Test 4 Flashcards
(288 cards)
1
Q
Undermines the enamel and can eventually involve the pulp, causing pulpal necrosis if left unchecked, is what dental disease
A
dental caries
2
Q
where do dental caries form
A
anywhere plaque forms
3
Q
term for the subjective symptom of dryness in the mouth, which may be associated with a change in the composition of saliva or reduced salivary flow
A
xerostomia
4
Q
layer remains almost unaffected, intact and in place for some time: important feature of
early enamel lesion is which zone of enamel caries 1-5% mineral loss
A
Surface zone
5
Q
Largest area, region in which bulk of mineral is lost 5-20% mineral loss
A
body of the lesion
6
Q
Appears as band on deep aspect of the body, Dense, brown opaque zone in which little structure can be seen, is which zone of enamel caries, Mineral loss of 2-4%
A
Dark Zone
7
Q
First recognizable alterations in enamel structure observable by light microscopy: large pores created by demineralization at the prism junctures and at cross striations
A
Translucent Zone
8
Q
No evidence of decalcification clinically or radiographically, consistent of translucent zone is which stage
A
stage 1
9
Q
Still clinically and radiographically undetectable
Developing dark zone located centrally is which stage
A
stage 2
10
Q
Breakdown in the center of the dark zone Formation of body of lesion
Clinically appears as a white spot is which stage
A
stage 3
11
Q
Beginning of dentin involvement, Increase in size of lesion body is which stage
A
stage 4
12
Q
Earliest stages of cavity formation Dentin involvement Remineralization of the defect is unlikely at this point, is which stage
A
stage 5
13
Q
Clinical cavity formation is which stage
A
stage 6
14
Q
First change seen histologically is the for smooth surface caries is
A
loss of inter-rod substance of enamel with increased prominence of the rods.
15
Q
accentuated incremental lines of Retzius as seen when
A
smooth surface caries are beginning to form
16
Q
Describe the shape of the enamel lesion on smooth surfaces
A
is cone-shaped, with the apex towards DEJ and base towards the tooth surface.
17
Q
what type of caries begin with decalcification of enamel
A
pit and fissure
18
Q
Caries follows the direction of what in pit and fissure caries
A
enamel rods
19
Q
pit and fissure caries frequently involve what because the enamel is very thin
A
dentin
20
Q
describe the shape of pit and fissure caries
A
it has a triangular shape, with its base toward the DEJ and the apex facing the surface of the tooth
21
Q
Greater number of dentinal tubules are affected when lesion reaches DEJ, so there is greater cavitation than the smooth surface caries with more undermining of enamel. True or false
A
True
22
Q
manage non-cavitated caries non-invasively via remineralization is what
A
the goal of modern dentistry
23
Q
management of non-cavitated caries non-invasively is done how
A
by calcium and phosphate ions being supplied from external sources
24
Q
Probably plays a special role as a precursor to bioapatite and as a transient phase in biomineralization, Approved use as abrasive prophylaxis pastes and for treatment of tooth
sensitivity is what
A
Recaldent
25
Involves filling and reinforcing the pore system of a noncavitated white spot, or incipient proximal lesions, with a light-curable resin. is seen in what tooth reparative drug
Icon
26
Caries infiltration works by capillary action, whereas sealants only cover incipient caries lesions at the surface of the tooth. T/F
TRUE
27
In early stages of caries, surface enamel may still be intact, but there is increased permeability of enamel to acid and other chemical stimuli, is seen in what type of caries
dentin caries
28
In response to low level stimulation of odontoblasts, there is formation of what? which is seen as a glossy transparent appearance
sclerotic dentin
29
If dentin is damaged the odontoblastic processes retract or die leaving empty dentinal tubules which form areas of
dead tracts
30
Dead tracts become filled with mineral and are called
blind tracts
31
which forms faster secondary or tertiary dentin
tertiary
32
which dentin is regarded as an important defense mechanism of the pulp-dentin complex in response to either pathological or physiological insults
tertiary
33
as caries reach dentin how do they spread
laterally along the DEJ
34
during dentin cavities Dentin is involved before breakdown or cavitation of the
enamel surface True or false
True
35
what act as paths for bacteria leading to the pulp
dentin tubules
36
Bacteria proliferate and form colonies that dilate the tubules called
liquefaction foci
37
Invading bacteria secrete a large amounts of what into the fluid in dentinal tubules
hydrolytic enzymes
38
may play a role in destruction of dentin organic matrix following demineralization by bacterial acids.
