Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathobiology > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Envelope, capsid, and nuclear core are 3 basic components of what?

A

Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Louis Pastuer disproved

A

spontaneous generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which one of the following protein protects bacteria from host phagocytotic cells

A

capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which feature differentiates prokaryotes from other microrganisms

A

lack of cell organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is not a component of a virus

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

who discovered the vaccine

A

Louise Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

infections can be carried from one host to another was discovered by who

A

Robert Koch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is most common feature about prokaryotes

A

no true nucleus, no membrane, unique cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is most common feature of eukaryotes

A

true membrane, contains organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is either a prokaryote or eukaryote, can contain either DNA or RNA

A

Viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what species lacks chlorophyll and is usually non motile

A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is unique about fungal membrane

A

contains ergosterol, which is similar to cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

reproduce by spores, asexual or sexual, they are dimorphic can live in both spore and filamentous form

A

fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

oral yeast like fungus, found in elderly people

A

Candida albicans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does candida albicans cause in the oral cavity

A

denture induced stomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what kind of bacteria has a thick proteoglycan layer

A

gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what kind of bacteria has a thin layer proteoglycan but has a large lipopolysaccharide layer (LPS)

A

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LPS plays a major role in

A

periodontal ligament, periodontitis, produces cytokines, which cause cell destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

bacteria that can withstand cold temperatures

A

psychrophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

bacteria that can withstand hot temps

A

thermophiles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mesophiles

A

live in moderate temp found in human body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

generation time is

A

the time for bacteria to become double the amount of the original

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

consists of streptococcus, actinmyces – mostly gram positive

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

periodontitis is mostly caused by what bacteria

A

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

term to indicate a relative degree of pathogenicity, ability of a microorganism to cause infection

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lysozyme , lactoperoxidase
-Properdin, cytokines, defersins
-WBC’s (neutrophils, monocyte, macrophage)
are examples of what

A

non specific defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

antibodies, and T cells are what

A

specific agents of defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

living organisms arise from preexisting living cells is called

A

biogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

multicellular form of fungi or mold is called

A

mycelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what do fungi produce to decompose organic material

A

exo enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

fungi store their food as

A

glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what usually contains Sarcodina (pseudopods, Mastigophora (flagellate) Cilliate (cilia) Sporozoa

A

Protozoans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are some characteristics and examples of protozoan diseases

A

found in tropical areas, can cause dihorrea, absesses, amebiasis and malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) N-acetymuramic acid (NAM), Unique to bacteria, containing Sugars, hard to break down, what kind of bacteria

A

gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

More complex, both structurally and chemically is what type of bacteria

A

gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

These organisms do not stain with Gram stain. Outer cell wall layers of these bacteria contains
unusual glycolipids besides peptidoglycan layer

A

Acid fast bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

consisting of a capsule, cell wall and plasma membrane is called what in bacteria

A

cell envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

use carbon dioxide as a sole source of carbon for growth

A

Autotroph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

obtain their carbon and energy for growth from organic compounds in nature

A

heterotroph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

organisms which grow either in the presence or absence of O2 are called

A

facilitated anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

those which are inhibited or killed by O2, and whichgrow only in its absence, are called

A

obligate anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Organisms that require O2 for growth are called

A

aerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Bacterial growth shows what four phases

A

lag phase, exponential phase, stationary phase, and phase of decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what means an association between two organisms that live together

A

symbiosis

45
Q

A mutually-beneficial association between two organisms (both organisms benefit from each others association).

A

mutualism

46
Q

An association between two organisms wherein one organism may benefit but neither is harmed.

A

commensalism

47
Q

A relationship between two organisms in which one organism lives at the expense of the other and may cause damage or harm to it.

A

parasitism

48
Q

Intact lipopolysaccharides (LPS) of Gram-negative can mediate what in order to evade host defenses

A

mediate lysosome activity

49
Q

what is another source of protection for bacteria that allows them to even be protected by phagocytosis

A

Capsule or encapsulated

50
Q

what is usually spread via insects or the water supply, disease from what microbe?

A

protozoans

51
Q

who was the first person to use a microscope to look at microorganisms and describe their morphology

A

antonie van leeuwenhoek

52
Q

what are the three shapes to bacteria?

A

rods, spheres, spirals

53
Q

what is it called when Living organisms can arise from non-living matter.

A

spontaneous generation

54
Q

who was the first to disprove spontaneous generation, who was the second

A

francisco redi, Louise pasteur

55
Q

what is the biggest thing Pasteur proved

A

germ theory of disease

56
Q

germ theory of disease means

A

most infectious diseases are caused by germs(viruses, bacteria)

57
Q

what is the term used to describe fungi living in a filamentous and yeast/spore form

A

dimorphic

58
Q

the term what refers to fungi that feed on dead plant or animal tissue for a source of nutrition and metabolic energy

A

saprophyte

59
Q

malaria is what type of species

A

protozoan

60
Q

what are three bacterial structural components

A

appendages (cillia/flagella), cell envelope(capsule, membrane), cytoplasmic region (contain DNA)

61
Q

which of the following are not host cell receptor sites for bacteria Carbohydrates, Glycoproteins Protein molecules

