TEST 3 (UNITS 8 - 10) Flashcards

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1
Q

how we grow, develop, and change throughout the lifespan.

A

DEVELOPMENTAL PSYCHOLOGY

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2
Q

Rod-shaped structures, found in the nuclei of body cells, that contain all the genes and carry all the hereditary information.

A

CHROMOSOMES

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3
Q

HOW MANY CHROMOSOMES ARE FOUND IN EACH CELL?

A

23 PAIRS

  • 22 AUTOSOMAL PAIRS
  • 23RD PAIR ARE SEX CHROMOSOMES
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4
Q

Genes are segments of this located on each of the chromosomes

A

DNA

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5
Q

Within the chromosomes, the segments of DNA that are the basic units for the transmission of hereditary traits

A

GENES

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6
Q

A gene that is expressed in the individual

A

DOMINANT TRAIT

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7
Q

A gene that will not be expressed if paired with a dominant gene, but will be expressed if paired with another recessive gene

A

RECESSIVE TRAIT

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8
Q

It carries the genes that determine one’s sex and primary and secondary sex characteristics

A

SEX CHROMOSOMES

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9
Q

3 STAGES OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT

A
  1. Period of the zygote
  2. Period of the embryo
  3. Period of the fetus
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10
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT: Time after Conception: 1 to 2 weeks

A

PERIOD OF THE ZYGOTE

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11
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT: Zygote attaches to the uterine lining.

A

PERIOD OF THE ZYGOTE

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12
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT: At 2 weeks, zygote is the size of the period at the end of this sentence.

A

PERIOD OF THE ZYGOTE

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13
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT: Time after Conception: 3 to 8 weeks

A

PERIOD OF THE EMBRYO

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14
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT:

Major systems, organs, and structures of the body develop.

A

PERIOD OF THE EMBRYO

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15
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT: * Period ends when first bone cells appear.

A

PERIOD OF THE EMBRYO

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16
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT: * At 8 weeks, embryo is about 2.5 cm long and weighs about 4g

A

PERIOD OF THE EMBRYO

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17
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT:9 weeks to birth (38 weeks)

A

PERIOD OF THE FETUS

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18
Q

STAGE OF PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT:Rapid growth and further development of the body structures, organs, and systems.

A

PERIOD OF THE FETUS

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19
Q

What are the environmental influences on an unborn child?

A
  1. TERATOGENS

2. CRITICAL PERIOD

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20
Q

Harmful agents in the prenatal environment that can have a negative impact on prenatal development and even cause birth defects.

A

TERATOGENS

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21
Q

A period that is so important to development that a harmful environmental influence can keep a bodily structure or behaviour from developing normally.

A

CRITICAL PERIOD

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22
Q

4 ADAPTATIVE NEONATE REFLEXES

A
  • sucking
    • swallowing
    • coughing
    • blinking
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23
Q

What are the physical changes that occur during INFANCY?

A
  • sitting, standing, and walking;
  • physical and motor development proceeds from the head downward to the trunk and legs, so babies lift their heads before they sit, and sit before they walk, etc.
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24
Q

What are the physical changes that occur during PUBERTY?

A
  • ejaculation, menarche.
  • begins with the onset of puberty–biological changes characterized by a period of rapid physical growth and change that culminates in sexual maturity.
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25
Q

What are the physical changes that occur during MIDDLE AGE?

A

FEMALES: Menopause
MALES: experience a gradual decline in their testosterone levels

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26
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development:

A

ASSIMILATION & ACCOMMODATION

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27
Q

The process by which new objects, events, experiences, or pieces of information are incorporated into existing schemas

A

ASSIMILATION

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28
Q

The process by which existing schemas are modified and new schemas are created to incorporate new objects, events, experiences, or information

A

ACCOMMODATION

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29
Q

The process of learning socially acceptable behaviours, attitudes, and values

A

SOCIALIZATION

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30
Q

To function effectively and comfortably within that society, we must come to know the patterns of behaviour that it considers desirable and appropriate.

A

SOCIALIZATION

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31
Q

What are the 8 psychosocial stages of development proposed by Erikson?

A
  1. Trust vs. mistrust
  2. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
  3. Initiative vs. guilt
  4. Industry vs. inferiority
  5. Identity vs. role confusion
  6. Intimacy vs. isolation
  7. Generativity vs. stagnation
  8. Ego integrity vs. despair
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32
Q

What is the concept of separation anxiety?

A
  • fear and distress when the parent leaves them with another caretaker
  • infants show separation anxiety once the attachment has formed
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33
Q

4 types of ATTACHMENT ID’D by Mary Ainsworth?

A
  1. secure
  2. resistant
  3. avoidant
  4. disorganized/disoriented
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34
Q

What are the 3 parenting styles outlined by Diane Baumrind?

A
  1. Authoritarian Parents - expect unquestioned obedience
  2. Authoritative Parents - set high standards, give rationale for rules.
  3. Permissive Parents - set few rules or limits
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35
Q

3 levels (6 stages) of moral development?

A
  1. Conventional - to gain approval or to follow the law.
  2. Postconventional - to ensure that human rights are protected.
  3. Preconventional - to avoid punishment or gain a reward.
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36
Q

Why is middle age often considered the prime of life?

A

Life satisfaction in older adults appears to be most strongly related to good health, as well as to a feeling of control over one’s life.

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37
Q

5 stages of coming to terms with death as proposed by Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross?

A
  1. Denial and isolation
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance
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38
Q

process that initiates, directs, and sustains behaviour

A

MOTIVATION

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39
Q

The desire to perform an act because it is satisfying or pleasurable in and of itself.

A

intrinsic motivation

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40
Q

The desire to perform an act in order to gain a reward or to avoid an undesirable consequence.

