Test 4 Flashcards
Undermines the enamel and can eventually involve the pulp, causing pulpal necrosis if left unchecked, is what dental disease
dental caries
where do dental caries form
anywhere plaque forms
term for the subjective symptom of dryness in the mouth, which may be associated with a change in the composition of saliva or reduced salivary flow
xerostomia
layer remains almost unaffected, intact and in place for some time: important feature of
early enamel lesion is which zone of enamel caries 1-5% mineral loss
Surface zone
Largest area, region in which bulk of mineral is lost 5-20% mineral loss
body of the lesion
Appears as band on deep aspect of the body, Dense, brown opaque zone in which little structure can be seen, is which zone of enamel caries, Mineral loss of 2-4%
Dark Zone
First recognizable alterations in enamel structure observable by light microscopy: large pores created by demineralization at the prism junctures and at cross striations
Translucent Zone
No evidence of decalcification clinically or radiographically, consistent of translucent zone is which stage
stage 1
Still clinically and radiographically undetectable
Developing dark zone located centrally is which stage
stage 2
Breakdown in the center of the dark zone Formation of body of lesion
Clinically appears as a white spot is which stage
stage 3
Beginning of dentin involvement, Increase in size of lesion body is which stage
stage 4
Earliest stages of cavity formation Dentin involvement Remineralization of the defect is unlikely at this point, is which stage
stage 5
Clinical cavity formation is which stage
stage 6
First change seen histologically is the for smooth surface caries is
loss of inter-rod substance of enamel with increased prominence of the rods.
accentuated incremental lines of Retzius as seen when
smooth surface caries are beginning to form
Describe the shape of the enamel lesion on smooth surfaces
is cone-shaped, with the apex towards DEJ and base towards the tooth surface.
what type of caries begin with decalcification of enamel
pit and fissure
Caries follows the direction of what in pit and fissure caries
enamel rods
pit and fissure caries frequently involve what because the enamel is very thin
dentin
describe the shape of pit and fissure caries
it has a triangular shape, with its base toward the DEJ and the apex facing the surface of the tooth
Greater number of dentinal tubules are affected when lesion reaches DEJ, so there is greater cavitation than the smooth surface caries with more undermining of enamel. True or false
True
manage non-cavitated caries non-invasively via remineralization is what
the goal of modern dentistry
management of non-cavitated caries non-invasively is done how
by calcium and phosphate ions being supplied from external sources
Probably plays a special role as a precursor to bioapatite and as a transient phase in biomineralization, Approved use as abrasive prophylaxis pastes and for treatment of tooth
sensitivity is what
Recaldent
Involves filling and reinforcing the pore system of a noncavitated white spot, or incipient proximal lesions, with a light-curable resin. is seen in what tooth reparative drug
Icon
Caries infiltration works by capillary action, whereas sealants only cover incipient caries lesions at the surface of the tooth. T/F
TRUE
In early stages of caries, surface enamel may still be intact, but there is increased permeability of enamel to acid and other chemical stimuli, is seen in what type of caries
dentin caries
In response to low level stimulation of odontoblasts, there is formation of what? which is seen as a glossy transparent appearance
sclerotic dentin
If dentin is damaged the odontoblastic processes retract or die leaving empty dentinal tubules which form areas of
dead tracts
Dead tracts become filled with mineral and are called
blind tracts
which forms faster secondary or tertiary dentin
tertiary
which dentin is regarded as an important defense mechanism of the pulp-dentin complex in response to either pathological or physiological insults
tertiary
as caries reach dentin how do they spread
laterally along the DEJ
during dentin cavities Dentin is involved before breakdown or cavitation of the
enamel surface True or false
True
what act as paths for bacteria leading to the pulp
dentin tubules
Bacteria proliferate and form colonies that dilate the tubules called
liquefaction foci
Invading bacteria secrete a large amounts of what into the fluid in dentinal tubules
hydrolytic enzymes
may play a role in destruction of dentin organic matrix following demineralization by bacterial acids.
