TEST 3: The Client with Hematologic Health Problems 713 Flashcards
The Client with Red Blood Cell Disorders
1. The nurse is assisting with a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. In which order, from first to
last, should the nurse complete the following tasks?
1. Position the client in a side-lying position.
2. Clean the skin with an antiseptic solution.
3. Verify the client has signed an informed consent.
4. Apply ice to the biopsy site.
The Client with Red Blood Cell Disorders
1.
3. Verify the client has signed an informed consent.
1. Position the client in a side-lying position.
2. Clean the skin with an antiseptic solution.
4. Apply ice to the biopsy site.
First, the nurse must verify that the client has voluntarily signed a consent form before the
procedure begins, and check that the client understands the procedure. The nurse then positions the
client in a side-lying, or lateral decubitus, position with the affected side up. Then the nurse should
clean the skin site and surrounding area with an antiseptic solution such as Betadine before the health
care provider numbs the site and collects the specimen. When the procedure is finished, the nurse
must apply ice to the biopsy site to reduce pain.
CN: Management of care; CL: Synthesize
- A client with iron deficiency anemia is refusing to take the prescribed oral iron medication
because the medication is causing nausea. The nurse should do which of the following? Select all that
apply. - Suggest that the client use ginger when taking the medication.
- Ask the client what is causing the nausea.
- Tell the client to use stool softeners to minimize constipation.
- Offer to administer the medication by an intramuscular injection.
- Suggest that the client take the iron with orange juice.
- 1, 2, 5. Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of oral iron preparations. The nurse
should first ask the client why the client does not want to take the oral medication, and then suggest
ways to decrease the nausea and vomiting. Ginger may help minimize the nausea and the client can try
this remedy and evaluate its effectiveness. Iron should be taken on an empty stomach but can be taken
with orange juice. The client can evaluate if this helps the nausea. Stool softeners should not be used
in clients with iron deficiency anemia. Instead, constipation can be prevented by following a high-
fiber diet. Administering iron intramuscularly is done only if other approaches are not effective.
CN: Health promotion and maintenance; CL: Synthesize
- A client had a mastectomy followed by chemotherapy 6 months ago. She reports that she is
now “unable to concentrate at her card game” and “it seems harder and harder to finish her errands
because of exhaustion.” Based on this information, the nurse should suggest that the client do which of
the following? - Take frequent naps.
- Limit activities.
- Increase fluid intake.
- Avoid contact with others.
- This client is likely experiencing fatigue and should increase her periods of rest. The fatigue
may be caused by anemia from depletion of red blood cells due to the chemotherapy. Asking the client
to limit her activities may cause the client to become withdrawn. The information given does not
support limiting activity. Increasing fluid intake will not reduce the fatigue. The information does notindicate that the client is immunosuppressed and should avoid contact with others.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- This client is likely experiencing fatigue and should increase her periods of rest. The fatigue
- A client is to have a transfusion of packed red blood cells from a designated donor. The client
asks if any diseases can be transmitted by this donor. The nurse should inform the client that which of
the following diseases can be transmitted by a designated donor? Select all that apply. - Epstein-Barr virus.
- Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).3. Cytomegalovirus (CMV).
- Hepatitis A.
- Malaria.
- 1, 2, 3. Using designated donors does not decrease the risk of contracting infectious diseases,
such as the Epstein-Barr virus, HIV, or CMV. Hepatitis A is transmitted by the oral-fecal route, not the
blood route; however, hepatitis B and C can be contracted from a designated donor. Malaria is
transmitted by mosquitoes.
CN: Safety and infection control; CL: Apply
- A client has been admitted with active rectal bleeding, and has been typed and crossmatched
for 2 units of packed red blood cells (RBCs). Within 10 minutes of admission, the client faints when
getting up to go to the bedside commode. The nurse notifies the health care provider, who prescribes
a unit of blood to be administered immediately. The nurse can safely administer which type of blood
for immediate transfusion? - A negative.
- B negative.
- AB negative.
- O negative.
- A routine serology study to confirm compatibility between a blood donor and recipient takes
about 1 hour. In an emergency, O negative RBCs can be safely administered to most clients, which is
why a person with O-negative blood is called a universal donor. The other types of RBCs may cause
an adverse reaction.
CN: Safety and infection control; CL: Apply
- A routine serology study to confirm compatibility between a blood donor and recipient takes
- The nurse is preparing to teach a client with microcytic hypochromic anemia about the diet to
follow after discharge. Which of the following foods should be included in the diet? - Eggs.
- Lettuce.
- Citrus fruits.
- Cheese.
- One of the microcytic, hypochromic anemias is iron deficiency anemia. A rich source of iron
is needed in the diet, and eggs are high in iron. Other foods high in iron include organ and muscle
(dark) meats; shellfish, shrimp, and tuna; enriched, whole-grain, and fortified cereals and breads;
legumes, nuts, dried fruits, and beans; oatmeal; and sweet potatoes. Dark green, leafy vegetables and
citrus fruits are good sources of vitamin C. Cheese is a good source of calcium.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Apply
- One of the microcytic, hypochromic anemias is iron deficiency anemia. A rich source of iron
7. The nurse should instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain the best supply of vitamin B 12 ? 1. Whole grains. 2. Green leafy vegetables. 3. Meats and dairy products. 4. Broccoli and Brussels sprouts.
- Good sources of vitamin B 12 include meats and dairy products. Whole grains are a good
source of thiamine. Green, leafy vegetables are good sources of niacin, folate, and carotenoids
(precursors of vitamin A). Broccoli and Brussels sprouts are good sources of ascorbic acid (vitamin
C).
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Apply
- Good sources of vitamin B 12 include meats and dairy products. Whole grains are a good
- The nurse has just admitted a 35-year-old female client who has a serum vitamin B 12
concentration of 800 pg/mL (590 pmol/L). Which of the following laboratory findings should alert the
nurse to focus the health history to obtain specific information about drug or alcohol use? - Total bilirubin, 0.3 mg/dL (5.1 μmol/L).
- Serum creatinine, 0.5 mg/dL (44.2 μmol/L).
- Hemoglobin, 16 g/dL (160 g/L).
- Folate, 1.5 ng/mL (3.4 nmol/L).
- Normal range of folic acid is 1.8 to 9 ng/mL (4.1 to 20.4 nmol/L), and normal range of
vitamin B 12 is 200 to 900 pg/mL (147.6 to 664 pmol/L). A low folic acid level in the presence of a
normal vitamin B 12 level is indicative of a primary folic acid deficiency anemia. Factors that affect
the absorption of folic acid are drugs such as methotrexate, oral contraceptives, antiseizure drugs, and
alcohol. The total bilirubin, serum creatinine, and hemoglobin values are within normal limits.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- Normal range of folic acid is 1.8 to 9 ng/mL (4.1 to 20.4 nmol/L), and normal range of
- Which of the following lab values should the nurse report to the health care provider when the
client has anemia? - Schilling test result, elevated.
- Intrinsic factor, absent.
- Sedimentation rate, 16 mm/h.
- Red blood cells (RBCs) within normal range.
- The defining characteristic of pernicious anemia, a megaloblastic anemia, is lack of the
intrinsic factor, which results from atrophy of the stomach wall. Without the intrinsic factor, vitamin
B 12 cannot be absorbed in the small intestine and folic acid needs vitamin B 12 for deoxyribonucleic
acid synthesis of RBCs. The gastric analysis is done to determine the primary cause of the anemia. An
elevated excretion of the injected radioactive vitamin B 12 , which is protocol for the first and second
stages of the Schilling test, indicates that the client has the intrinsic factor and can absorb vitamin B 12
in the intestinal tract. A sedimentation rate of 16 mm/h is normal for both men and women and is a
nonspecific test to detect the presence of inflammation; it is not specific to anemias. An RBC value
within the normal range does not indicate an anemia.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- The defining characteristic of pernicious anemia, a megaloblastic anemia, is lack of the
- The nurse devises a teaching plan for the client with aplastic anemia. Which of the following
is the most important concept to teach for health promotion and maintenance? - Eat animal protein and dark green, leafy vegetables every day.
- Avoid exposure to others with acute infections.
- Practice yoga and meditation to decrease stress and anxiety.4. Get 8 hours of sleep at night and take naps during the day.
- Clients with aplastic anemia are severely immunocompromised and at risk for infection and
possible death related to bone marrow suppression and pancytopenia. Strict aseptic technique and
reverse isolation are important measures to prevent infection. Although diet, reduced stress, and rest
are valued in supporting health, the potentially fatal consequence of an acute infection places it as a
priority for teaching the client about health maintenance. Animal meat and dark green leafy
vegetables, good sources of vitamin B 12 and folic acid, should be included in the daily diet. Yoga and
meditation are good complementary therapies to reduce stress. Eight hours of rest and naps are good
for spacing and pacing activity and rest.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- Clients with aplastic anemia are severely immunocompromised and at risk for infection and
- A client had a resection of the terminal ileum 3 years ago. While obtaining a health history
and physical assessment, the nurse finds that the client has weakness, shortness of breath, and a sore
tongue. Which additional information from the client indicates a need for intervention and client
teaching? - “I have been drinking plenty of fluids.”
- “I have been gargling with warm salt water for my sore tongue.”
- “I have three to four loose stools per day.”
- “I take a vitamin B 12 tablet every day.
- Vitamin B 12 combines with intrinsic factor in the stomach and is then carried to the ileum,
where it is absorbed into the bloodstream. In this situation, vitamin B 12 cannot be absorbed
regardless of the amount of oral intake of sources of vitamin B 12 , such as animal protein or vitamin
B 12 tablets. Vitamin B 12 needs to be injected every month because the ileum has been surgically
removed. Replacement of fluids and electrolytes is important when the client has continuous multiple
loose stools on a daily basis. Warm salt water is used to soothe sore mucous membranes. Crohn’s
disease and a small-bowel resection may cause several loose stools a day.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- Vitamin B 12 combines with intrinsic factor in the stomach and is then carried to the ileum,
- A client who follows a vegetarian diet was referred to a dietitian for nutritional counseling
for anemia. Which client outcome indicates that the client does not understand nutritional counseling?
The client: - Adds dried fruit to cereal and baked goods.
- Cooks tomato-based foods in iron pots.
- Drinks coffee or tea with meals.
- Adds vitamin C to all meals.
- Coffee and tea increase gastrointestinal motility and inhibit the absorption of nonheme iron.
Clients are instructed to add dried fruits to dishes at every meal because dried fruits are a nonheme or
nonanimal iron source. Cooking in iron cookware, especially acid-based foods such as tomatoes,
adds iron to the diet. Clients are instructed to add a rich supply of vitamin C to every meal because
the absorption of iron is increased when food with vitamin C or ascorbic acid is consumed.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Evaluate
- Coffee and tea increase gastrointestinal motility and inhibit the absorption of nonheme iron.
- A client was admitted to the hospital with iron deficiency anemia and blood-streaked emesis.
Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask in determining the extent of the client’s
activity intolerance? - “What daily activities were you able to do 6 months ago compared with the present?”
- “How long have you had this problem?”
- “Have you been able to keep up with all your usual activities?”
- “Are you more tired now than you used to be?”
- It is difficult to determine activity intolerance without objectively comparing activities
from one time frame to another. Because iron deficiency anemia can occur gradually and individual
endurance varies, the nurse can best assess the client’s activity tolerance by asking the client to
compare activities 6 months ago and at present. Asking a client how long a problem has existed is a
very open-ended question that allows for too much subjectivity for any definition of the client’s
activity tolerance. Also, the client may not even identify that a “problem” exists. Asking the client
whether he is staying abreast of usual activities addresses whether the tasks were completed, not the
tolerance of the client while the tasks were being completed or the resulting condition of the client
after the tasks were completed. Asking the client if he is more tired now than usual does not address
his activity tolerance. Tiredness is a subjective evaluation and again can be distorted by factors such
as the gradual onset of the anemia or the endurance of the individual.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Analyze
- It is difficult to determine activity intolerance without objectively comparing activities
14. A physician prescribes vitamin B 12 for a client with pernicious anemia. Which sites are appropriate for the nurse to administer vitamin B 12 ? Select all that apply. 1. Median cutaneous. 2. Greater femur trochanter. 3. Acromion muscle. 4. Ventrogluteal. 5. Upper back. 6. Dorsogluteal.
- 4, 6. A client with pernicious anemia has lost the ability to absorb vitamin B 12 either because
of the lack of an acidic gastric environment or the lack of the intrinsic factor. Vitamin B 12 must be
administered by a deep intramuscular route. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal locations are the most
acceptable sites for a deep intramuscular injection. The other sites are not acceptable.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Apply
- Which position would most help to decrease a client’s discomfort when the client’s spouse
injects vitamin B 12 using the ventrogluteal site? - Lying on the side with legs extended.
- Lying on the abdomen with toes pointed inward.
- Leaning over the edge of a low table with hips flexed.
- Standing upright with the feet one shoulder-width apart.
- To promote comfort when injecting at the ventrogluteal site, the position of choice is with
the client lying on the abdomen with toes pointed inward. This positioning promotes muscle
relaxation, which decreases the discomfort of making an injection into a tense muscle. Lying on the
side with legs extended will not provide the greatest muscle relaxation. Leaning over the edge of a
table with the hips flexed and standing upright with the feet apart will increase muscular tension.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Apply
- To promote comfort when injecting at the ventrogluteal site, the position of choice is with
- A client is admitted from the emergency department after falling down a flight of stairs at
home. The client’s vital signs are stable, and the history states that the client had a gastric stapling 2
years ago. The client jokes about being clumsy lately and tripping over things. The nurse should ask
the client which of the following questions? Select all that apply. - “Are you experiencing numbness in your extremities?”2. “How much vitamin B 12 are you getting?”
- “Are you feeling depressed?”
- “Do you feel safe at home?”
- “Are you getting sufficient iron in your diet?”
- 1, 2, 3, 4. The nurse should ask the client about symptoms related to pernicious anemia
because the client had the stomach stapled 2 years ago and shows no history of supplemental vitamin
B 12 . Numbness and tingling relate to a loss of intrinsic factor from the gastric stapling. Intrinsic factor
is necessary for absorption of vitamin B 12 . The nurse should suspect pernicious anemia if the client is
not taking supplemental vitamin B 12 . Other signs and symptoms of pernicious anemia include
cognitive problems and depression. The nurse also should ask about the client’s support at home in
case the fall was not an accident. Pernicious anemia is not related to dietary intake of iron.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Analyze
- A client has fatigue, temperature of 37.5°C, dark bronze skin, and dark urine. Hemoglobin is
9 g/dL (90 g/L); hematocrit is 49 (0.49), and red blood cells are 2.75 million/μL (2.75 × 10 12 /L).
What should the nurse do first? - Initiate an intake and output record.
- Place the client on bed rest.
- Place the client on contact isolation.
- Keep the client out of sunlight.
- The nurse should prepare to start an intake and output record because the client is
exhibiting clinical manifestations of anemia with jaundice and is demonstrating a fluid imbalance.
The client does not need to be on bed rest at this point. The client is not contagious and does not need
to be placed in contact isolation. The changes in the color of the skin and urine are related to the
jaundice and will not be affected by sunlight.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- The nurse should prepare to start an intake and output record because the client is
18. When a client is receiving a cephalosporin, the nurse must monitor the client for which of the following? 1. Drug-induced hemolytic anemia. 2. Purpura. 3. Infectious emboli. 4. Ecchymosis.
- Drug-induced hemolytic anemia is acquired, antibody-mediated, RBC destruction
precipitated by medications, such as cephalosporins, sulfa drugs, rifampin, methyldopa,
procainamide, quinidine, and thiazides. Purpura is a condition with various manifestations
characterized by hemorrhages into the skin, mucous membranes, internal organs, and other tissues.