A

extrinsic motivation

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41
Q

INSTINCT THEORY: Over the course of those decades, the list of instincts expanded until thousands of instincts were being proposed to explain human behaviour.

eg. Two people fight because of their aggressive instinct.

A

INSTINCT THEORY & HUMAN MOTIVATION

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42
Q

INSTINCT THEORY: all living organisms have certain biological needs that must be met if they are to survive

EG. A person eats to reduce hunger.

A

DRIVE-REDUCTION THEORY & MOTIVATION

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43
Q

INSTINCT THEORY: Arousal theory suggests that the aim of motivation is to maintain an optimal level of arousal; if arousal is less than the optimal level, we do something to stimulate it; if arousal exceeds the optimal level, we seek to reduce it.

EG. A person climbs a mountain for excitement; a person listens to classical music for relaxation

A

AROUSAL THEORY & MOTIVATION

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44
Q

The tendency of the body to maintain a balanced internal state with regard to body temperature, blood sugar, water, oxygen level, and so forth to ensure physical survival.

A

HOMEOSTASIS

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45
Q

The __________-__________ Law suggests that performance on tasks is best when arousal levels are appropriate to the difficulty of the task

A

Yerkes-Dodson

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46
Q

List, in order, the needs found in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A
  1. physiological needs
  2. safety needs
  3. belonging & love needs
  4. esteem needs
  5. need for self-actualization
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47
Q

Differentiate extracellular and intercellular thirst

A

extracellular thirst: occurs when fluid is lost from the body tissues.

intracellular thirst: involves the loss of water from inside the body cells.

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48
Q

Describe the relationship of blood sugar to hunger

A

low blood sugar levels stimulate appetite

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49
Q

2 areas of the hypothalamus that are of central importance in regulating eating behaviour and thus affect the hunger drive:

A
  1. lateral hypothalamus

2. ventromedial hypothalamus

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50
Q

WHAT PART OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS? acts in part as a feeding centre and, when activated, signals an animal to eat; when the LH is destroyed, the animal initially refuses to eat.

A

lateral hypothalamus

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51
Q

WHAT PART OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS? presumably acts as a satiety centre and, when activated, signals an animal to stop eating; when the area is destroyed, the animal overeats, becoming obese

A

ventromedial hypothalamus

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52
Q

List biological factors that stimulate eating.

A
  • activity in lateral hypothalamus
    • low blood sugar levels
    • increase in insulin
    • stomach contractions
    • empty stomach
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53
Q

List environmental factors that stimulate eating.

A
  • aroma of food
    • sight & taste of appetizing food
    • acquired food preferences
    • being around others who are eating
    • foods high in fat & sugar
    • learned eating habits
    • reaction to boredom, stress, unpleasant emotional state
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54
Q

Both men and women are driven by social motives & among these is THIS

A

NEED FOR ACHIEVEMENT

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55
Q

3 components of emotions.

A
  1. Physical: physiological arousal (internal bodily state accompanying the emotion).
  2. Cognitive: The way we interpret a stimulus or situation.
  3. Behavioural: Outward expression of the emotion (facial expressions, gestures, body posture, tone of voice)
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56
Q

THEORY OF EMOTION: The theory that emotional feelings result when we become aware odour physiological response to an emotion-provoking stimulus (in other words, we are afraid because we tremble).

A

James-Lange theory of emotion

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57
Q

THEORY OF EMOTION: An even causes a physiological and an emotional response simultaneously. One does not cause the other

A

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

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58
Q

ACCORDING TO Schachter’s cognitive theory, WHAT 2 things must happen for a person to feel an emotion:

A
  1. The person must first experience physiological arousal
  2. then there must be a cognitive interpretation or explanation of the physiological arousal so that the person can label it as a specific emotion
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59
Q

THEORY OF EMOTION: claims that an event occurs, a cognitive appraisal is made, and then the emotion and physiological arousal follow.

A

Lazarus cognitive-appraisal

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60
Q

6 primary emotions

A
  1. HAPPINESS
  2. SADNESS
  3. SURPRISE
  4. FEAR
  5. DISGUST
  6. ANGER
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61
Q

Discuss the role of emotion as a form of communication.

A

Emotions enable us to communicate our feelings, intentions, and needs more effectively than just words alone; thus, they make it more likely that others will respond to us.

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62
Q

is the area of study that attempts to explain how the actual, imagined, or implied presence of others influences the thoughts, feelings, and behaviour of individuals.

A

SOCIAL PSYCHOLOGY

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63
Q

The likelihood that an overall impression or judgment of another will be influenced more by the first information received about that person than by information that comes later.

A

PRIMARY EFFECT

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64
Q

Explain the difference between a situational attribution and a dispositional attribution

A

We tend to make DISPOSITIONAL attributions to explain our own behaviour and SITUATIONAL attributions to explain the behaviour of others.

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65
Q

The tendency to overemphasize internal factors and underemphasize situational ones when explaining other people’s behaviour has been named the fundamental attribution error

A

fundamental attribution error

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66
Q

refers to our tendency to use internal attributions for our successes and external attributions for our failures

A

self-serving bias

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67
Q

4 factors that influence attraction

A
  1. Proximity
  2. Reciprocal Liking
  3. Attractiveness
  4. Similarity
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68
Q

changing or adopting a behaviour or an attitude to be consistent with the norms of a group of the expectations of others

A

CONFORMITY

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69
Q

acting in accordance with the wishes, the suggestions, or the direct requests of another person

A

COMPLIANCE

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70
Q

Findings of Milgram’s classic study of obedience:

A

Showed that a large majority of his participants would obey authority even if obedience caused great pain or was life threatening to another person.

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71
Q

Any positive or negative effect on performance due to the presence of others; either an audience effect or a co-action effect.

A

social facilitation

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72
Q

The impact of passive spectators on performance

A

social facilitation - audience effects

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73
Q

The impact on performance caused by the presence of others engaged in the same task.

A

social facilitation - co-action effects

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74
Q

Performance improves on ________ tasks and worsens on _________ tasks

A

EASY, DIFFICULT

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75
Q

The tendency to put forth less effort when working with others on a common task than when working alone

A

SOCIAL LOAFING

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76
Q

THIS is most likely to occur when individual output cannot be identified

A

SOCIAL LOAFING

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77
Q

Tendency of members of a group, after group discussion, to shift toward a more extreme position in whatever direction they were leaning initially.

A

group polarization

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78
Q

The behaviours considered to be appropriate for individuals occupying certain positions within a group.

A

ROLES

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79
Q

Tendency for members of a very cohesive group to feel such pressure to maintain group solidarity and to reach agreement on an issue that they fail to adequately weigh available evidence or to consider objections and alternatives.

A

GROUPTHINK

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80
Q

Explain how groupthink may contribute to poor decision making.

A

When a tightly knit group is more concerned with preserving group solidarity and uniformity than with objectively evaluating all possible alternatives in decision making, individual members may hesitate to voice any dissent. The group may also discredit opposing views from outsiders. Even plans bordering on madness can be hatched and adopted when groupthink prevails.

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81
Q

a relatively stable evaluation of a person, object, situation, or issue that varies along a continuum from negative to positive.

A

ATTITUDE

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82
Q

attitudes have 3 components:

A
  1. BELIEF Component
  2. EMOTIONAL component
  3. ACTION component
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83
Q

COMPONENT OF ATTITUDE: our thoughts and beliefs about the attitudinal object

eg. “Exercise is a good stress reliever.” or “Exercise is good for our health.”

A

BELIEF

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84
Q

COMPONENT OF ATTITUDE: our feelings toward the attitudinal object

eg. “Exercise is fun.”

A

EMOTIONAL

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85
Q

COMPONENT OF ATTITUDE: how we are predisposed to act toward the object

eg. “I exercise every day.” or “I read articles about exercise.”

A

ACTION

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86
Q

Unpleasant state that can occur when people become aware of inconsistencies between their attitudes or between their attitudes and their behaviour.

A

Cognitive dissonance

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87
Q

3 ways to reduce cognitive dissonance:

A
  1. changing an attitude.
  2. changing a behaviour.
  3. explaining away the inconsistency.
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88
Q

a deliberate attempt to influence the attitudes and/or behaviour of another.

A

PERSUASION

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89
Q

4 elements in persuasion:

A
  1. The source of the communication: who is doing the persuading
  2. The audience: who is being persuaded
  3. The message: what is being said.
  4. The medium: the means by which the message is transmitted.
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90
Q

_____________ is to attitude as discrimination is to behaviours.

A

PREJUDICE

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91
Q

Attitudes, usually negative, toward others based on their gender, religion, race, or membership in a particular group.

A

PREJUDICE

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92
Q

Behaviour, usually negative, directed toward others based on their gender, religion, race, or membership in a particular group.

A

DISCRIMINATION

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93
Q

Mental processes that people use to notice, interpret, remember, and apply information about the social world and that enable them to simplify, categorize, and order their world.

A

social cognition

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94
Q

Widely shared beliefs about the characteristic traits, attitudes, and behaviours or members of various social groups; these include the assumption that they are usually all alike.

A

STEREOTYPES

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95
Q

As the number of bystanders at an emergency increases, the probability that the victim will be helped by them decreases, and the help, if given, is likely to be delayed.

A

bystander effect

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96
Q

behaviours that benefit others, such as helping, cooperation, and sympathy

A

prosocial behaviour

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97
Q

When does pro-social behaviour occur.

A

People are more likely to receive help if they are physically attractive, if they are perceived by potential helpers as similar to them, and if they are not considered responsible for their plight. Potential helpers are more likely to help if they have specialized training in first aid or police work, if they are not in a hurry, if they have been exposed to a helpful model, if they are in a positive mood and if the weather is good.

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98
Q

claims that human beings, along with other animal species, are genetically programmed for aggressive behaviour.

A

INSTINCT THEORY

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99
Q

Interference with the attainment of a goal or the blocking of an impulse.

A

Frustration

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100
Q

hypothesis that frustration produces aggression.

A

Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis

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101
Q

The social learning theory of aggression emphasizes:

A
  • aggressive responses are learned from the family, the subculture, and the media.
  • aggressive responses are learned through modelling.
  • when aggressive responses are reinforced, they are more likely to continue.
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102
Q

The 23rd pair of chromosome

A

sex chromosomes

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103
Q

A gene that is expressed in the individual

A

dominant trait

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104
Q

Rod-shaped structures, found in the nuclei of body cells, that contain all the genes and carry all the hereditary information

A

chromosome

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105
Q

Within the chromosomes, the segments of DNA that are the basic units for the transmission of hereditary traits.

A

gene

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106
Q

Genes are segments of this located on each of the chromosomes

A

DNA

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107
Q

It carries the genes that determine one’s sex and primary and secondary sex characteristics

A

sex chromosome

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108
Q

A gene that will not be expressed if paired with a dominant gene, but will be expressed if paired with another recessive gene

A

recessive trait

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109
Q

The biological blueprint that determines and directs the transmission of all of our heredity traits

A

gene

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110
Q

In humans, genes are located on how many pairs of chromosomes?

 a) 22
 b) 23
 c) 44
 d) 46
A

b) 23

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111
Q

Twenty-two pairs of chromosomes are called ______________ and the 23rd pair is called _________.

 a) complete; partial
 b) sex chromosomes; autosomes
 c) autosomes; sex chromosomes
 d) X;Y
A

c) autosomes; sex chromosomes

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112
Q

Sperm cells and the mature egg cells each have ______ single chromosomes.

 a) 22
 b) 23
 c) 44
 d) 46
A

b) 23

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113
Q

At conception, the sperm adds its _______ single chromosome to the _______ of the egg. This union forms a single cell called a __________ , which has the full _______ chromosomes (23 pairs), which in turn contains about _________ genes-the genetic material needed to make a human being.