MMPs
which MMPs are involved in dentin caries/dentin caries
Collagenases Gelatinases Stromelysin
Acids demineralize the tissue and bacterial and host enzymes destroy the
collagen matrix
caries progression is slower in what and faster in what
slower in enamel and faster in dentin
The destruction of dentin can occur by what two mechanisms
decalcification and proteolysis
decalcification and proteolysis lead to dentin becoming of what consistency
necrotic mass of dentin of a leathery consistency.
the reason dentin when removed comes out in layers is due to the formation of what in dentin, spaces or gaps in carious dentin
clefts
zone of fatty degeneration, next to pulp
zone 1
Zone of dentinal sclerosis (protective)
zone 2
Zone of decalcification of dentin
zone 3
Zone of bacterial invasion
zone 4
Zone of decomposed dentin due to acids and enzymes.
zone 5
soft, progressive lesion found anywhere on the root surface that has lost its connective tissue attachment and is exposed to the environment. is what type of caries
root caries
lactobacillus and actinomyces are involved in what type of caries
root caries
what are essential for the cause and progression of the lesion,
plaque and micro organisms
Bacteria invade the cementum either along what or what
Sharpey’s fibers or between the bundles of fibers.
Root surfaces have greater what uptake than
enamel
flouride
what is the most cariogenic dietary constituent because it is fermentable and serves as a substrate for bacterial synthesis of extracellular (EPS) and intracellular (IPS) polysaccharides in dental plaque
sucrose
what does sucrose fermentation cause
low pH
Cariogenic flora is predominated by
Streptococcus mutans
what promotes bacterial adherence to tooth and contributes to the structural integrity of the biofilm
extracellular polysaccharides
what are the three products of neutrophils
lactoferrin, lactoperoxidase, lysozyme
what is a critical nutrient for periodontal pathogens
iron
what is a chronic inflammation disease of oral cavity
periodontitis
what is one of the transferrin proteins that transfer iron to the cells and control the level of free iron in the blood and external secretions
lactoferrin
what bacteria use free iron
porphyromonas gingivalis
Binds to iron (competition with bacteria for a required growth factor)
lactoferrin
Catalyzes the oxidation of thiocyanate ion (SCN-) and hydrogen peroxide
lactoperoxidase
which neutrophil product can be bactericidal
lactoperoxidase
Prevents the accumulation of lysine and glutamic acid required for bacterial growth
lactoperoxidase
Hydrolytic enzyme that cleaves the linkage between structural components of cell wall
lysozyme
hydrolyzing beta 1-4 glucosidic linkages between N-acetylmuramic and N- acetylglucosamine peptidoglycan
lysozyme
which neutrophil is effective against gram positive and gram negative bacteria
lysozyme
what functions in lubrication, buffers bicarbonate and phosphate and has Antibacterial action containing sIgA, lysozyme, lactoferrin
saliva
what are common mucins in saliva
MG1 and MG2
viscoelastic properties that aid in mastication and swallowing of food bolus
MG1 and MG2 Mucins
high molecular weight glycoproteins found in saliva
mucins
can bind calcium and have a high affinity for hydroxyapetite and compose part of the acquired enamel pellicle
Proline rich proteins
Neutral pH (7) is not conducive to the growth of ‘aciduric’ what type of bacteria
Streptococcus mutans
family of small basic peptides that display bactericidal and fungicidal activity
histatins
what is an example of a bacteria histatins combat
candida albicans
histatins does what for the host
provides protection
what are the main immunoglobulins that function in salivary antibodies
IgG, IgA, IgM
what antibody is more prevalent in gingival crevicular fluid (GCF)-serum
IgG
What is a secretory antibody that is synthesized in the salivary glands
IgA
what antibody is most common in serum
IgG
due to modified structure it is more resistant to bacterial proteolytic enzymes
sIgA
what component of sIgA facilitates transport into secretions and protects it against proteolytic attack
secretory
what is most common in saliva
sIgA
what is predominant Ig in seromucous secretions including saliva, colostrum, milk, and tracheobronchial and genitourinary secretions
sIgA
Bacteria found in saliva are coated with sIgA promoting phagocytosis True or false
True
which antibody Inhibit attachment of oral Streptoccocus species to epithelial cells
sIgA
Impair the ability of bacteria to attach to mucosal or dental surfaces
sIgA
is a protein film that forms on the surface enamel by selective binding of glycoproteins from saliva that prevents continuous deposition of salivary calcium phosphate
dental pellicle
what is also protective to the tooth from the acids produced by oral microorganisms after consuming the available carbohydrates.