MMPs
39
which MMPs are involved in dentin caries/dentin caries
Collagenases Gelatinases Stromelysin
40
Acids demineralize the tissue and bacterial and host enzymes destroy the
collagen matrix
41
caries progression is slower in what and faster in what
slower in enamel and faster in dentin
42
The destruction of dentin can occur by what two mechanisms
decalcification and proteolysis
43
decalcification and proteolysis lead to dentin becoming of what consistency
necrotic mass of dentin of a leathery consistency.
44
the reason dentin when removed comes out in layers is due to the formation of what in dentin, spaces or gaps in carious dentin
clefts
45
zone of fatty degeneration, next to pulp
zone 1
46
Zone of dentinal sclerosis (protective)
zone 2
47
Zone of decalcification of dentin
zone 3
48
Zone of bacterial invasion
zone 4
49
Zone of decomposed dentin due to acids and enzymes.
zone 5
50
soft, progressive lesion found anywhere on the root surface that has lost its connective tissue attachment and is exposed to the environment. is what type of caries
root caries
51
lactobacillus and actinomyces are involved in what type of caries
root caries
52
what are essential for the cause and progression of the lesion,
plaque and micro organisms
53
Bacteria invade the cementum either along what or what
Sharpey’s fibers or between the bundles of fibers.
54
Root surfaces have greater what uptake than
| enamel
flouride
55
what is the most cariogenic dietary constituent because it is fermentable and serves as a substrate for bacterial synthesis of extracellular (EPS) and intracellular (IPS) polysaccharides in dental plaque
sucrose
56
what does sucrose fermentation cause
low pH
57
Cariogenic flora is predominated by
Streptococcus mutans
58
what promotes bacterial adherence to tooth and contributes to the structural integrity of the biofilm
extracellular polysaccharides
59
what are the three products of neutrophils
lactoferrin, lactoperoxidase, lysozyme
60
what is a critical nutrient for periodontal pathogens
iron
61
what is a chronic inflammation disease of oral cavity
periodontitis
62
what is one of the transferrin proteins that transfer iron to the cells and control the level of free iron in the blood and external secretions
lactoferrin
63
what bacteria use free iron
porphyromonas gingivalis
64
Binds to iron (competition with bacteria for a required growth factor)
lactoferrin
65
Catalyzes the oxidation of thiocyanate ion (SCN-) and hydrogen peroxide
lactoperoxidase
66
which neutrophil product can be bactericidal
lactoperoxidase
67
Prevents the accumulation of lysine and glutamic acid required for bacterial growth
lactoperoxidase
68
Hydrolytic enzyme that cleaves the linkage between structural components of cell wall
lysozyme
69
hydrolyzing beta 1-4 glucosidic linkages between N-acetylmuramic and N- acetylglucosamine peptidoglycan
lysozyme
70
which neutrophil is effective against gram positive and gram negative bacteria
lysozyme
71
what functions in lubrication, buffers bicarbonate and phosphate and has Antibacterial action containing sIgA, lysozyme, lactoferrin
saliva
72
what are common mucins in saliva
MG1 and MG2
73
viscoelastic properties that aid in mastication and swallowing of food bolus
MG1 and MG2 Mucins
74
high molecular weight glycoproteins found in saliva
mucins
75
can bind calcium and have a high affinity for hydroxyapetite and compose part of the acquired enamel pellicle
Proline rich proteins
76
Neutral pH (7) is not conducive to the growth of ‘aciduric’ what type of bacteria
Streptococcus mutans
77
family of small basic peptides that display bactericidal and fungicidal activity
histatins
78
what is an example of a bacteria histatins combat
candida albicans
79
histatins does what for the host
provides protection
80
what are the main immunoglobulins that function in salivary antibodies
IgG, IgA, IgM
81
what antibody is more prevalent in gingival crevicular fluid (GCF)-serum
IgG
82
What is a secretory antibody that is synthesized in the salivary glands
IgA
83
what antibody is most common in serum
IgG
84
due to modified structure it is more resistant to bacterial proteolytic enzymes
sIgA
85
what component of sIgA facilitates transport into secretions and protects it against proteolytic attack
secretory
86
what is most common in saliva
sIgA
87
what is predominant Ig in seromucous secretions including saliva, colostrum, milk, and tracheobronchial and genitourinary secretions
sIgA
88
Bacteria found in saliva are coated with sIgA promoting phagocytosis True or false
True
89
which antibody Inhibit attachment of oral Streptoccocus species to epithelial cells
sIgA
90
Impair the ability of bacteria to attach to mucosal or dental surfaces
sIgA
91
is a protein film that forms on the surface enamel by selective binding of glycoproteins from saliva that prevents continuous deposition of salivary calcium phosphate
dental pellicle
92
what is also protective to the tooth from the acids produced by oral microorganisms after consuming the available carbohydrates.