Infectious emboli are clumps of bacteria present in blood or lymph. Ecchymoses are skin
discolorations due to extravasations of blood into the skin or mucous membranes.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Analyze
- Drug-induced hemolytic anemia is acquired, antibody-mediated, RBC destruction
- A client is to have a Schilling test. The nurse should:
- Administer methylcellulose.
- Start a 24- to 48-hour urine specimen collection.
- Maintain nothing-by-mouth (NPO) status.
- Start a 72-hour stool specimen collection.
- Urinary vitamin B 12 levels are measured after the ingestion of radioactive vitamin B 12 . A
24- to 48-hour urine specimen is collected after administration of an oral dose of radioactively
tagged vitamin B 12 and an injection of nonradioactive vitamin B 12 . In a healthy state of absorption,
excess vitamin B 12 is excreted in the urine; in a malabsorptive state or when the intrinsic factor is
missing, vitamin B 12 is excreted in the feces. Methylcellulose is a bulk-forming agent. Laxatives
interfere with the absorption of vitamin B 12 . The client is NPO 8 to 12 hours before the test but is not
NPO during the test. A stool collection is not a part of the Schilling test. If stool contaminates the
urine collection, the results will be altered.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Analyze
- Urinary vitamin B 12 levels are measured after the ingestion of radioactive vitamin B 12 . A
- A client from a Mediterranean country is admitted with thalassemia, jaundice, splenomegaly,
and hepatomegaly. Which of the following should be the primary focus of nursing care for this client? - Providing activities of daily living on the time schedule of the client’s homeland.
- Offering foods that the client enjoys in order to increase the intake of calories.
- Decreasing cardiac demands by promoting rest.
- Listening to concerns about the hospitalization.
- This client has clinical manifestations of thalassemia major, a disease found in descendants
from the Mediterranean Sea area whose mother and father both possess a gene for thalassemia (ie, the
client is homozygous for the gene). The severe hemolytic anemia causes sequestration of red blood
cells in the spleen and liver, which leads to engorgement of the organs and chronic bone marrowhyperplasia. Rest will decrease the demands on the heart due to the diminished hemoglobin level, a
physiologic concern. The nurse should follow the time schedule of the area in which the client is now
living. The nurse can help the client prescribe preferred foods and listen to concerns, but the main
priority is to decrease oxygen demands.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- This client has clinical manifestations of thalassemia major, a disease found in descendants
- A client with pernicious anemia asks why it is necessary to take vitamin B 12 injections
forever. Which is the nurse’s best response? - “The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the
stomach is not producing sufficient acid.” - “The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an inability to absorb the vitamin because the
stomach is not producing sufficient intrinsic factor.” - “The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an excessive excretion of the vitamin because of
kidney dysfunction.” - “The reason for your vitamin deficiency is an increased requirement for the vitamin because of
rapid red blood cell production.”
- Most clients with pernicious anemia have deficient production of intrinsic factor in the
stomach. Intrinsic factor attaches to the vitamin in the stomach and forms a complex that allows the
vitamin to be absorbed in the small intestine. The stomach is producing enough acid, there is not an
excessive excretion of the vitamin, and there is not a rapid production of red blood cells in this
condition.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Most clients with pernicious anemia have deficient production of intrinsic factor in the
- A woman of African descent had experienced severe palpitations, weakness, and shortness of
breath after taking bacitracin. As a part of the discharge planning, the nurse should evaluate the
client’s knowledge about: - Increased folic acid needs.2. Congenital enzyme deficiency.
- Restricted activity in hot weather.
- Need for blood transfusions.
- This client presented with the typical signs of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
(G6PD)–deficiency anemia. Ten percent of Blacks inherit an X-linked recessive disorder of the
G6PD enzyme in the red blood cell (RBC). When cells with decreased levels of G6PD are exposed
to certain drugs, such as sulfonamides, acetylsalicylic acid, thiazide diuretics, and vitamin K, the
RBC may hemolyze and anemia and jaundice may occur. The reaction is self-limited as soon as the
causative agent is withheld. No further treatment is necessary except counseling to prevent acute
incidence by avoiding exposure to specific drugs. There is no need for increased folic acid, restricted
activity in hot weather, or blood transfusions.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Evaluate
- This client presented with the typical signs of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
- The nurse is assessing a client’s activity tolerance by having the client walk on a treadmill for
5 minutes. Which of the following indicates an abnormal response? - Pulse rate increased by 20 bpm immediately after the activity.
- Respiratory rate decreased by 5 breaths/min.
- Diastolic blood pressure increased by 7 mm Hg.
- Pulse rate within 6 bpm of resting pulse after 3 minutes of rest.
- The normal physiologic response to activity is an increased metabolic rate over the resting
basal rate. The decrease in respiratory rate indicates that the client is not strong enough to complete
the mechanical cycle of respiration needed for gas exchange. The postactivity pulse is expected to
increase immediately after activity but by no more than 50 bpm if it is strenuous activity. The
diastolic blood pressure is expected to rise but by no more than 15 mm Hg. The pulse returns to
within 6 bpm of the resting pulse after 3 minutes of rest.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Evaluate
- The normal physiologic response to activity is an increased metabolic rate over the resting
- In a postoperative client, the hematocrit decreased from 36% (0.36) to 34% (0.34) on the
third day even though the red blood cell (RBC) count and hemoglobin value remained stable at 4.5
million/μL (4.5 × 10 12 /L) and 11.9 g/dL (119 g/L), respectively. The nurse should next: - Check the dressing and drains for frank bleeding.
- Call the physician.
- Continue to monitor vital signs.
- Start oxygen at 2 L/min per nasal cannula.
- The nurse should continue to monitor the client because this value reflects a normal
physiologic response. The physician does not need to be called, and oxygen does not need to be
started based on these laboratory findings. Immediately after surgery, the client’s hematocrit reflects a
falsely high value related to the body’s compensatory response to the stress of sudden loss of fluids
and blood. Activation of the intrinsic pathway and the renin-angiotensin cycle via antidiuretic
hormone produces vasoconstriction and retention of fluid for the first 1 to 2 days postoperatively. By
the second to third day, this response decreases and the client’s hematocrit level is more reflective of
the amount of RBCs in the plasma. Fresh bleeding is a less likely occurrence on the third
postoperative day but is not impossible; however, the nurse should have expected to see a decrease in
the RBC count and hemoglobin value accompanying the hematocrit.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- The nurse should continue to monitor the client because this value reflects a normal
- The nurse is administering packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. The nurse should
first: - Discontinue the IV catheter if a blood transfusion reaction occurs.
- Administer the PRBCs through a percutaneously inserted central catheter line with a 20-gauge
needle. - Flush PRBCs with 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline solution.
- Stay with the client during the first 15 minutes of infusion.
- The most likely time for a blood transfusion reaction to occur is during the first 15 minutes
or first 50 mL of the infusion. If a blood transfusion reaction does occur, it is imperative to keep an
established IV line so that medication can be administered to prevent or treat cardiovascular collapse
in case of anaphylaxis. PRBCs should be administered through a 19-gauge or larger needle; aperipherally inserted central catheter line is not recommended, in order to avoid a slow flow. RBCs
will hemolyze in dextrose or lactated Ringer’s solution and should be infused with only normal saline
solution.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- The most likely time for a blood transfusion reaction to occur is during the first 15 minutes
- The nurse should instruct a young female adult with sickle cell anemia to do which of the
following? Select all that apply. - Drink plenty of fluids when outside in hot weather.
- Avoid being in high altitudes.
- Be aware that since she is homozygous for HbS, she carries the sickle cell trait.
- Know that pregnancy with sickle cell disease increases the risk of a crisis.
- Avoid flying on commercial airlines.
- 1, 2, 4. The nurse should teach the client to drink plenty of fluids to avoid becoming
dehydrated. The client should avoid being in high altitudes, such as mountains above 5,000 feet
(1,524 m), where there is less oxygen in the air, which may precipitate a sickle cell crisis. The nurse
should alert young women with sickle cell anemia that pregnancy increases the risk of a crisis. People
who are homozygous for HbS have sickle cell anemia; the heterozygous form is the sickle cell carrier
trait. A client with sickle cell anemia may fly on commercial airlines; the airplane is pressurized and
has an adequate oxygen level.
CN: Health promotion and maintenance; CL: Synthesize
- The nurse is teaching a client and his family about the client’s new diagnosis of
hemochromatosis. Which of the following details should the nurse include? - Hemochromatosis is an autoimmune disorder that affects the HFE gene.
- Individuals who are heterozygous for hemochromatosis rarely develop the disease.
- Individuals who are homozygous for hemochromatosis are carriers of hemochromatosis.
- Men are at greater risk for hemochromatosis.
- The nurse should teach the client and family that individuals who are heterozygous for
hemochromatosis rarely develop the disease. Men and women are equally at risk for
hemochromatosis, but men are diagnosed earlier because women do not usually have manifestations
until menopause. Hemochromatosis is the most common genetic disorder in Canada and the United
States. Individuals who are homozygous for hemochromatosis received a defective gene from each
parent. Those with homozygous genes may develop the disease.
CN: Health promotion and maintenance; CL: Synthesize
- The nurse should teach the client and family that individuals who are heterozygous for
- A client is having a blood transfusion reaction. The nurse must do the following in what
order of priority from first to last? - Notify the attending physician and blood bank.2. Complete the appropriate Transfusion Reaction Form(s).
- Stop the transfusion.
- Keep the IV open with normal saline infusion.
28.
3. Stop the transfusion.
4. Keep the IV open with normal saline infusion.
1. Notify the attending physician and blood bank.
2. Complete the appropriate Transfusion Reaction Form(s).
When the client is having a blood transfusion reaction, the nurse should first stop the transfusion
and then keep the IV open with normal saline infusion. Next, the nurse should notify the physician and
blood bank, then complete the required form(s) regarding the transfusion reaction.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Which safety measures would be most important to implement when caring for a client who
is receiving 2 units of packed red blood cells (PRBCs)? Select all that apply. - Verify that the ABO and Rh of the 2 units are the same.
- Infuse a unit of PRBCs in less than 4 hours.
- Stop the transfusion if a reaction occurs, but keep the line open.
- Take vital signs every 15 minutes while the unit is transfusing.
- Inspect the blood bag for leaks, abnormal color, and clots.
- Use a 22-gauge catheter for optimal flow of a blood transfusion.