dental pellicle
Strep and Actinomyces possess what that bind to pellicle glycoproteins
lectins
what are carbohydrate binding proteins
lectins
what is another function of MG2
bind to early colonizing bacteria leading to additional bacterial interaction, growth and maturation
Microbial succession evolves depending upon what two things
available nutrients and the formation of extracellular and intracellular polysaccharides
which mutans has acid tolerance and can thrive in acidic environment
streptococcus mutans
enzyme utilized to metabolize sucrose and maintain low pH
glucosyl transferase
if you boost igA what else is boosted
immunotherapy
Utilize which immune system for route of vaccine immunization
secretory immune system
the STAMP caries vaccine stands for
specifically targeted antimicrobial peptides
what are two parts of STAMP
a specific homing sequence for targeting specific bacteria, and a anti microbial bomb to kill bacteria on delivery
what helps Porphyromonas gingivalis to adhere to RBC and to evade host response by degrading Ig and impairing neutrophil function
gingipains
what is main defense against caries
fluoride treatment
what is major issue with periodontal disease vaccine
there are many different organisms to attack
In the progression of dental caries, the most superficial zone of enamel demineralization consisting of unaffected and usually intact enamel
stage/zone 4
◦ Erythritol ◦ Sorbitol (sorbit_ ◦ Mannitol (mannit) ◦ Xylitol (xylit) ◦ Maltitol ◦ Lactitol
What are these
sugar alcohols
which sugar alcohol is not metabolized to acids by flora, Non-cariogenic
xylitol
what is not fermented by any bacteria in the oral cavity
xylitol
what is an advantage to polyols
they do not promote tooth decay
Incomplete absorption of large amounts of polyols(sugar alcohols) consumed at one time may cause what effects, give example
GI tracts such as flatulence and diarrhea
what is the recommended daily amount of sugar
7.5-9 teaspoons
The most important goal of preventive dentistry is to reduce the consumption of
sweet products to a minimum.
enamel demineralization occurs at what pH
5.5
Dental plaque must be about_____ ____ old before the acid formation in response to sucrose is sufficient to cause enamel demineralization.
two days
what are five interrelated factors to dental caries
- Bacteria disease
- Depends on fermentable carbohydrate substrate
- Driven by frequency and duration of consumption
- Modified by fluoride
- Modified by saliva
what is vertical transmission:
parent to child (born without pathogenic bacteria)
what is horizontal transmission:
spouse to spouse, and sibling to sibling
what product Increases saliva flow
and has been shown to decrease intraoral bacterial and the acidity associated with the bacteria
xylitol gum
-Frequency, duration & timing of consumption
-Length of time in the mouth & contact with teeth Local physiologic salivary factors
-Method of consumption:
◦ Straw location: tongue toward the back of mouth vs labial vestibule
◦ Drinking from a Cup
-Interplay of the titratable acidity
-pH
-Presence of Ca, Phosp. & Fl ions
extrinsic acid factors
Regurgitation or vomiting is used regularly
to eliminate consumed food, bulimia, chronic acid reflux or gastro-esophageal reflux disease is an example of what
intrinsic acids
List 4 primary prevention methods
oral hygiene, dietary changes, fluoridated water, xylitol
List 2 components of secondary prevention
removal of caries, restorative procedures
List 2 components of tertiary prevention
tooth removal and tooth replacement
Advanced carious lesions (deep dentinal caries) causes what, and may require endodontic or extraction procedures
pulpal irritation
Enamel surface will become chalky as what progresses
demineralization
what product is used for antigingivitis and home bleaching
hydrogen peroxide
Main product in colgate total, Effective against Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria and as effective as stannous
triclosan
what is stannous, what is its function
it is a tin mixed with fluoride and mixed in toothpaste, desensitizes dentin tubules
what product functions primarily as an abrasive agent in dentifrices and Reduces plaque and removes stains
sodium bicarbonate
what is the weight to volume percentage of fluoride ion for fluoride containing toothpastes whether stannous fluoride, sodium fluoride or sodium monofluorophosphate
0.15% fluoride ion
sodium fluoride is more effective than what
sodium monofluorophosphate
what has been shown to be more effective than sodium fluoride in reducing the incidence of dental caries and controlling gingivitis, but can cause staining
stannous fluoride
what is a commonly used preservative
parabens
Eugenol is used commonly as what, giving the dental office a slightly clove smell
as a local antiseptic and anesthetic.
Detergents lower the surface tension to loosen plaque, what is the most common
sodium lauryl sulfate
fluoride ion interacts with what molecule on the tooth surface
calcium carbonate
Abrasive 20-40%, Water 20-40%, Humectant 20-40% Detergent 1-2% Binder 2% Flavoring Agent 2% Sweetener 2% Therapeutic Agent 2% Coloring or preservative, all the following are what
parts of tooth paste aka dentifrices
what are agents used along with a toothbrush to clean and polish natural teeth
dentifrices
Most countries do not fluoridate their water. Fluoridated countries do not have less tooth decay than non-fluoridated countries T/F
Both true
what government agency is involved in dealing with fluoridation
EPA
what is the recommended dose of fluoride
0.7 ppm
what should not be mixed with tap water containing fluoride
infant formula
children under 2 should brush with what kind of tooth paste
non-fluoradated
Frequent exposure to small amounts of fluoride is recommended. monitored fluoride amount is particularly appropriate during the time of anterior tooth development (under age of 6) T/f
Both true
More fluoride is retained in infants or adults
infants
what is the average fluoride amount per day in the USA
0.05 mg/day
yellowish or brownish striations or mottling of the enamel is caused by what
fluorosis
Enamel fluoride concentrations are highest at the
surface of the tooth
Reduce acid production by dental-plaque organisms. Convert hydroxyapatite into fluorapatite which reduces the solubility of the enamel in acid and makes teeth more resistant to decay. T/F
Both True
During the post eruptive period of enamel maturation enamel calcification continues for how long
2 years
Fluoride inhibits glycolysis by interfering with the action of the enzyme
enolase
what fluoride is involved with significant antibacterial activity which reduces the amount of plaque and gingivitis
stannous (tin) fluoride
Predominate action of fluoride is applied how
topical
what is the best amount of fluoride
low concentrations in high frequency
Excessive fluoride in children less than 6 years of age can result in
enamel fluorosis
∗ Swallowing toothpaste
∗ Inappropriate use of fluoride supplements
∗ High levels of naturally occurring fluoride (> 2 ppm)
These are the most common sources of what
excessive fluoride
can fluoride cause cancer
we dont know for sure
majority of fluoride is excreted by what organ
kidneys
more than how many mg of fluoride will make a person sick / over dose
more than 5 mg
what are two common forms of topical fluoride
2% sodium fluoride, 8% stannous fluoride
a maximum of how many mg of fluoride should be administered at one time
120 mg
Most contain 1000 to 1,100 ppm; this provides 1 mg of fluoride per gram of dentifrice. gel has higher concentration of fluoride than foam, keep it in mouth for 4 min T/F
Both True
If you use a varnish what should you not do that day
brush your teeth
what technique uses caries removal with a combination of a dental handpiece and hand instruments
interm treatment restoration
what two things are the most effective agents used by the profession to combat plaque diseases
fluoride and chlorohexadine
enamel defects on teeth were noted applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Clinical Discovery phase
relationship between defects and decay noted applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Epidemiological phase
clinical trials in Grand Rapids MI and other cities, applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Demonstration Phase
Starting in 1950,cities throughout the US began investigating the possibility of fluoridating their public water supplies applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Technology transfer phase
List the states close to tennessee in order of highest fluoridation to lowest fluoridation
∗ Kentucky 99.9% ∗ Tennessee 91.6% ∗ Arkansas 64.7% ∗ Mississippi 55.2% ∗ Louisiana 40.7%
what age group range is most succeptable to fluorosis
3-6 years old
There is no evidence that supports the use of supplemental fluoride for pregnant women, True or false
True
For a 6 month to 3 year old with less than 0.3ppm what amount of supplement do you give? what about from a 0.3-0.6 ppm?
0.25 mg/day, none
For a 3 year old to 6 year old with less than 0.3 ppm what amount of supplement do you give? what about for 0.3-0.6 ppm
0.5 mg/day, 0.25 mg/day
For a 6-16 year old with less than 0.3 ppm what amount of supplement do you give? what about for 0.3 -0.6 ppm?
1.0 mg/day, 0.5 mg/day
Most dentifrices contain what amount of____ ppm; this provides ___ mg of fluoride per gram of
dentifrice
1000-1100, 1
Varnishes have contain ____%NaF
5.9%
what restorative procedure releases fluoride and inhibit caries at the margins of restorations
Glass ionomer cements (GIC)
what suppresses the mutans streptococci that cause the demineralization and helps suppress the bacteria causing inflammation in periodontal disease
chlorohexadine
what percent of ingested fluoride is absorbed
75-90%
In an acidic stomach, fluoride is converted into ________and up to 40% of
ingested fluoride is absorbed from the stomach as HF______
Hydrogen fluoride, Hydrogen Fluoride (HF)
______stomach pH ______ gastric absorption by decreasing the concentration uptake of _____
increase, decreases, HF
Fluoride is not absorbed where ? It is absorbed in what organ where it is not affected by pH
stomach, intestines
______is considered to be a reflection of long-term exposure to fluoride
bone fluoride
the cell free zone contains______ which is a rich network of mostly unmyelinated nerve fibers, capillaries, fibroblast processes
Rashkow’s Plexus
High density of fibroblasts, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells (stem Cells), precursors for odontoblast replacement is called
cell rich zone
Large blood vessels and nerves, centrally located and branch laterally is called
pulp proper
As long as dentin remains covered by enamel or dentin, and as long as there is no disruption in blood supply, the dental pulp should do what
remain healthy
which pulp is Dense collagen fibers, continuation of PDL
apical pulp
Tubules are approximately____ micrometer in diameter at the DEJ and _____micrometers at the their pulpal surface. This is important in the pathogenesis_______
1 , 3 pupal inflammation
As dentin tubules get closer to the pulp decrease in what
hardness
Dentin permeability is directly proportional to the total _________
surface area of exposed dentin.
Dentin permeability also______ as you move toward the pulp
increases
Permeability of ____ dentin is 10-20 times less than that of _____dentin
root, coronal
what is done to tooth that allows a composite to bind to the tooth
etching the tooth
The outer movement of dentin tubule causes a bacterial front rather than the bacteria found in
dentin tubules
The outward flow may have a protective flushing action that may reduce influx of
noxious bacterial products.
release of inflammatory mediators, vasodilation, increased flow of plasma fluid into pulp and out into dentinal tubules occurs from what stimulus, come from what structure
Noxious Stimulus, odontoblasts and nerves
If you have normal blood flow in your pulp exchanging 40-100% of pulpal blood volume microbacteria are
less able to cause irritation and defect
if blood flow decreases what is going to increase
injurous substance
if blood flow decreases, it can cause degradation of mast cells, release of inflammatory mediators which cause capillary hydrostatic pressure to
increase
what is the most common dentin sensitivity model
the fluid found in the dentin and pulp shift in some what causing a signal to be sent to the brain
who’s major function is to transport medium for nutrients and waste products between cells and capillary blood.