A
23
23
zygote
46
30,000
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114
Q

Harmful agents in the prenatal environment that can have a negative impact on prenatal development and even cause birth defects.

A

Teratogens

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115
Q

A period that is so important to development that a harmful environmental influence can keep a bodily structure or behaviour from developing normally.

A

critical period

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116
Q

Although physical abnormalities are always possible, exposure to risks during the ______ trimester of pregnancy-the fourth, fifth, and sixth months-is likely to result in _________ and ___________ impairment.

A

second
intellectual
social

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117
Q

Many drugs cross the _________ and directly affect the embryo or fetus.

A

Many drugs cross the PLACENTAL BARRIER and directly affect the embryo or fetus.

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118
Q

WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
HEROIN, COCAINE & CRACK

A

miscarriage, prematurity, low birth weight, physical defects and fetal death.

119
Q

WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
ALCOHOL

A

altered brain development, fetal alcohol spectrum disorder, mentally disabled, abnormally small heads with wide-set eyes, short nose and other physical abnormalities; hyperactivity, behavioural abnormalities

120
Q

WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
SMOKING

A

premature, low birth weight, spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, infant mortality, sudden infant death syndrome.

121
Q

WHAT ARE THE negative outcomes for the developing infant linked to the following:
RUBELLA

A

physical and mental abnormalities

122
Q

newborn infant up to one month old.

A

neonate

123
Q

Inborn, unlearned, automatic responses to certain environmental stimuli (swallowing, coughing, blinking, sucking, grasping)

A

reflexes

124
Q

4 important behaviours that newborns can perform right way.

A

Sucking, swallowing, coughing, and blinking

125
Q

Which of the following explains the importance of reflexes?

 a) Reflexes are merely remnants of our evolutionary past and have little importance.
 b) Reflexes provide ready-made behaviours that ensure the survival of newborns.
 c) Reflexes govern all our behaviour.
 d) Reflexes exist due to learned behaviours, and thus they indicate how well our learning mechanisms are working.
A

b) Reflexes provide ready-made behaviours that ensure the survival of newborns.

126
Q

Some of the changes in physical and motor development are due to learning and others are due to _______________ .

A

maturation

127
Q

MAJOR DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES: sitting, standing, and walking; physical and motor development proceeds from the head downward to the trunk and legs, so babies lift their heads before they sit, and sit before they walk, etc.

A

infancy

128
Q

MAJOR DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES: ejaculation, menarche. Adolescence begins with the onset of puberty–biological changes characterized by a period of rapid physical growth and change that culminates in sexual maturity.

A

puberty

129
Q

MAJOR DEVELOPMENTAL MILESTONES: Menopause–cessation of menstruation; men experience a gradual decline in their testosterone levels.

A

middle age

130
Q

Girls: breasts and hips; boys: voice deepens and facial and chest hair.

A

secondary sex characteristiCS

131
Q

____________ ___________ formulated a comprehensive theory that systematically describes and explains how intellect develops.

A

Jean Piaget

132
Q

Each stage of cognitive development reflects a:

A

qualitatively different way of reasoning and understanding the world.

133
Q

Which statement reflects Piaget’s thinking about cognitive stages?

 a) All people pass through the same stages but not necessarily in the same order.
 b) All people progress through the stages in the same order but not at the same rate.
 c) All people progress through the stages in the same order and at the same rate.
 d) Very bright children sometimes skip stages.
A

b) All people progress through the stages in the same order but not at the same rate.

134
Q

According to Piaget, cognitive development begins with a few basic _____________ .

A

schemas

135
Q

Piaget’s term for a cognitive structure or concept used to identify and interpret information

A

SCHEMA

136
Q

The process by which new objects, events, experiences, or pieces of information are incorporated into existing schemas

A

ASSIMILATION

137
Q

The process by which existing schemas are modified and new schemas are created to incorporate new objects, events, experiences, or information

A

ACCOMMODATION

138
Q

The major achievement of the sensorimotor stage is the development of object permanence , which is the:

A

realization that objects (including people) continue to exist even when they are out of sight .

139
Q

Not all people attain full formal-operational thinking and those who do attain it usually apply it only in those areas where they are not proficient.

 a) True
 b) False
A

F

140
Q

Every one of us is born into a society. To function effectively and comfortably within that society, we must come to know the patterns of behaviour that it considers desirable and appropriate. The process of learning socially acceptable behaviours, attitudes, and values is called _______________ .

A

SOCIALIZATION

141
Q

Which factor did Erikson not stress as playing a major role in an individual’s personality development:

 a) the parents
 b) the individual
 c) the society
 d) the genetic make-up of the individual
A

a) the parents

142
Q

Erik Erikson proposed a theory that emphasizes the role of _________ __________ on human development throughout the lifespan.

A

social forces

143
Q

According to Erikson, if the basic conflict of a given stage is not resolved satisfactorily, the individual:

 a) will not enter the next stage
 b) will acquire the unhealthy basic attitude associated with the stage, which will adversely affect development at the next stage.
 c) will be permanently damaged regardless of future experiences
 d) will be fixed at that stage.
A

b) will acquire the unhealthy basic attitude associated with the stage, which will adversely affect development at the next stage.

144
Q

fear and distress when the parent leaves them with another caretaker

A

separation anxiety

145
Q

Virtually all infants will develop an attachment to a caregiver by age _______ .

A

two

146
Q

What are the four attachment patterns as proposed by Mary Ainsworth in her classic study of mother-child attachment?

 a) tight, loose, fragmented, solid
 b) reserved, fearful, schema, conceptual
 c) dependent, independent, marginal, main
 d) secure, resistant, avoidant, disorganized/disoriented
A

d) secure, resistant, avoidant, disorganized/disoriented

147
Q

Infants experience the world through their senses, actions, and body movements. A the end of this stage, toddlers develop the concept of object permanence and can mentally represent objects in their absence.

A

Sensorimotor BIRTH TO AGE 2

148
Q

Children are able to represent objects and events mentally with words and images. They can engage in imaginary play, using one object to represent another. Their thinking is dominated by their perceptions, and they are unable to consider more than one characteristic of an object at the same time. Their thinking is egocentric–that is, they fail to consider the perspective of others.

A

Preoperational AGE 2 TO 7

149
Q

Children at this stage become able to think logically in concrete situations. They acquire the concepts of conservation and reversibility, and can order objects in a series and classify them according to multiple dimensions.

A

Concrete Operational AGE 7 TO 11 OR 12

150
Q

At this stage, adolescents learn to think logically in abstract situations, learn to test hypotheses systematically, and become interested in the world of ideas. Not all people attain ill formal operational thinking.

A

Formal Operational 11 OR 12 AND BEYOND

151
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Infant learns to trust or mistrust depending on the degree and regularity of care, love, and affection from mother or primary caregiver.

A

Trust vs. mistrust BIRTH TO 12 MTHS

152
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Children learn to express their will and independence, to exercise some control, and to make choices. I font, they experience shame and doubt.

A

Autonomy vs. shame and doubt AGE 1 TO 3

153
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Children begin to initiate activities, to plan and undertake tasks, and to enjoy developing motor and other abilities. If not allowed to initiate or if made to feel stupid and a nuisance, they may develop a sense of guilt.

A

Initiative vs. guilt AGE 3 TO 6

154
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Children develop industriousness and feel pride in accomplishing tasks, making things, and doing things. If not encouraged, or if rebuffed by parents and teachers, they may develop a sense of inferiority.

A

Industry vs. inferiority AGES 6 TO PUBERTY

155
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Adolescents must make the transition from childhood to adulthood, establish an identity, develop a sense of self, and consider a future occupational identity. Otherwise, role confusion can result.

A

Identity vs. role confusion ADOLESCENCE

156
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Young adults must develop intimacy–the ability to share with, care for, and commit themselves to another person. Avoiding intimacy brings a sense of isolation.

A

Intimacy vs. isolation YOUNG ADULTHOOD

157
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Middle-aged people must find some way of contributing to the development of the next generation. Failing this, t hey may become self-absorbed, personally impoverished, and reach a point of stagnation.

A

Generativity vs. stagnation MIDDLE ADULTHOOD

158
Q

Erikson’s psychosocial stages of Development

Individuals review their lives. If they are satisfied and feel a sense of accomplishment, ego integrity will result. If dissatisfied, they will sink into despair.

A

Ego integrity vs. despair LATE ADULTHOOD

159
Q

UNIT 8
Ainsworth found that most infants had a secure attachment.

 a) True
 b) False
A

T

160
Q

Diane Baumrind has identified three parenting styles:

A

a) Authoritarian Parents
b) Authoritative Parents
c) Permissive Parents

161
Q

make the rules, expect unquestioned obedience from their children, punish misbehaviour and value obedience to authority.

A

Authoritarian Parents:

162
Q

set high but realistic and reasonable standards, enforce limits, and at the same time encourage open communication and independence.

A

Authoritative Parents

163
Q

: Although rather warm and supportive, make few rules or demands and usually do not enforce those that are made. Allow children to make their own decisions and control their own behaviour.

A

Permissive Parents

164
Q

expect unquestioned obedience

A

Authoritarian parents

165
Q

set high standards, give rationale for rules.

A

AUTHORITATIVE PARENTS

166
Q

set few rules or limits

A

PERMISSIVE PARENTS

167
Q

Lawrence Kohlberg believed that moral reasoning (our ideas about right and wrong) is closely related to ___________ development and that it, too, evolves in ________ .

A

cognitive

stages

168
Q

Lowest level, based on the physical consequences of an act; “right” is whatever avoids punishment or gains a reward.

A

Preconventional Level:

169
Q

: Second level, in which right and wrong are based on the internalized standards of others; “right” is whatever helps or is approved of by others, or whatever is consistent with the laws of society.

A

Conventional Level

170
Q

: Highest Level, in which moral reasoning involves weighing moral alternatives; “right” is whatever furthers basic human rights.

A

Postconventional Level

171
Q

Children through age _____ usually function at the pre conventional level. A child from age _______ to _______ operates at the conventional level of moral development. The post conventional levels begins after age _______ , at young adulthood, or ____________ .

A
10
10
13
13
NEVER
172
Q

to gain approval or to follow the law.

A

Conventional

173
Q

to ensure that human rights are protected.

A

Postconventional

174
Q

to avoid punishment or gain a reward.

A

Preconventional

175
Q

five stages that people go through in coming to terms with death:

A
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
176
Q

Motivation is defined as a process that:

 a) initiates, directs, and sustains behaviour
 b) changes behaviour as a result of prior experience
 c) reflects physical and behavioural attempts to cope and adapt
 d) is a relatively stable personality tendency
A

a) initiates, directs, and sustains behaviour

177
Q

At any given time, our behaviour may be explained by one or a combination of motives , which are:

A

needs or desires that energize and direct behaviour toward a goal.

178
Q

The desire to perform an act because it is satisfying or pleasurable in and of itself.

A

intrinsic motivation

179
Q

The desire to perform an act in order to gain a reward or to avoid an undesirable consequence.

A

extrinsic motivation

180
Q

An _____________ is an inborn, unlearned, fixed pattern of behaviour that is characteristic of an entire species.

A

instinct

181
Q

According to Clark Hull, all living organisms have certain biological needs that must be met if they are to survive. This major attempt to explain motivation is the _______-__________ theory.

A

drive-education

182
Q

: A theory of motivation suggesting that a need creates an unpleasant state of arousal or tension called a drive, which impels the organism to engage in behaviour that will satisfy the need and reduce tension.

A

drive-reduction theory

183
Q

: A state of tension or arousal brought about by an underlying need, which motivates one to engage in behaviour that will satisfy the need and reduce the tension.

A

drive

184
Q

: The tendency of the body to maintain a balanced internal state with regard to body temperature, blood sugar, water, oxygen level, and so forth to ensure physical survival.

A

homeostasis

185
Q

Drive-reduction theory assumes that various motives like hunger and thirst have in common the fact that they:

 a) are aroused by external stimuli
 b) are unpleasant sensations we want to reduce or eliminate
 c) cause us to behave in ways that increase our need level
 d) are learned reactions
A

b) are unpleasant sensations we want to reduce or eliminate

186
Q

______________ is a state of alertness and mental and physical activation .

A

Arousal

187
Q

____________ theory suggests that the aim of motivation is to maintain an optimal level of arousal .

A

Arousal

188
Q

According to arousal theory of motivation, if arousal is _________ than the optimal level, we do something to ______________ it; if arousal exceeds the optimal level, we seek to ____________ it.

A

less
stimulate
reduce

189
Q

Psychologists once believed that people generally felt better when their arousal level was ___________ . But current theories suggest that people:

A

moderate

differ in the levee of arousal they prefer .

190
Q

: Two people fight because of their aggressive instinct.

A

Instinct Theory

191
Q

: A person eats to reduce hunger.

A

Drive-reduction Theory

192
Q

: A person climbs a mountain for excitement; a person listens to classical music for relaxation

A

Arousal Theory

193
Q

Motives that cause us to increase stimulation and that appear to be unlearned (ex: curiosity and the need to explore, manipulate objects, and play).

A

stimulus motives.

194
Q

Which of the following suggests that performance on tasks is best when arousal levels are appropriate to the difficulty of the task?

 a) Instinctual theory of motivation.
 b) James-Lange theory
 c) Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs
 d) The Yerkes-Dodson Law
A

d) The Yerkes-Dodson Law

195
Q

State the level of arousal appropriate for the following:

 a)     simple tasks:
A

Relatively high

196
Q

State the level of arousal appropriate for the following:

b) Tasks of moderate difficulty:

A

moderate

197
Q

State the level of arousal appropriate for the following:

c) Complex or difficult tasks:

A

lower

198
Q

Maslow believed that lower order needs must be adequately satisfied before:

A

higher ones can be considered

199
Q

MASLOW’S HIERARCHY OF NEEDS

A
  1. PHYSIOLOGICAL
  2. SAFETY
  3. LOVE & BELONGING
  4. ESTEEM
  5. SELF-ACTUALIZATION
200
Q

Two of the most important primary drives that direct motivation are ________ and _________ .

A

thirst

HUNGER

201
Q

Thirst is a basic _____________ drive. Without any intake of fluids, we can survive only about _____ or ______ days.

A

biological
4
5

202
Q

: occurs when fluid is lost from the body tissues.

A

Extracellular Thirst

203
Q

: involves the loss of water from inside the body cells.

A

Intracellular thirst

204
Q

Researchers have found two areas of the ______________ that are of central importance in regulating eating behaviour and thus affect the hunger drive

A

hypothalamus

205
Q

: acts in part as a feeding centre and, when activated, signals an animal to eat; when the LH is destroyed, the animal initially refuses to eat.

A

Lateral hypothalamus

206
Q

: presumably acts as a satiety centre and, when activated, signals an animal to stop eating; when the area is destroyed, the animal overeats, becoming obese.

A

Ventromedial hypothalamus

207
Q

Cannon and Washburn demonstrated a close correlation between stomach contractions and the ______________ of hunger.

But their discovery does not necessarily mean that sensation of hunger is caused by ___________ ______________ . Additional research has confirmed that humans and other animals continue to experience hunger even when it is impossible for them to _______ stomach contractions .

A

perception
stomach contractions
feel

208
Q

Both men and women are driven by social motives. Among these is the need for __________, defined by Henry Murray as the need “to ____________ something difficult…To overcome obstacles and attain a high standard. To ________ one’s self “

A

achievement
accomplish
excel

209
Q

Atkinson suggests that when we approach any situation, two conflicting factors are operating - our hope for ___________ and our fear of __________

A

success

failure

210
Q

List the three factors that the text claims will determine if a person will strive for a goal:

A
  1. The Strength of your need to achieve
  2. your expectation of success
  3. the incentive value of success or failure at a particular activity
211
Q

A feeling state involving physiological arousal, a cognitive appraisal of the situation arousing the state, and an outward expression of the state.

A

emotion

212
Q

Most people describe ___________ in terms of feeling states; psychologists, however, study ____________ according to their three components.

A

emotions

emotions

213
Q

List and define/describe three components in emotions

A

Physical
Cognitive
Behavioural

214
Q

physiological arousal (internal bodily state accompanying the emotion).

A

Physical:

215
Q

: The way we interpret a stimulus or situation.

A

Cognitive

216
Q

: Outward expression of the emotion (facial expressions, gestures, body posture, tone of voice).

A

Behavioural

217
Q
  • The theory that emotional feelings result when we become aware odour physiological response to an emotion-provoking stimulus (in other words, we are afraid because we tremble).
A

James-Lange theory of emotion.

218
Q

William James suggests that “we feel sorry because we ________ , angry because we _________ , and afraid because we _________ .

A

cry
strike
tremble

219
Q

An early theory of emotion that challenged the _____________ was proposed by Walter Cannon, who claimed that the bodily changes caused by the various emotions are not sufficiently distinct to allow people to distinguish one emotion from another .

A

James-Lange theory

220
Q

An even causes a physiological and an emotional response simultaneously. One does not cause the other

A

Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.

221
Q

Which theory of emotion claims your feeling of emotion (e.g.. fear) occurs at about the same time that you experience physiological arousal (eg. pouring heart) and that one does not cause the other.

 a) Schachter-Singer theory
 b) Cannon-Bard Theory
 c) James-Lange Theory
 d) Instinct Theory
A

b) Cannon-Bard Theory

222
Q

According to the Schachter-Singer theory, what two things must happen for a person to feel an emotion?

A
  1. The person must first experience physiological arousal
  2. cognitive interpretation or explanation of the physiological arousal so that the person can label it as a specific emotion
223
Q

The Lazarus cognitive-appraisal theory claims that an event occurs, a cognitive appraisal is made, and then the ____________ and _____________ __________ follow.

A

emotion

physiological arousal

224
Q

8 basic emotions

A
  1. fear,
  2. anger,
  3. disgust,
  4. surprise,
  5. joy,
  6. happiness,
  7. sadness,
  8. distress
225
Q

Emotions enable us to ____________ our feelings, intentions, and needs more effectively than just words alone; thus, they make it more likely that others will __________ to us.

A

communicate

respond

226
Q

____________ psychology is the area of study that attempts to explain how the actual, imagined, or implied presence of others influences the thoughts, feelings, and behaviour of individuals .

A

Social

227
Q

First impressions are powerful and can colour many of the later ______________ we form about people.

A

impressions

228
Q

Which of the following statements is true of first impressions?

 a) They act as filters for later information
 b) They cannot be changed.
 c) They are usually correct.
 d) They are not particularly important.
A

a) They act as filters for later information

229
Q

The likelihood that an overall impression or judgment of another will be influenced more by the first information received about that person than by information that comes later

A

primary effect

230
Q

an inference about the cause of our own or another’s behaviour.

A

attributions

231
Q

Attribution deals with the question of:

a) why we and others act the way we do.
b) how we can best achieve our goals.
c) what the consequences of our actions will be.
d) who our best choices for friends are.

A

a) why we and others act the way we do.

232
Q

We tend to make ______ attributions to explain our own behaviour and _______ attributions to explain the behaviour of others.

 a) situational; situational
 b) situational; dispositional
 c) dispositional; situational
 d) dispositional; dispositional
A

c) dispositional; situational

233
Q

Attributing Mike’s poor grade to his lack of ability is a dispositional attribution.

 a) True
 b) False
A

t

234
Q

The tendency to overemphasize internal factors and underemphasize situational ones when explaining other people’s behaviour has been named the ____________ ___________ ______________ .

A

fundamental attribution error

235
Q

Self-serving bias refers to our tendency to use:

 a) situational attributions for our behaviour
 b) internal attributions for our behaviour
 c) internal attributions for our successes and external attributions for our failures
 d) internal attributions for our failures and external attributions for our successes.
A

c) internal attributions for our successes and external attributions for our failures

236
Q

List the four factors that influence attraction.

A

a) Proximity
b) Reciprocal Liking
c) Attractiveness
d) Similarity

237
Q

A major factor in attraction is geographic closeness, also known as ____________.

A

proximity

238
Q

People are usually drawn to those who are more opposite than similar to themselves.

 a) True
 b) False
A

f

239
Q

Which of the following is best supported by research on interpersonal attraction?

 a) Familiarity breeds contempt.
 b) Absence makes the heart grow fonder.
 c) Opposites attract.
 d) Similarities attract.
A

d) Similarities attract.

240
Q

We tend to like people who like us - or who we believe like us.

 a) True
 b) False
A

t

241
Q

Physical attractiveness is a very important factor in initial attraction.

 a) True
 b) False
A

t

242
Q

When people have one trait or quality that we either admire or dislike very much, we often assume that they also have other admirable or negative traits–a phenomenon known as the ____________ effect.

A

halo

243
Q

Changing or adopting a behaviour or an attitude to be consistent with the norms of a group of the expectations of others.

A

conformity

244
Q

The attitudes and standards of behaviour expected of members of a particular group.

A

norms

245
Q

Acting in accordance with the wishes, the suggestions, or the direct requests of another person.

A

compliance

246
Q

This is in place to create a predictable and stable environment.

A

norms

247
Q

Our performance of ____________ can be enhanced or impaired by the mere presence of others, and the decisions we reach as part of a group can be quite different from those we would make when acting alone.

A

tasks

248
Q

: Any positive or negative effect on performance due to the presence of others; either an audience effect or a co-action effect.

A

social facilitation

249
Q

: The impact of passive spectators on performance

A

social facilitation - audience effects

250
Q

: The impact on performance caused by the presence of others engaged in the same task.

A

social facilitation - co-action effects

251
Q

: The tendency to put forth less effort when working with others on a common task than when working alone.

A

social loafing

252
Q

: Tendency of members of a group, after group discussion, to shift toward a more extreme position in whatever direction they were leaning initially.

A

group polarization

253
Q

: Tendency for members of a very cohesive group to feel such pressure to maintain group solidarity and to reach agreement on an issue that they fail to adequately weigh available evidence or to consider objections and alternatives.

A

groupthink

254
Q

: The behaviours considered to be appropriate for individuals occupying certain positions within a group.

