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General Psychology > Test 4 > Flashcards

Test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Behaviour is classified as disordered when it is:

a) deviant
b) distressful
c) dysfunctional
d) all of the above

A

d

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2
Q

Joe has an intense, irrational fear of snakes. He is suffering from a(n):

A

phobia

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3
Q

Sharon is continually tense, jittery, and apprehensive for no specific reason. She would probably be diagnosed as suffering a(n):

A

generalised anxiety disorder

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4
Q

Which neurotransmitter is present in overabundant amounts during the manic phase of bipolar disorder?

A

norepinephrine

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5
Q

On Monday, Matt felt optimistic, energetic, and on top of the world. On Tuesday, he felt hopeless and lethargic, and thought that the future looked very grim. Matt would most likely be diagnosed as having:

A

bipolar disorder

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6
Q

Most of the hallucinations of schizophrenia patients involve the sense of:

A

hearing

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7
Q

The technique in which a person is asked to report everything that comes to his or hr mind is called ____; it is favoured by ____ therapists.

A

free association; psychoanalytic

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8
Q

The operant conditioning technique in which desired behaviours are rewarded with points or poker chips that can later be exchanged for various rewards is called:

A

a token economy

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9
Q

Cognitive-behaviour therapy aims to:

A

alter the way people think and act

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10
Q

Seth enters therapy to talk about some issues that have been upsetting him. The therapist prescribes some medication to help him. The therapist is most likely a:

A

psychiatrist

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11
Q

Which biomedical therapy is most likely to be practised today?

A

drug therapy

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12
Q

The antipsychotic drugs appear to produce their effects by blocking the receptor sites for:

A

dopamine

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13
Q

Which theory describes how we explain others’ behaviour as being due to internal dispositions or external situations?

A

attribution theory

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14
Q

Which of the following is an example of the foot-in-the-door phenomenon?

a) to persuade a customer to buy a product a store owner offers a small gift
b) after agreeing to wear a small “enforce recycling” lapel pin, a woman agrees to collect signatures on a petition to make recycling required by law
c) after offering to sell a car at a ridiculously low price, a car salesperson is forced to tell the customer the car will cost $1000 more
d) all of the above are examples

A

b

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15
Q

In his study of obedience, Stanley Milgram found that the majority of subjects:

A

complied with all the demands of the experiment

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16
Q

Increasing the number of people that are present during an emergency tends to:

A

decrease the likelihood that anyone will help

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17
Q

seen as a failure to adapt to the environment

A

psychological disorder

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18
Q

part of the medical model: refers to the factors or causes that are responsible for, or related to, the development of disorders.

A

etiology

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19
Q

part of the medical model: a classification or labeling of a client’s stated and perceived difficulties following a formal assessment by a psychologist or trained professional.

A

diagnosis

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20
Q

part of the medical model: therapeutic method to help alleviate the long-term symptoms of psychological disorders.

A

treatment

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21
Q

part of the medical model: a prediction of the course or outcome of a disease or disorder; the chances of recovery from a disease.

A

prognosis

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22
Q

provides health care practitioners with a comprehensive system for diagnosing mental illnesses based on specific ideational and behavioral symptoms

A

DSM-IV-TR

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23
Q

Classification having several dimensions, each of which is employed in categorizing

A

multiaxial classification

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24
Q

states that psychological disorders develop due to a combination of genetic vulnerability and risk factors in the environment; a person may be predisposed for a mental disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress

A

diathesis-stress model

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25
Q

What are the different anxiety disorders?

A
  1. generalised
  2. phobias
  3. panic disorder
  4. obsessive-compulsive disorder
  5. post traumatic stress disorder
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26
Q

continual feelings of worry, anxiety, physical tension, and irritability about many areas

A

generalised anxiety disorder

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27
Q

intense fear of an object or situation that’s greatly out of proportion to its actual threat

A

phobia

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28
Q

repeated, unexpected panic attacks along with either:

  1. persistent concerns about future attacks
  2. a change in personal behaviour in an attempt to avoid them
A

panic disorder

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29
Q

Marked by persistent ideas, thoughts, or impulses that are unwanted and inappropriate and cause marked distress; this distress is relieved by repetitive behaviours or mental acts