interstitual fluid
what plays a role in adhesion, maintains structure of pulp and contains glycoproteins water etc.
extracellular matrix
what age group has a more apically located ECM that is more fibrous? which age group has a more coronal located ECM that is less fibrous
Older people, Younger people
fibroblast originate from what layer of cells ? Responsible for maintenance of what
ectomesenchyme , ECM
what is the major organic component of the dental pulp.
collagen
The collagen fibers secreted by odontoblasts eventually becomes
mineralized
what is an immature collagen fiber called
tropocollagen
which two types of collagen make up the bulk of the tissue collagen
Type 1, 3
what cells are found in center of pulp and function in immunoglobulin production
T and B lymphocytes
which cells are not arranged in un-inflammed pulp
mast cells
type 1 collagen, calcium phosphate in vesicles, alkaline phosphotase and proteoglycans are all products of what tooth cell
odontoblasts
what is the secretory part of the odontoblast
the odontoblast process
terminal capillary network Supplies the most metabolically active cells Dense, most vascularized area of pulp
sub odontoblastic layer
blood flow is high in what areas in pulp
coronally and peripherally
what does the pulp microvasulature not have which limits the ability to fight infection
no collateral circulation
what are small in diameter (10 micrometers) and are more frequent in the radicular pulp. Thought to be a way of shunting blood away from an area of injury where damage to micro-circulation may result in thrombosis or hemorrhage.
Atrioventricular anastomosis
Similar to AVA and thought to play a role in blood flow regulation during initial stages of inflammation are called
U turn loops
which nerve ganglion provides pulp with sensory innervation
trigeminal nerve
sympathetic nerves play a role in what
vasoconstriction
parasympathetic nerves play a role in what
vasodilation
which type of pulp fiber plays a role in sharp pain from hot or cold things
A delta fibers
what type of pulp fibers play a role in chronic low grade tooth pain
C fibers
which fibers predominate early in embryonic developement, which fibers are last to enter the pulp
C fibers, A delta fibers
Rashkow’s Plexus is found in what layer
cell free zone
what area has most nerve innervation and decreases in what direction
pulp horn, apically
what are produced and releases by sensory neurons and have the antidromal effect of producing an inflammatory response.
neuropeptides
what is the most common neuropeptide and is a vasodilator, terminate in dentin tubules
Calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP)-
what neuropeptide is Commonly found in C fibers, similar distribution to CGRP . Vasodilator, pro-inflammatory role.
Substance P
what neuropeptide is found in sympathetic nerves, vasoconstriction, pain perception, anti inflammatory role
NPY
what neuropeptide is in the parasympathetic nerves associated with blood vessels, Anti-inflammatory role
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
what two neuropeptides play an anti inflammatory role?
NPY and Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
which neuropeptide plays a pro-inflammatory role
Substance P
What is the major category of periodontal disease that occurs 90% of the time, what is the other 10% called
chronic, aggressive
More people have gingivitis than periodontitis. Gingivitis does not include bone loss. Gingivitis is reversible True or False
ALL true
Gingivitis and Periodontitis both have inflammation, both have similar micro bacteria, and are both site specific True or false
All true
what is the percentage of aggressive periodontitis
what is percentage of periodontitis
2%, 30-50%
what population group has highest level of gingivitis and for what reason
teens because of hormonal activity
what need to be present to initiate periodontal disease
bacterial plaque
all factors affecting periodontal disease can be related to what except smoking
oral hygiene
what is periodontitis most correlated with
age
primary ediological agent of periodontal disease is
dental plaque biofilm
what are the first bacteria in the mouth attacked by (an example of host response)
neutrophil
what is the virulence factors that allow bacteria to maintain foot hold
Bacteriocins
what is the percentage of bacteria in biofilm and what is the number of species
70-80% , 200-400 species
Microorganisms in biofilm are resistant to what three things
antibiotics, antimicrobials, and host response
Periodontitis can be initiated or progress in the absence of bacteria. true or false
False
• Dental plaque has a relatively complex, but constant composition. Increased disease is due to increased amounts and duration of plaque. This is and example of what hypothesis