A

roles

255
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the effects of social facilitation is true?

 a) Performance improves on all tasks.
 b) Performance worsens on all tasks.
 c) Performance improves on easy tasks and worsens on difficult tasks.
 d) Performance improves on difficult tasks and worsens on easy tasks.
A

c) Performance improves on easy tasks and worsens on difficult tasks.

256
Q

Social loafing is most likely to occur when:

 a) individual output is monitored
 b) individual output is evaluated
 c) a task is challenging
 d) individual output cannot be identified---not sure about this one!!!
A

d) individual output cannot be identified—not sure about this one!!!

257
Q

a relatively stable evaluation of a person, object, situation, or issue that varies along a continuum from negative to positive.

A

attitude

258
Q

Most of our attitudes have three components:

A
  1. Cognitive Component
  2. Emotional component
  3. Behavioural component
259
Q

our thoughts and beliefs about the attitudinal object

A

Cognitive Component

260
Q

our feelings toward the attitudinal object

A

Emotional component

261
Q

how we are predisposed to act toward the object

A

Behavioural component

262
Q

“Exercise is fun.”

A

Emotional component

263
Q

“I read articles about exercise.”

A

Behavioural component

264
Q

“Exercise is good for our health.”

A

Cognitive Component

265
Q

“I exercise every day.”

A

Behavioural component

266
Q

“Exercise is a good stress reliever.”

A

Cognitive Component

267
Q

Some of our attitudes are acquired through first-hand _____________ with people, objects, situations, and issues. Others are acquired _____________.

A

experience

vicariously

268
Q

Unpleasant state that can occur when people become aware of inconsistencies between their attitudes or between their attitudes and their behaviour

A

Cognitive dissonance

269
Q

Which of the following statements would create the most cognitive dissonance?

 a) I bought a Toyota Corolla.  I wish I had a Lexus.
 b) I like Italians,  I don't like Italian food.
 c) I am a honest person.  I cheated on the test.
 d) I should have gotten the job.  I was not hired.
A

c) I am a honest person. I cheated on the test.

270
Q

All of the following are ways to reduce cognitive dissonance except:

 a) changing an attitude.
 b) changing a behaviour.
 c) explaining away the inconsistency.
 d) strengthening the attitude and behaviour.
A

d) strengthening the attitude and behaviour.

271
Q

is a deliberate attempt to influence the attitudes and/or behaviour of another.

A

Persuasion

272
Q

four elements in persuasion.

A

The source of the communication

The audience

The message

The medium

273
Q

Prejudice is to _________ as discrimination is to ____________.

 a) stereotype; conflict
 b) attitude; behaviours
 c) thought; competition
 d) in-group; out-group
A

b) attitude; behaviours

274
Q

Attitudes, usually negative, toward others based on their gender, religion, race, or membership in a particular group.

A

prejudice

275
Q

Behaviour, usually negative, directed toward others based on their gender, religion, race, or membership in a particular group.

A

discrimination:

276
Q

Mental processes that people use to notice, interpret, remember, and apply information about the social world and that enable them to simplify, categorize, and order their world.

A

social cognition:

277
Q

Widely shared beliefs about the characteristic traits, attitudes, and behaviours or members of various social groups; these include the assumption that they are usually all alike.

A

stereotypes

278
Q

As the number of bystanders at an emergency increases, the probability that the victim will be helped by them decreases, and the help, if given, is likely to be delayed.

A

bystander effect

279
Q

The feeling among bystanders at an emergency that the responsibility for helping is shared by the group, so that each individual feels less compelled to act than if he or she alone bore the total responsibility.

A

diffusion of responsibility

280
Q

Behaviours that benefit others, such as helping, cooperation, and sympathy are called _________ ______________.

A

prosocial behaviour

281
Q

____________ is behaviour aimed at helping another, requiring some self-sacrifice, and not designed for personal gain.

A

Altruism

282
Q

People are more likely to receive help if they are physically ___________, if they are perceived by potential helpers as ___________ to them, and if they are not considered responsible for their plight.

A

attractive

similar

283
Q

Potential helpers are more likely to help if they have specialized _____________ in first aid or police work, if they are not in a __________, if they have been exposed to a helpful model, if they are in a positive ____________ and if the weather is _____________.

A

training
hurry
mood
good

284
Q

We humans have a long history of ____________, which is, the intentional infliction of physical or psychological harm on another.

A

aggression

285
Q

One of the earliest explanations of aggression was the ____________ theory.

A

instinct

286
Q

This theory claims that human beings, along with other animal species, are genetically programmed for aggressive behaviour.

A

instinct theory

287
Q

____________ and ___________ are frequently linked. It and others found that alcohol intoxication is particularly likely to lead to aggression in response to ______________.

A

Alcohol
aggression
frustration

288
Q

People who are ______________ commit the majority of murders, spouse beatings, stabbings and instances of physical child abuse.

A

intoxicated

289
Q

Interference with the attainment of a goal or the blocking of an impulse.

A

Frustration

290
Q

hypothesis that frustration produces aggression.

A

Frustration-Aggression Hypothesis

291
Q

According to a leading researcher on aggression, Leonard Berkowitz, aggression in response to frustration is only one special case of a broader phenomenon aggression resulting from ___________ or ___________ events in general.

A

unpleasant

aversive

292
Q

According to Berkowitz and others, what specific aversive events can create aggression?

A

When people are in pain, when they are exposed to loud noise or foul odours and when they are exposed to irritating cigarette smoke. Also, extreme heat.

293
Q

The social learning theory of aggression emphasizes all of the following except:

 a) aggressive responses are learned from the family, the subculture, and the media.
 b) aggressive responses are learned through modelling.
 c) most aggression results from frustration.
 d) when aggressive responses are reinforced, they are more likely to continue.
A

c) most aggression results from frustration.