A

they all are host cell receptors

62
Q

which of the following is not a way which bacterial pathogens overcome host immunity, tolerance, molecular mimicry, antigenic disguise or immunosurprssion

A

they all are ways to overcome host immunity

63
Q

what is the most chronic childhood disease

A

dental caries

64
Q

Which teeth are not included in DMF? what numbers are they

A

3rd Molars, 1,16,17,32

65
Q 
which of the following tests are not well correlated to caries activity
A. Laser Test
B. saliva acid-buffering capacity test
C. snyder test
D. Salivary flow test
A

B

66
Q

which of the following statements is not true concerning caries activity tests
A. all caries activity tests have limitations
B. can aid the clinician in making decisions concerning the need for control measures
C. in the salivary viscosity test, increased viscosity makes one less succeptable to caries
D. the dental plaque test is not well correlated with caries activity

A

C

67
Q 
All of the following test are commonly used/and or was once commonly used to determine caries activity except?
A. Lactobacillus Count
B. Synder Test
C. Salivary flow test 
D. Saliva acid buffering capacity test
A

A

68
Q

An infectious disease resulting in destruction of tooth structure by acid forming bacteria found in dental plaque in the presence of sugar is what

A

dental caries

69
Q

The infection results in loss of tooth minerals that begins on the outer surface of the tooth and can progress through the dentin to the pulp True or false of dental caries

A

True

70
Q

Theavailabilityofsimplecarbohydrates,suchas sucrose, greatly stimulates

A

plaque metabolism

71
Q

what are the four primary factors of caries

A

Host, microbial flora, substrate and time

72
Q

what is an example of host factors

A

teeth

73
Q

what is an example of microbial flora factors

A

lactobacillus and strep mutans

74
Q

what is an example of substrate factors

A

diet, carbohydrates, sucrose

75
Q

if pH rises the pH becomes more what? if the pH lowers the pH becomes what?

A

basic, acidic

76
Q

Remineralization of the damaged tooth occurs as the local pH rises above

A

5.5

77
Q

what is nature’s primary defense system for the oral environment,

A

saliva

78
Q

the body’s external protection for enamel comes from

A

saliva

79
Q

The pH of saliva from a healthy human is between

A

6.5-7.4

80
Q

All of the following are ?
• Neutralizing acid challenges
• Flushing food and bacteria from the oral cavity
• Acting as a lubricant
• Forming pellicle on the tooth surface
• Delivering calcium, phosphate and fluoride to the tooth surface

A

how saliva protects teeth

81
Q 
All of the following are 
• Reduced clearance of bacteria and food from the mouth
• Reduced buffering of acid challenges
• Diminished remineralizing potential
• The oral cavity becomes more acidic
A

what happens when saliva stops protecting teeth

82
Q

DMF (uppercase) applies to? dmf (lower case) applies to

A

permanent dentition, primary dentition

83
Q

what surfaces have highest prevalence of dental caries

A

pit and fissure

84
Q

what is the lease prevalent surface for dental caries

A

root caries

85
Q

what surface has a moderate level of dental caries

A

smooth surface, interproximal

86
Q

root caries are predominately seen in what population

A

elderly people

87
Q

what is the main bacterial component for root surface caries

A

actinomyces

88
Q

Have less well-defined margins, tend to be U- shaped in cross-section, and progress more rapidly because of lack of protection from an enamel covering is what type of caries

A

root caries

89
Q

Red zone bacteria are what gram family? and what disease do they cause?

A

negative, periodontal disease

90
Q

Currently no single caries activity test can predict caries with a high degree of confidence True or false

A

True

91
Q

caries activity test have limitations True or false

A

True

92
Q

caries activity tests are useful…

A

adjuncts to clinical examination and X-rays

93
Q

which activities test is least used

A

lactose bacillus count

94
Q

which activity test was once the most used, deals with color change and measures bacteria’s acid production

A

snyder test

95
Q

a complete color change from green to yellow in the snyder test refers to what

A

high succeptiblity to dental caries

96
Q

no color change in the snyder test refers to what

A

little or no succeptibility to dental caries

97
Q

what is a commonly used activity test that deals with the decrease of salvitory flow leading to dental caries

A

salvitory flow test

98
Q

what is the premise to the viscosity activity test

A

an increase in viscosity make someone more susceptible to caries

99
Q

Sticky frothy saliva residues, Frothy bubbly saliva has what type of viscosity

A

increases viscosity

100
Q

normal viscosity has what type of saliva

A

watery clear saliva

101
Q

Commonly used test but it is not well correlated to caries activity, the pH of the saliva is measured in what acitivity test

A

saliva acid-buffering capacity

102
Q

what is the premise of saliva-buffering capacity

A

more acidic saliva increases succeptibility to caries

103
Q

Proven to be over 90% accurate

A

Laser detection of caries

104
Q

Lasers can identify what predominant caries

A

pit and fissure

105
Q

Premise– Carbohydrates produce a lower pH and produce it longer in caries-susceptible individuals.
Not well correlated to caries activity

A

Dental plaque test

106
Q

adequate saliva is necessary for what

A

remineralization

107
Q

What happens when saliva stops protecting your teeth in regards to mineralization

A

diminished remineralization potential

108
Q

acidic environment in oral cavity causes what to the teeth

A

demineralization

Pathobiology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions