistance?

A

The defense mechanisms with which we are born.

195
Q

What does G-CSF do?

A

It promotes growth and maturation of neutrophils consumed in inflammatory reactions.

196
Q

What is an invading organism that causes harm called?

A

A pathogen.

197
Q

What are several signs and symptoms of septic shock?

A

SIRS but worse, hypotension, and possible ischemia.

198
Q

What are several signs and symptoms seen in patients with polycythemia?

A

Ischemic pain, HF, and lung failure.

199
Q

If exudate is thick and white or yellow in color, what does that signify?

A

Purulent exudate.

200
Q

What are large areas that look purplish under the skin from frank bleeding?

A

Purpura.

201
Q

What is another name for innate resistance?

A

Natural resistance.

202
Q

What is the ability of arteries to constrict when your body needs less blood supply to an area, and to dilate when your body needs more blood supply known as?

A

Vasomotor tone.

203
Q

What is the most common genus that causes bacillary dysentery?

A

Shigella.

204
Q

What makes up the first line defenses of the respiratory system?

A

Mucus viscosity, bronchial cilia, and the cough reflex.

205
Q

What is Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

A tissue-specific autoimmune disease that attacks connective tissue in the pulmonary and glomerular basement membrane, causing pulmonary hemorrhage and glomerulonephritis.

206
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

A cancer involving the plasma cells becoming malignant and overproducing antibodies which infiltrate bones, causing increases in osteoclastic activity.

207
Q

How do steroids block the formation of prostaglandins and leukotrienes?

A

By suppressing phospholipase.

208
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

A hunk of tissue that has been chronically inflamed and is now essentially just scar tissue.

209
Q

What is the most common example of macrocytic anemia?

A

Pernicious anemia.

210
Q

What is the primary symptom associated with botulism?

A

Descending symmetric paralysis.

211
Q

What are the potential virulence factors of an infecting organism?

A

Toxins, adhesion factors, invasion factors, and evasive factors.

212
Q

What are several signs and symptoms seen in patients with rubella?

A

Pyrexia, rash, and swollen glands.

213
Q

What is the pathogenesis of macrocytic anemia?

A

Another disease causes faulty DNA coding of RBC size, causing them to be larger than normal.

214
Q

What are five signs and symptoms associated with AIDS?

A

Weight loss, anorexia, cachexia, asthenia, and dementia.

215
Q

What six things make up the first line defenses of the GI system?

A

Saliva enzymes, stomach acid, gag reflex, emesis, bowel flora, and defecation.

216
Q

What is the body’s third line of defense?

A

Immunocyte response.

217
Q

What does immunoglobulin A do?

A

It is predominant in body secretions (like saliva, mucus, and breast milk) to protect these mucous membranes.

218
Q

What is an infection of the dermis and/or subcutaneous tissue?

A

Cellulitis.

219
Q

What is another name for pertussis?

A

Whooping cough.

220
Q

What are sometimes called immunocytes?

A

B-cells and T-cells.

221
Q

What has to end before a person is no longer considered contagious with the chicken pox?

A

Until the last lesion crusts.

222
Q

What are five signs and symptoms of strep throat?

A

Erythematous sore throat, often white patches on tonsils, and scarlet fever which can cause pyrexia and a body-wide rash.

223
Q

What is the normal mean corpuscular volume of blood?

A

80-95.

224
Q

What is “floppy baby syndrome”?

A

Botulism in children when they eat honey contaminated with C. botulinum.

225
Q

What is the most common clotting disease with an incidence of 1 in every 100 persons having a variation of it?

A

von Willebrand disease (vWD).

226
Q

What type of immunodeficiency is AIDS/HIV?

A

Acquired, cell-mediated immunodeficiency.

227
Q

What is the precursor to macrophages before they migrate into tissues?

A

Monocytes.

228
Q

What is another name for macrocytic anemia?

A

Megaloblastic anemia.

229
Q

What are two known stressors that disrupt the GI system’s first line defenses?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome, and anything that changes bowel flora (like antibiotics).

230
Q

What are six known causes of splenomegaly?

A

Pathologic hemolysis, leukemia, hepatitis, TB, CMV, and mononucleosis (Epstein-Barr virus).

231
Q

What is a type of cancer that usually begins as enlarged, painless mass in the lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy) of the neck and also has good cure rates?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

Pathophysiologic Processes: Implications for Nursing (5 decks)

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