dental pellicle
93
Strep and Actinomyces possess what that bind to pellicle glycoproteins
lectins
94
what are carbohydrate binding proteins
lectins
95
what is another function of MG2
bind to early colonizing bacteria leading to additional bacterial interaction, growth and maturation
96
Microbial succession evolves depending upon what two things
available nutrients and the formation of extracellular and intracellular polysaccharides
97
which mutans has acid tolerance and can thrive in acidic environment
streptococcus mutans
98
enzyme utilized to metabolize sucrose and maintain low pH
glucosyl transferase
99
if you boost igA what else is boosted
immunotherapy
99
Utilize which immune system for route of vaccine immunization
secretory immune system
99
the STAMP caries vaccine stands for
specifically targeted antimicrobial peptides
99
what are two parts of STAMP
a specific homing sequence for targeting specific bacteria, and a anti microbial bomb to kill bacteria on delivery
99
what helps Porphyromonas gingivalis to adhere to RBC and to evade host response by degrading Ig and impairing neutrophil function
gingipains
99
what is main defense against caries
fluoride treatment
99
what is major issue with periodontal disease vaccine
there are many different organisms to attack
106
In the progression of dental caries, the most superficial zone of enamel demineralization consisting of unaffected and usually intact enamel
stage/zone 4
107
```
◦ Erythritol
◦ Sorbitol (sorbit_
◦ Mannitol (mannit)
◦ Xylitol (xylit)
◦ Maltitol
◦ Lactitol
```
What are these
sugar alcohols
108
which sugar alcohol is not metabolized to acids by flora, Non-cariogenic
xylitol
109
what is not fermented by any bacteria in the oral cavity
xylitol
110
what is an advantage to polyols
they do not promote tooth decay
111
Incomplete absorption of large amounts of polyols(sugar alcohols) consumed at one time may cause what effects, give example
GI tracts such as flatulence and diarrhea
112
what is the recommended daily amount of sugar
7.5-9 teaspoons
113
The most important goal of preventive dentistry is to reduce the consumption of
sweet products to a minimum.
114
enamel demineralization occurs at what pH
5.5
115
Dental plaque must be about_____ ____ old before the acid formation in response to sucrose is sufficient to cause enamel demineralization.
two days
116
what are five interrelated factors to dental caries
- Bacteria disease
- Depends on fermentable carbohydrate substrate
- Driven by frequency and duration of consumption
- Modified by fluoride
- Modified by saliva
117
what is vertical transmission:
parent to child (born without pathogenic bacteria)
118
what is horizontal transmission:
spouse to spouse, and sibling to sibling
119
what product Increases saliva flow
| and has been shown to decrease intraoral bacterial and the acidity associated with the bacteria
xylitol gum
120
-Frequency, duration & timing of consumption
-Length of time in the mouth & contact with teeth Local physiologic salivary factors
-Method of consumption:
◦ Straw location: tongue toward the back of mouth vs labial vestibule
◦ Drinking from a Cup
-Interplay of the titratable acidity
-pH
-Presence of Ca, Phosp. & Fl ions
extrinsic acid factors
121
Regurgitation or vomiting is used regularly
| to eliminate consumed food, bulimia, chronic acid reflux or gastro-esophageal reflux disease is an example of what
intrinsic acids
122
List 4 primary prevention methods
oral hygiene, dietary changes, fluoridated water, xylitol
123
List 2 components of secondary prevention
removal of caries, restorative procedures
124
List 2 components of tertiary prevention
tooth removal and tooth replacement
125
Advanced carious lesions (deep dentinal caries) causes what, and may require endodontic or extraction procedures
pulpal irritation
126
Enamel surface will become chalky as what progresses
demineralization
127
what product is used for antigingivitis and home bleaching
hydrogen peroxide
128
Main product in colgate total, Effective against Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria and as effective as stannous
triclosan
129
what is stannous, what is its function
it is a tin mixed with fluoride and mixed in toothpaste, desensitizes dentin tubules
130
what product functions primarily as an abrasive agent in dentifrices and Reduces plaque and removes stains
sodium bicarbonate
131
what is the weight to volume percentage of fluoride ion for fluoride containing toothpastes whether stannous fluoride, sodium fluoride or sodium monofluorophosphate
0.15% fluoride ion
132
sodium fluoride is more effective than what
sodium monofluorophosphate
133
what has been shown to be more effective than sodium fluoride in reducing the incidence of dental caries and controlling gingivitis, but can cause staining
stannous fluoride
134
what is a commonly used preservative
parabens
135
Eugenol is used commonly as what, giving the dental office a slightly clove smell
as a local antiseptic and anesthetic.