non specific plaque hypothesis
bacteria starts as gram pos cocci and in the early phase of periodontitis becomes
gram negative motile rods
Individuals with large plaque accumulations often had little periodontal disease. what factor protects people from periodontal disease in this case
Host response (host immunity)
what disease is possibly linked to non specific plaque control
gingivitis
Plaque differs in microbial composition from individual to individual and from site to site in the same individual. Certain bacterial species are associated with different types and severities of periodontal disease. is called what hypothesis
specific plaque hypothesis
classic infection is an example of endogenous mico-organism or exogenous pathogen
exogenous pathogen
opportunistic microorganisms are an example of endogenous microorganisms commonly found in what disease
periodontitis
koch’s postulate does not hold true for what oral disease
periodontitis
No single species fits all of Socransky’s postulates for gingivitis or chronic periodontitis except which bacteria
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
Experimental gingivitis model showed patients having gingivitis from not brushing but did not result in what disease
periodontitis
what gram negative rod bacteria can cause gingivitis predominantly in puberty and pregnancy
Prevotella Intermedia
G- anaerobic rods (75%), mostly asaccharolytic is characteristic of what type of disease? what does asaccharolytic mean?
Chronic periodontitis, it means unable to break down carbohydrates
which of the following is not bacteriocide like P. gingivalis P. intermedia T. forsyntheis T. denticola
T. denticola
which teeth most commonly have aggressive periodontitis
1st molars and incisors
What kind of periodontitis is commonly known as localized juvenile periodontitis
aggressive periodontitis
Often little supragingival plaque, G- anaerobic rods, mostly saccharolytic are characteristics of what disease
aggressive periodontitis
what is a major difference between aggressive and chronic periodontitis
chronic periodontitis is unable to breakdown carbs like aggressive is
Porphyromonasgingivalis(generalized)
• Aa (localized)
• Capnocytophaga
These species are examples of what disease
aggressive periodontitis
– Porphyromonas gingivalis
– Prevotella intermedia
– Tannerella forsythensis (forsythia)
These species are examples of what disease and are also known as bactericides
chronic periodontitis
AA best fits model of socransky’s postulates, for localized periodontitis, True or False
True
what organism complex color are transitision of microorganisms to red complex, provide environment for them to grow
orange complex
what are the three red complex bacteria
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Tannerella forsythensis
Treponema denticola
gingivitis is usually seen in what complex of bacteria
Green maybe in purple
what complex of bacteria are found in healthy people
yellow complex
AA is related to one of the color complexes. It is associated with localized aggressive periodontitis True or fasle
False/True
Fusobacterium sp
Prevotella intermedia
Prevotella nigrescens
Peptostreptococcus micros
make up what complex of bacteria
orange complex
what organism may invade gingival tissues in localized aggressive periodontitis.
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
what is found in AA that kill neutrophils
leukotoxins
the environment drive change from health to disease which is created by bacteria relates to which plaque theory
ecological plaque theory
In ecological plaque theory which bacteria are most common, these are the ones that are common in microflora and are usually not harmful
opportunistic bacteria
Bacteria are the principal cause of the _____leading to gingivitis
initial inflammatory lesion
________ inflammation and the immune response to the bacterial insult drive the _______ in periodontitis
uncontrolled, tissue destruction
CGRP and SP initiate nerve innervation after what stage of tooth development
bell stage
Neuropeptides,Inflamatory mediators, potent vasodilators, what are the two major example
CGRP and SP
what Provides creamy texture and prevents toothpaste from drying out? what are two examples
humectants, glycerol and sorbitol
Detergents always end with what/ or are what
ate, sulfates
what can act as a food source for bacteria and fungus to dentifrices
Humectants
what prevents humectants from destroying toothpaste? what is an example
preservatives, parabens
stannous fluoride is found in what percent and sodium fluoride is found in what percent fluoride
less than 0.3 % , 0.24 %