A

obsessive-compulsive disorder

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30
Q

marked emotional disturbance after an individual experiences or witnesses a severely stressful event; symptoms include:

  1. flashbacks and recurrent dreams
  2. avoiding reminders of the trauma
  3. increased physiological arousal
A

post-traumatic stress disorder

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31
Q

these focus on acquiring anxiety disorders via classical conditioning and then maintaining them through operant conditioning

A

learning models of anxiety disorders

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32
Q

examples can include sleep difficulties, fatigue and loss of energy, and weight changes; genes can exert influence as well as the role of neurotransmitters

A

biological perspectives of anxiety disorders

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33
Q

characterised by the presence of two or more distinct alters

A

dissociative identity disorder

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34
Q

refers to an inability to remember facts or details surrounding a traumatic event that cannot be explained by physical means.

A

dissociative amnesia

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35
Q

type of disorder in which a person suffers a bout of amnesia and then flees their home and identity. Often the person will travel far away from their home, assume a new identity, and live as a different person until they “snap” out of their amnesic state.

A

dissociative fugue

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36
Q

classified as a mood disorder in which people have periods of hopelessness and sadness that last for more than 2 weeks and don’t appear to have a specific cause (although this varies).

A

major depressive disorder

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37
Q

a chronic type of depression that occurs on most days and lasts for a period of 2 or more years.

A

dysthymia

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38
Q

a mood disorder in which the person’s mood swings from euphoric (elevated mood, lowered need for sleep, high energy, talkativeness, inflated self-esteem), manic stages to depressed. This is not simply being happy and then sad, but rather periods of uncontrollable, clinical mania and longer periods of depression.

A

bipolar disorder

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39
Q

Explaining mood disorders: biological perspective factors:

A

reduction of norepinephrine and serotonin has been implicated in depression; drugs that alleviate mania reduce norepinephrine

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40
Q

Explaining mood disorders: social cognitive perspective:

A

disorders are caused by negative beliefs and expectations

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41
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia? (part of short answer question)

A
  1. delusion
  2. hallucination
  3. disorganised speech
  4. grossly disorganised behaviour
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42
Q

Define delusion as part of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

false belief system, often bizarre and grandiose

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43
Q

Define hallucination as part of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

false perceptual experience with compelling sense of being real despite absence of external stimulation

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44
Q

Define disorganised speech as part of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

severe disruption of verbal communication; ideas shift rapidly and incoherently from one unrelated topic to another

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45
Q

Define grossly disorganised behaviour as part of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

behaviour that is inappropriate for the situation or ineffective in attaining goals, often with motor disturbances (e.g. catatonic behaviour)

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46
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia? (part of short answer question)

A
  1. emotional and social withdrawal
  2. apathy
  3. povery of speech
  4. insufficiency of normal behaviour, motivation, and emotion
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47
Q

What are the subtypes of schizophrenia? (part of short answer question)

A
  1. paranoid
  2. catatonic
  3. disorganised
  4. undifferentiated
  5. residual
48
Q

Define the paranoid subtype of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

absurd delusions with hallucinations and impairment of judgment

49
Q

Define the catatonic subtype of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

alternating periods of extreme withdrawal and extreme excitement

50
Q

Define the disorganised subtype of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

severe disintegration of personality, emotional distortion; occurs at earlier age

51
Q

Define the undifferentiated subtype of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

rapidly changing mixture of most indicators of schizophrenia; indications of perplexity, emotional turmoil, delusions, excitement, depression, fear

52
Q

Define the residual subtype of schizophrenia (part of short answer question):

A

mild indication shown by individuals in remission following an episode

53
Q

What are the brain abnormalities present in patients with schizophrenia?

A
  1. enlarged ventricles
  2. increased sulci size
  3. hypofrontality
54
Q

What is the dopamine involvement present in patients with schizophrenia?

A

researchers have found that schizophrenic patients express higher levels of dopamine receptors in the brain

55
Q

What are the different clusters of personality disorders?

A
  1. odd/eccentric cluster
  2. dramatic/erratic cluster
  3. anxious/inhibited cluster
56
Q

What are the categories of the odd/eccentric cluster of personality disorders?