136
Detergents lower the surface tension to loosen plaque, what is the most common
sodium lauryl sulfate
137
fluoride ion interacts with what molecule on the tooth surface
calcium carbonate
138
Abrasive 20-40%, Water 20-40%, Humectant 20-40% Detergent 1-2% Binder 2% Flavoring Agent 2% Sweetener 2% Therapeutic Agent 2% Coloring or preservative, all the following are what
parts of tooth paste aka dentifrices
139
what are agents used along with a toothbrush to clean and polish natural teeth
dentifrices
140
Most countries do not fluoridate their water. Fluoridated countries do not have less tooth decay than non-fluoridated countries T/F
Both true
141
what government agency is involved in dealing with fluoridation
EPA
142
what is the recommended dose of fluoride
0.7 ppm
143
what should not be mixed with tap water containing fluoride
infant formula
144
children under 2 should brush with what kind of tooth paste
non-fluoradated
145
Frequent exposure to small amounts of fluoride is recommended. monitored fluoride amount is particularly appropriate during the time of anterior tooth development (under age of 6) T/f
Both true
146
More fluoride is retained in infants or adults
infants
147
what is the average fluoride amount per day in the USA
0.05 mg/day
148
yellowish or brownish striations or mottling of the enamel is caused by what
fluorosis
149
Enamel fluoride concentrations are highest at the
surface of the tooth
150
Reduce acid production by dental-plaque organisms. Convert hydroxyapatite into fluorapatite which reduces the solubility of the enamel in acid and makes teeth more resistant to decay. T/F
Both True
151
During the post eruptive period of enamel maturation enamel calcification continues for how long
2 years
152
Fluoride inhibits glycolysis by interfering with the action of the enzyme
enolase
153
what fluoride is involved with significant antibacterial activity which reduces the amount of plaque and gingivitis
stannous (tin) fluoride
154
Predominate action of fluoride is applied how
topical
155
what is the best amount of fluoride
low concentrations in high frequency
156
Excessive fluoride in children less than 6 years of age can result in
enamel fluorosis
157
∗ Swallowing toothpaste
∗ Inappropriate use of fluoride supplements
∗ High levels of naturally occurring fluoride (> 2 ppm)
These are the most common sources of what
excessive fluoride
158
can fluoride cause cancer
we dont know for sure
159
majority of fluoride is excreted by what organ
kidneys
160
more than how many mg of fluoride will make a person sick / over dose
more than 5 mg
161
what are two common forms of topical fluoride
2% sodium fluoride, 8% stannous fluoride
162
a maximum of how many mg of fluoride should be administered at one time
120 mg
163
Most contain 1000 to 1,100 ppm; this provides 1 mg of fluoride per gram of dentifrice. gel has higher concentration of fluoride than foam, keep it in mouth for 4 min T/F
Both True
164
If you use a varnish what should you not do that day
brush your teeth
165
what technique uses caries removal with a combination of a dental handpiece and hand instruments
interm treatment restoration
166
what two things are the most effective agents used by the profession to combat plaque diseases
fluoride and chlorohexadine
167
enamel defects on teeth were noted applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Clinical Discovery phase
168
relationship between defects and decay noted applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Epidemiological phase
169
clinical trials in Grand Rapids MI and other cities, applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Demonstration Phase
170
Starting in 1950,cities throughout the US began investigating the possibility of fluoridating their public water supplies applies to which of the four phases of fluoridation
Technology transfer phase
171
List the states close to tennessee in order of highest fluoridation to lowest fluoridation
```
∗ Kentucky 99.9%
∗ Tennessee 91.6%
∗ Arkansas 64.7%
∗ Mississippi 55.2%
∗ Louisiana 40.7%
```
172
what age group range is most succeptable to fluorosis
3-6 years old
173
There is no evidence that supports the use of supplemental fluoride for pregnant women, True or false
True
174
For a 6 month to 3 year old with less than 0.3ppm what amount of supplement do you give? what about from a 0.3-0.6 ppm?
0.25 mg/day, none
175
For a 3 year old to 6 year old with less than 0.3 ppm what amount of supplement do you give? what about for 0.3-0.6 ppm
0.5 mg/day, 0.25 mg/day
176
For a 6-16 year old with less than 0.3 ppm what amount of supplement do you give? what about for 0.3 -0.6 ppm?
1.0 mg/day, 0.5 mg/day
177
Most dentifrices contain what amount of____ ppm; this provides ___ mg of fluoride per gram of
dentifrice
1000-1100, 1
178
Varnishes have contain ____%NaF
5.9%
179
what restorative procedure releases fluoride and inhibit caries at the margins of restorations
Glass ionomer cements (GIC)
180
what suppresses the mutans streptococci that cause the demineralization and helps suppress the bacteria causing inflammation in periodontal disease
chlorohexadine
181
what percent of ingested fluoride is absorbed
75-90%
182
In an acidic stomach, fluoride is converted into ________and up to 40% of
ingested fluoride is absorbed from the stomach as HF______
Hydrogen fluoride, Hydrogen Fluoride (HF)
183
______stomach pH ______ gastric absorption by decreasing the concentration uptake of _____
increase, decreases, HF
184
Fluoride is not absorbed where ? It is absorbed in what organ where it is not affected by pH
stomach, intestines
185
______is considered to be a reflection of long-term exposure to fluoride
bone fluoride
186
the cell free zone contains______ which is a rich network of mostly unmyelinated nerve fibers, capillaries, fibroblast processes
Rashkow's Plexus
187
High density of fibroblasts, undifferentiated mesenchymal cells (stem Cells), precursors for odontoblast replacement is called
cell rich zone
188
Large blood vessels and nerves, centrally located and branch laterally is called
pulp proper
189
As long as dentin remains covered by enamel or dentin, and as long as there is no disruption in blood supply, the dental pulp should do what
remain healthy
190
which pulp is Dense collagen fibers, continuation of PDL
apical pulp
191
Tubules are approximately____ micrometer in diameter at the DEJ and _____micrometers at the their pulpal surface. This is important in the pathogenesis_______
1 , 3 pupal inflammation
192
As dentin tubules get closer to the pulp decrease in what
hardness
193
Dentin permeability is directly proportional to the total _________
surface area of exposed dentin.
194
Dentin permeability also______ as you move toward the pulp
increases
195
Permeability of ____ dentin is 10-20 times less than that of _____dentin
root, coronal
196
what is done to tooth that allows a composite to bind to the tooth
etching the tooth
197
The outer movement of dentin tubule causes a bacterial front rather than the bacteria found in
dentin tubules
198
The outward flow may have a protective flushing action that may reduce influx of
noxious bacterial products.
199
release of inflammatory mediators, vasodilation, increased flow of plasma fluid into pulp and out into dentinal tubules occurs from what stimulus, come from what structure
Noxious Stimulus, odontoblasts and nerves
200
If you have normal blood flow in your pulp exchanging 40-100% of pulpal blood volume microbacteria are
less able to cause irritation and defect
201
if blood flow decreases what is going to increase
injurous substance
202
if blood flow decreases, it can cause degradation of mast cells, release of inflammatory mediators which cause capillary hydrostatic pressure to
increase
203
what is the most common dentin sensitivity model
the fluid found in the dentin and pulp shift in some what causing a signal to be sent to the brain
204
who's major function is to transport medium for nutrients and waste products between cells and capillary blood.
interstitual fluid
205
what plays a role in adhesion, maintains structure of pulp and contains glycoproteins water etc.
extracellular matrix
206
what age group has a more apically located ECM that is more fibrous? which age group has a more coronal located ECM that is less fibrous
Older people, Younger people
207
fibroblast originate from what layer of cells ? Responsible for maintenance of what
ectomesenchyme , ECM
208
what is the major organic component of the dental pulp.
collagen
209
The collagen fibers secreted by odontoblasts eventually becomes
mineralized
210
what is an immature collagen fiber called
tropocollagen
211
which two types of collagen make up the bulk of the tissue collagen
Type 1, 3
212
what cells are found in center of pulp and function in immunoglobulin production
T and B lymphocytes
213
which cells are not arranged in un-inflammed pulp
mast cells
214
type 1 collagen, calcium phosphate in vesicles, alkaline phosphotase and proteoglycans are all products of what tooth cell
odontoblasts
215
what is the secretory part of the odontoblast
the odontoblast process
216
terminal capillary network Supplies the most metabolically active cells Dense, most vascularized area of pulp
sub odontoblastic layer
217
blood flow is high in what areas in pulp
coronally and peripherally
218
what does the pulp microvasulature not have which limits the ability to fight infection
no collateral circulation
219
what are small in diameter (10 micrometers) and are more frequent in the radicular pulp. Thought to be a way of shunting blood away from an area of injury where damage to micro-circulation may result in thrombosis or hemorrhage.
Atrioventricular anastomosis
220
Similar to AVA and thought to play a role in blood flow regulation during initial stages of inflammation are called
U turn loops
221
which nerve ganglion provides pulp with sensory innervation
trigeminal nerve
222
sympathetic nerves play a role in what
vasoconstriction
223
parasympathetic nerves play a role in what
vasodilation
224
which type of pulp fiber plays a role in sharp pain from hot or cold things
A delta fibers
225
what type of pulp fibers play a role in chronic low grade tooth pain
C fibers
226
which fibers predominate early in embryonic developement, which fibers are last to enter the pulp
C fibers, A delta fibers
227
Rashkow's Plexus is found in what layer
cell free zone
228
what area has most nerve innervation and decreases in what direction
pulp horn, apically
229
what are produced and releases by sensory neurons and have the antidromal effect of producing an inflammatory response.
neuropeptides
230
what is the most common neuropeptide and is a vasodilator, terminate in dentin tubules
Calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP)-
231
what neuropeptide is Commonly found in C fibers, similar distribution to CGRP . Vasodilator, pro-inflammatory role.
Substance P
232
what neuropeptide is found in sympathetic nerves, vasoconstriction, pain perception, anti inflammatory role
NPY
233
what neuropeptide is in the parasympathetic nerves associated with blood vessels, Anti-inflammatory role
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
234
what two neuropeptides play an anti inflammatory role?
NPY and Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
235
which neuropeptide plays a pro-inflammatory role
Substance P
236
What is the major category of periodontal disease that occurs 90% of the time, what is the other 10% called
chronic, aggressive
237
More people have gingivitis than periodontitis. Gingivitis does not include bone loss. Gingivitis is reversible True or False
ALL true
238
Gingivitis and Periodontitis both have inflammation, both have similar micro bacteria, and are both site specific True or false
All true
239
what is the percentage of aggressive periodontitis
| what is percentage of periodontitis
2%, 30-50%
240
what population group has highest level of gingivitis and for what reason
teens because of hormonal activity
241
what need to be present to initiate periodontal disease
bacterial plaque
242
all factors affecting periodontal disease can be related to what except smoking
oral hygiene
243
what is periodontitis most correlated with
age
244
primary ediological agent of periodontal disease is
dental plaque biofilm
245
what are the first bacteria in the mouth attacked by (an example of host response)
neutrophil
246
what is the virulence factors that allow bacteria to maintain foot hold
Bacteriocins
247
what is the percentage of bacteria in biofilm and what is the number of species
70-80% , 200-400 species
248
Microorganisms in biofilm are resistant to what three things
antibiotics, antimicrobials, and host response
249
Periodontitis can be initiated or progress in the absence of bacteria. true or false
False
250
• Dental plaque has a relatively complex, but constant composition. Increased disease is due to increased amounts and duration of plaque. This is and example of what hypothesis
non specific plaque hypothesis
251
bacteria starts as gram pos cocci and in the early phase of periodontitis becomes
gram negative motile rods
252
Individuals with large plaque accumulations often had little periodontal disease. what factor protects people from periodontal disease in this case
Host response (host immunity)
253
what disease is possibly linked to non specific plaque control
gingivitis
254
Plaque differs in microbial composition from individual to individual and from site to site in the same individual. Certain bacterial species are associated with different types and severities of periodontal disease. is called what hypothesis
specific plaque hypothesis
255
classic infection is an example of endogenous mico-organism or exogenous pathogen
exogenous pathogen
256
opportunistic microorganisms are an example of endogenous microorganisms commonly found in what disease
periodontitis
257
koch's postulate does not hold true for what oral disease
periodontitis
258
No single species fits all of Socransky's postulates for gingivitis or chronic periodontitis except which bacteria
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
259
Experimental gingivitis model showed patients having gingivitis from not brushing but did not result in what disease
periodontitis
260
what gram negative rod bacteria can cause gingivitis predominantly in puberty and pregnancy
Prevotella Intermedia
261
G- anaerobic rods (75%), mostly asaccharolytic is characteristic of what type of disease? what does asaccharolytic mean?
Chronic periodontitis, it means unable to break down carbohydrates
262
```
which of the following is not bacteriocide like
P. gingivalis
P. intermedia
T. forsyntheis
T. denticola
```
T. denticola
263
which teeth most commonly have aggressive periodontitis
1st molars and incisors
264
What kind of periodontitis is commonly known as localized juvenile periodontitis
aggressive periodontitis
265
Often little supragingival plaque, G- anaerobic rods, mostly saccharolytic are characteristics of what disease
aggressive periodontitis
266
what is a major difference between aggressive and chronic periodontitis
chronic periodontitis is unable to breakdown carbs like aggressive is
267
Porphyromonasgingivalis(generalized)
• Aa (localized)
• Capnocytophaga
These species are examples of what disease
aggressive periodontitis
268
– Porphyromonas gingivalis
– Prevotella intermedia
– Tannerella forsythensis (forsythia)
These species are examples of what disease and are also known as bactericides
chronic periodontitis
269
AA best fits model of socransky's postulates, for localized periodontitis, True or False
True
270
what organism complex color are transitision of microorganisms to red complex, provide environment for them to grow
orange complex
271
what are the three red complex bacteria
Porphyromonas gingivalis
Tannerella forsythensis
Treponema denticola
272
gingivitis is usually seen in what complex of bacteria
Green maybe in purple
273
what complex of bacteria are found in healthy people
yellow complex
274
AA is related to one of the color complexes. It is associated with localized aggressive periodontitis True or fasle
False/True
275
Fusobacterium sp
Prevotella intermedia
Prevotella nigrescens
Peptostreptococcus micros
make up what complex of bacteria
orange complex
276
what organism may invade gingival tissues in localized aggressive periodontitis.
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (AA)
277
what is found in AA that kill neutrophils
leukotoxins
278
the environment drive change from health to disease which is created by bacteria relates to which plaque theory
ecological plaque theory
279
In ecological plaque theory which bacteria are most common, these are the ones that are common in microflora and are usually not harmful
opportunistic bacteria
280
Bacteria are the principal cause of the _____leading to gingivitis
initial inflammatory lesion
281
________ inflammation and the immune response to the bacterial insult drive the _______ in periodontitis
uncontrolled, tissue destruction
282
CGRP and SP initiate nerve innervation after what stage of tooth development
bell stage
283
Neuropeptides,Inflamatory mediators, potent vasodilators, what are the two major example
CGRP and SP
284
what Provides creamy texture and prevents toothpaste from drying out? what are two examples
humectants, glycerol and sorbitol
285
Detergents always end with what/ or are what
ate, sulfates
286
what can act as a food source for bacteria and fungus to dentifrices
Humectants
287
what prevents humectants from destroying toothpaste? what is an example
preservatives, parabens
288
stannous fluoride is found in what percent and sodium fluoride is found in what percent fluoride
less than 0.3 % , 0.24 %