- 2, 3, 5. The American Association of Blood Banks and Canadian Blood Services recommend
that two qualified people, such as two registered nurses, compare the name and number on the
identification bracelet with the tag on the blood bag. Verifying that the two units are the same is not a
recommendation. Rather, the verification is always with the client, not with bags of blood. A unit of
blood should infuse in 4 hours or less to avoid the risk of septicemia since no preservatives are used.
When a blood transfusion reaction occurs, the blood transfusion should be stopped immediately, but
the IV line should be kept open so that emergency medications and fluids can be administered.The unit of PRBCs should be inspected for contamination by looking for leaks, abnormal color,
clots, and excessive air bubbles. When a unit of PRBCs is being transfused, vital signs are assessed
before the transfusion begins, after the first 15 minutes, and then every hour until 1 hour after the
transfusion has been completed. When PRBCs are being administered, a 20-gauge or larger needle is
needed to avoid destroying the red blood cells (RBCs) passing through the lumen and to allow for
maximal flow rate.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- A client who had received 25 mL of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has low back pain and
pruritus. After stopping the infusion, the nurse should take what action next? - Administer prescribed antihistamine and aspirin.
- Collect blood and urine samples and send to the lab.
- Administer prescribed diuretics.
- Administer prescribed vasopressors.
- ABO- and Rh-incompatible blood causes an antigen-antibody reaction that produces
hemolysis or agglutination of red blood cells (RBCs). At the first indication of any sign/symptom of
reaction, the blood transfusion is stopped. Blood and urine samples are obtained from the client and
sent to the lab along with the remaining untransfused blood. Hemoglobin in the urine and blood
samples taken at the time of the reaction provides evidence of a hemolytic blood transfusion reaction.
Antihistamine, aspirin, diuretics, and vasopressors may be administered with different types of
transfusion reactions.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- ABO- and Rh-incompatible blood causes an antigen-antibody reaction that produces
31. A client is to receive epoetin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse assess before giving the injection? 1. Hematocrit. 2. Partial thromboplastin time. 3. Hemoglobin concentration. 4. Prothrombin time.
- Epoetin is a recombinant DNA form of erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of
red blood cells (RBCs) and therefore causes the hematocrit to rise. The elevation in hematocrit
causes an elevation in the blood pressure; therefore, the blood pressure is a vital sign that should be
checked. The partial thromboplastin time, hemoglobin level, and prothrombin time are not monitored
for this drug.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Analyze
- Epoetin is a recombinant DNA form of erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of
- When beginning IV erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should do which of the following? Select
all that apply. - Check the hemoglobin levels before administering subsequent doses.
- Shake the vial thoroughly to mix the concentrated white, milky solution.
- Keep the multidose vial refrigerated between scheduled twice-a-day doses.
- Administer the medication through the IV line without other medications.
- Adjust the initial doses according to the client’s changes in blood pressure.
- Instruct the client to avoid driving and performing hazardous activity during the initial
treatment.
- 4, 5, 6. Erythropoietin is administered to decrease the need for blood transfusions by
stimulating red blood cell (RBC) production. The medication should be administered through the IV
line without other medications to avoid a reaction. The hematocrit, a simple measurement of the
percentage of RBCs in the total blood volume, is used to monitor this therapy. When initiating IV
erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should monitor the hematocrit level so that it rises no more than four
points in any 2-week period. In addition, the initial doses of erythropoietin are adjusted according to
the client’s changes in blood pressure. The nurse should tell the client to avoid driving and performing
hazardous activity during the initial treatment due to possible dizziness and headaches secondary to
the adverse effect of hypertension. The hematocrit, not the hemoglobin level, is used for monitoring
the effectiveness of therapy. The vial of erythropoietin should not be shaken because it may be
biologically inactive. The solution should not be used if it is discolored. The nurse should not re-
enter the vial once it has been entered; it is a one-time use vial. All remaining erythropoietin should
be discarded since it does not contain preservatives.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- A client is afraid of receiving vitamin B 12 injections because of potential toxic reactions.
Which is the nurse’s best response to relieve these fears? - “Vitamin B 12 will cause ringing in the ears before a toxic level is reached.”
- “Vitamin B 12 may cause a very mild rash initially.”
- “Vitamin B 12 cause mild nausea but nothing toxic.”
- “Vitamin B 12 is generally free of toxicity because it is water soluble.”
- Vitamin B 12 is a water-soluble vitamin. When water-soluble vitamins are taken in excess of
the body’s needs, they are filtered through the kidneys and excreted. Vitamin B 12 is considered to be
nontoxic. Adverse reactions that have occurred are believed to be related to impurities or to the
preservative in B 12 preparations. Ringing in the ears, rash, and nausea are not considered to be
related to vitamin B 12 administration.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- Vitamin B 12 is a water-soluble vitamin. When water-soluble vitamins are taken in excess of
- A client with microcytic anemia is having trouble selecting food from the hospital menu.
Which food is best for the nurse to suggest for satisfying the client’s nutritional needs? - Egg yolks.
- Brown rice.
- Vegetables.
- Tea.
- Brown rice is a source of iron from plant sources (nonheme iron). Other sources of
nonheme iron are whole-grain cereals and breads, dark green vegetables, legumes, nuts, dried fruits
(apricots, raisins, dates), oatmeal, and sweet potatoes. Egg yolks have iron but it is not as well
absorbed as iron from other sources. Vegetables are a good source of vitamins that may facilitate iron
absorption. Tea contains tannin, which combines with nonheme iron, preventing its absorption.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Apply
- Brown rice is a source of iron from plant sources (nonheme iron). Other sources of
- A client with macrocytic anemia has a burn on the foot and reports watching television while
lying on a heating pad. Which action should be the nurse’s first response? - Assess for potential abuse.
- Check for diminished sensations.
- Document the findings.
- Clean and dress the area.
- Macrocytic anemias can result from deficiencies in vitamin B 12 or ascorbic acid. Only
vitamin B 12 deficiency causes diminished sensations of peripheral nerve endings. The nurse should
assess for peripheral neuropathy and instruct the client in self-care activities for diminished sensation
to heat and pain (eg, using a heating pad at a lower heat setting, making frequent checks to protect
against skin trauma). The burn could be related to abuse, but this conclusion would require more
supporting data. The findings should be documented, but the nurse would want to address the client’s
sensations first. The decision of how to treat the burn should be determined by the physician.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- Macrocytic anemias can result from deficiencies in vitamin B 12 or ascorbic acid. Only
- Which of the following is a late symptom of polycythemia vera?
- Headache.
- Dizziness.
- Pruritus.
- Shortness of breath.
- Pruritus is a late symptom that results from abnormal histamine metabolism. Headache and
dizziness are early symptoms from engorged veins. Shortness of breath is an early symptom from
congested mucous membranes and ineffective gas exchange.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- Pruritus is a late symptom that results from abnormal histamine metabolism. Headache and
- The nurse is teaching a client with polycythemia vera about potential complications from this
disease. Which manifestations should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan? Select all that
apply. - Hearing loss.
- Visual disturbance.
- Headache.
- Orthopnea.
- Gout.
- Weight loss.
- 2, 3, 4, 5. Polycythemia vera, a condition in which too many red blood cells (RBCs) are
produced in the blood serum, can lead to an increase in the hematocrit and hypervolemia,
hyperviscosity, and hypertension. Subsequently, the client can experience dizziness, tinnitus, visual
disturbances, headaches, or a feeling of fullness in the head. The client may also experience
cardiovascular symptoms such as heart failure (shortness of breath and orthopnea) and increased
clotting time or symptoms of an increased uric acid level such as painful, swollen joints (usually the
big toe). Hearing loss and weight loss are not manifestations associated with polycythemia vera.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Create
- When a client is diagnosed with aplastic anemia, the nurse should assess the client for
changes in which of the following physiologic functions? - Bleeding tendencies.
- Intake and output.
- Peripheral sensation.
- Bowel function.
- Aplastic anemia decreases the bone marrow production of red blood cells (RBCs), white
blood cells, and platelets. The client is at risk for bruising and bleeding tendencies. A change in the
client’s intake and output is important, but assessment for the potential for bleeding takes priority.
Change in the peripheral nervous system is a priority problem specific to clients with vitamin B 12
deficiency. Change in bowel function is not associated with aplastic anemia.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Aplastic anemia decreases the bone marrow production of red blood cells (RBCs), white
The Client with Platelet Disorders
39. A health care provider prescribes 0.5 mg of protamine sulfate for a client who is showing
signs of bleeding after receiving a 100-unit dose of heparin. The nurse should expect the effects of the
protamine sulfate to be noted in which of the following time frames?
1. 5 minutes.
2. 10 minutes.
3. 20 minutes.
4. 30 minutes.
The Client with Platelet Disorders
39. 3. A dose of 0.5 mg of protamine sulfate reverses a 100-unit dose of heparin within 20
minutes. The nurse should administer protamine sulfate by IV push slowly to avoid adverse effects,
such as hypotension, dyspnea, bradycardia, and anaphylaxis.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Evaluate
- The nurse is to administer subcutaneous heparin to an older adult. What facts should the nurse
keep in mind when administering this dose? Select all that apply. - It should be administered in the anterior area of the iliac crest.
- The onset is immediate.
- Use a 27G, 5/8′′ (1.6-cm) needle.
- Cephalosporin potentiates the effects of heparin.
- Double check the dose with another nurse.
- 1, 3, 4, 5. Older adults may have little subcutaneous tissue, so the area around the anterior
iliac crest is a suitable site for these clients. The nurse should use a 27G, 5/8′′ (1.6-cm) needle.
Cephalosporin and penicillin potentiate the effects of heparin. Two nurses should check the dosebecause a dose error could cause hemorrhage. The onset of heparin is not immediate when given
subcutaneously.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Apply
- The nurse should instruct the client with a platelet count of 31,000/μL (31 × 10 9 /L) to:
- Pad sharp surfaces to avoid minor trauma when walking.
- Assess for spontaneous petechiae in the extremities.
- Keep the room darkened.
- Check for blood in the urine.
- A client with a platelet count of 30,000 to 50,000/μL (30 to 50 × 10 9 /L) is susceptible to
bruising with minor trauma. Padding areas that the client might bump, scratch, or hit may help prevent
minor trauma. A platelet count of 15,000 to 30,000/μL (15 to 30 × 10 9 /L) may result in spontaneous
petechiae and bruising, especially on the extremities. Padding measures would still be used, but the
focus would be on assessing for new spontaneous petechiae. Keeping the room dark does not help the
client with a low platelet count. With a count below 20,000/μL (20 × 10 9 /L), the client is at risk for
spontaneous bleeding from the mucous membranes and intracranial bleeding.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- A client with a platelet count of 30,000 to 50,000/μL (30 to 50 × 10 9 /L) is susceptible to
- A client with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus was admitted with a severe viral
respiratory tract infection and diffuse petechiae. Based on these data, it is most important that the
nurse further evaluate the client’s recent: - Quality and quantity of food intake.