A
  1. schizotypal
  2. paranoid
  3. schizoid
57
Q

What are the categories of the dramatic/erratic cluster of personality disorders?

A
  1. antisocial
  2. borderline
  3. histrionic
  4. narcissistic
58
Q

What are the categories of the anxious/inhibited cluster of personality disorders?

A
  1. avoidant
  2. dependent
  3. obsessive/compulsive
59
Q

Peculiar eccentric manners of speaking or dressing.

A

schizotypal

60
Q

Distrust in others, suspicion that people have sinister motives.

A

paranoid

61
Q

Extreme introversion and withdrawal from relationships.

A

schizoid

62
Q

Impoverished moral sense or conscience.

A

antisocial

63
Q

Unstable moods and intense, stormy personal relationships.

A

borderline

64
Q

Constant attention seeking.

A

histrionic

65
Q

Inflated sense of self-importance, absorbed by fantasies of self and success.

A

narcissistic

66
Q

Socially anxious and uncomfortable unless confident of being liked.

A

avoidant

67
Q

Submissive, dependent, requiring excessive approval, reassurance, and advice.

A

dependent

68
Q

Conscientious, orderly, perfectionist.

A

obsessive/compulsive

69
Q

Define and give factors of antisocial personality disorder (short answer question):

A
  1. Individuals with antisocial personality disorder have a disregard for and violation of the rights of others that begins in childhood or early adolescence and continues into adulthood.
    a) Adults often have a history of conduct disorder before age 15, with problems such as aggression, destruction of property, vandalism, various crimes, rule violations, lying, and stealing.
    b) Biological factors of antisocial disorder involve lower levels of stress hormones before committing crime than others of the same age. PET scans reveal reduced activity in the frontal lobes.
70
Q

involves an emotionally charged, confiding interaction between a trained therapist and a mental patient

A

psychotherapy

71
Q

uses drugs or other procedures that act on the patient’s nervous system curing him/her of psychological disorders

A

biomedical therapy

72
Q

uses various forms of healing techniques depending on the client’s unique problems

A

eclectic approach

73
Q

its aim is to bring repressed feelings into conscious awareness where the patient can deal with them

A

psychoanalysis

74
Q

patient lies on a couch and speaks whatever comes to his mind

A

free association

75
Q

the patient edits his thoughts to resist his feelings; becomes important in analysis of conflict-driven anxiety

A

resistance

76
Q

eventually the patient opens up and reveals his innermost private thoughts to the therapist, developing positive or negative feelings towards him

A

transference

77
Q

the therapist listens to the needs of the patient in an accepting and non-judgmental way, addressing his problems in a productive way and building his or her self-esteem

A

person-centred therapy

78
Q

the therapist echoes, restates, and clarifies patient’s thinking, acknowledging expressed feelings

A

active listening

79
Q

Behaviour therapy: Systematic desensitisation: What is it? Give an example. (short answer question)

A

A type of exposure therapy that associates a pleasant, relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli commonly used to treat phobias. An example would be a person with a fear of spiders first being shown a picture of a spider, then being exposed to a toy spider, then a dead spider, and eventually being exposed to a live spider.

80
Q

Teaches people adaptive ways of thinking and acting based on the assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions.

A

cognitive therapy

81
Q

aims to alter the way people act and alter the way they think

A

cognitive-behaviour therapy

82
Q

normally consists of 6-9 people and a 90-minute session which can help more people and cost less. clients benefit from knowing others have similar problems

A

group therapy

83
Q

treats the family as a system. guides family members toward positive relationships and improved communication

A

family therapy

84
Q

What is a client’s perception of psychotherapy?

A
  1. client enters therapy in crisis and the crisis may subside over time
  2. clients need to believe the therapy was worth the effort
  3. clients generally speak kindly of their therapists
85
Q

What is a clinician’s perception of psychotherapy?

A
  1. clinicians are aware of the failures of other therapists
  2. if a client seeks another clinician, the former therapist is more likely to argue that the client has developed another psychological problem
  3. clinicians are likely to testify to the efficacy of their therapy regardless of the outcome of treatment
86
Q

Expert in research, assessment, and therapy, supplemented by a supervised internship; mostly Ph.Ds

A

clinical psychologists

87
Q

physicians who specialise in the treatment of psychological disorders; as MDs they can prescribe medications

A

psychiatrists

88
Q

work with problems arising from family relations and substance abuse and with spouse and child abusers and their victims

A

counselors

89
Q

Masters and postgraduate supervision prepares one to offer psychotherapy, mostly to people with everyday personal and family problems

A

clinical social worker

90
Q

the study of drug effects

A

psychopharmacology

91
Q

these remove a number of POSITIVE symptoms associated with schizophrenia, like agitation, delusions, and hallucination

A

classical (typical) antipsychotics

92
Q

these remove a number of NEGATIVE symptoms associated with schizophrenia, like apathy, jumbled thoughts, concentration difficulties, and difficulty in interacting with others

A

atypical antipsychotics

93
Q

How do antianxiety drugs exert their effects?

A

Depress the CNS and reduce anxiety and tension by elevating the levels of GABA neurotransmitters

94
Q

How do SSRIs exert their effects?

A

Improve mood by elevating the levels of serotonin by inhibiting reuptake

95
Q

How does lithium carbonate exert its effects?

A

It moderates the levels of norepinephrine and glutamate neurotransmitters

96
Q

This is delivered to severely depressed patients who do not respond to drugs. The patient is anesthetised and given a muscle relaxant. They usually get a 100 volt shock that relieves them of depression.

A

electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

97
Q

A pulsating magnetic coil is placed over the prefrontal regions of the brain to treat depression, with minimal side effects

A

transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)

98
Q

study of how people influence others’ behaviour, beliefs, and attitudes

A

social psychology

99
Q

the tendency to overestimate the extent to which people’s behaviour is due to internal dispositional factors and to underestimate the role of situational factors

A

fundamental attribution error

100
Q

Role playing affects attitudes: Zimbardo prison study. What is it? Explain. (short answer question)

A

A prison study in which normal young men were recruited to play the roles of guards and prisoners.
Both were dressed for the part.
By the second day, the guards began to treat the prisoners cruelly.
The prisoners started a rebellion, and the guards became increasingly sadistic.
The study was stopped after 6 days due to nervous breakdowns by the prisoners.

101
Q

the simplistic generalisation about a group of people–assigning them identical characteristics consistent with one’s prejudices

A

stereotype

102
Q

Reducing prejudice:

A
  1. Robber’s Cave study and encouraging people to work towards common goals
  2. Jigsaw classrooms and cooperation
103
Q

the tendency of people to alter their behaviour as a result of group pressure

A

conformity

104
Q

What are the commitment-based compliances?

A
  1. the foot-in-the-door technique

2. the low-ball technique

105
Q

starts with a small request and moves to a larger one

A

foot-in-the-door

106
Q

starts with a low price, then “adds on” all the desirable options

A

low-ball technique

107
Q

What are the norm-of-reciprocity-based compliances?

A
  1. unsolicited gift

2. door-in-the-face

108
Q

starts big then backs off

A

door-in-the-face

109
Q

Obedience: Stanley Milgram’s 1960 study. What is it? Explain.

A

It was a designed experiment to test the influence of obedience and authority on normal people.
Voluntary subjects were taken to a lab and were supposed to shock the learners when they did not successfully repeat words. With each failure, the shock level increased.
The statistics found that over 60% of the participants followed all commands.

110
Q

What are the biological influences of aggression?

A
  1. Arousal level
  2. Alcohol and other drugs
  3. Temperature
111
Q

What are the gender differences in aggression?

A

Males engage in more physical aggression while females engage in more relational aggression (gossip).

112
Q

any act that benefits another person but does not benefit the helper and often involves some personal cost to the helper

A

altruism (prosocial behaviour)

113
Q

when people see someone in need but fail to help them; the greater the numbers of people, the less likely any one of them will help

A

bystander effect

114
Q

Bonus question: Depression involves lowered levels of serotonin and norepinephrine. True or false?

A

True

115
Q

Bonus question: Women are more likely than men to show depression. True or false?

A

True

General Psychology (4 decks)

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