- Type and amount of fluid intake.
- Weakness, fatigue, and ability to get around.
- Length and amount of menstrual flow.
- A recent viral infection in a female client between the ages of 20 and 30 with a history of
systemic lupus erythematosus and an insidious onset of diffuse petechiae are hallmarks of idiopathic
thrombocytopenic purpura. It is important to ask whether the client’s recent menses have been
lengthened or are heavier. Determining her ability to clot can help determine her risk of increased
bleeding tendency until a platelet count is drawn. Petechiae are not caused by poor nutrition. Because
of poor food and fluid intake or weakness and fatigue, the client may have gotten bruises from falling
or bumping into things, but not petechiae.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Analyze
- A recent viral infection in a female client between the ages of 20 and 30 with a history of
43. When a client with thrombocytopenia has a severe headache, the nurse interprets that this may indicate which of the following? 1. Stress of the disease. 2. Cerebral bleeding. 3. Migraine headache. 4. Sinus congestion.
- When the platelet count is very low, red blood cells (RBCs) leak out of the blood vessels
and into the tissue. If the blood pressure is elevated and the platelet count falls to less than 15,000/μL
(15 × 10 9 /L), internal bleeding in the brain can occur. A severe headache occurs from meningeal
irritation when blood leaks out of the cerebral vasculature. When a client has thrombocytopenia, the
nurse should always assess for cerebral bleeding by checking vital signs and performing neurologic
checks. Headaches can be caused by stress, migraines, and sinus congestion. However, the concern
here is the risk of internal bleeding into the brain.
CN: Health promotion and maintenance; CL: Analyze
- When the platelet count is very low, red blood cells (RBCs) leak out of the blood vessels
- The nurse evaluates that the client correctly understands how to report signs and symptoms of
bleeding when the client makes which of the following statements? - “Petechiae are large, red skin bruises.”
- “Ecchymoses are large, purple skin bruises.”
- “Purpura is an open cut on the skin.”
- “Abrasions are small pinpoint red dots on the skin.”
- Large, purplish skin lesions caused by hemorrhage are called ecchymoses. Small, flat, red
pinpoint lesions are petechiae. Numerous petechiae result in a reddish, bruised appearance called
purpura. An abrasion is a wound caused by scraping.
CN: Health promotion and maintenance; CL: Evaluate
- Large, purplish skin lesions caused by hemorrhage are called ecchymoses. Small, flat, red
- The nurse should instruct the client with a platelet count of less than 150,000/μL (150 ×10 9 /L) to avoid which of the following activities?
- Ambulation.
- Valsalva’s maneuver.
- Visiting with children.
- Semi-Fowler’s position.
- When the platelet count is less than 150,000/μL (150 × 10 9 /L), prolonged bleeding can
occur from trauma, injury, or straining such as with Valsalva’s maneuver. Clients should avoid any
activity that causes straining to evacuate the bowel. Clients can ambulate, but pointed or sharp
surfaces should be padded. Clients can visit with their families but should avoid any scratches,
bumps, or scrapes. Clients can sit in a semi-Fowler’s position but should change positions to promote
circulation and check for petechiae.
CN: Health promotion and maintenance; CL: Synthesize
- When the platelet count is less than 150,000/μL (150 × 10 9 /L), prolonged bleeding can
- A client who is taking acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) caplets develops prolonged bleeding from
a superficial skin injury on the forearm. The nurse should tell the client to do which of the following
first? - Place the forearm under a running stream of lukewarm water.
- Pat the injury with a dry washcloth.
- Wrap the entire forearm from the wrist to the elbow.
- Apply an ice pack for 20 minutes.
- Aspirin has an antiplatelet effect, and bleeding time can consequently be prolonged.
Intermittent use of ice packs to the site may stop the bleeding; ice causes blood vessels tovasoconstrict. Use of lukewarm water, patting the injury, and wrapping the entire forearm do not
promote vasoconstriction to stop bleeding.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- Aspirin has an antiplatelet effect, and bleeding time can consequently be prolonged.
- A client’s bone marrow report reveals normal stem cells and precursors of platelets
(megakaryocytes) in the presence of decreased circulating platelets. The nurse recognizes a
knowledge deficit when the client makes which of the following statements? - “I need to stop flossing and throw away my hard toothbrush.”
- “I am glad that my report turned out normal.”
- “Now I know why I have all these bruises.”
- “I shouldn’t jump off that last step anymore.”
- The client who states that the test results are normal has only heard that the bone marrow is
functioning. The etiology is in the destruction of circulating platelets. Further tests must be completed
to determine the cause (eg, a coating of the platelets with antibodies that are seen as foreign bodies).
The bone marrow result does rule out other potential diagnoses such as anemia, leukemia, or
myeloproliferative disorders that involve bone marrow depression. The client needs to stop flossing
and throw away his hard toothbrush, which can lead to bleeding of the gums. The destruction of the
circulating platelets accounts for the easy bruising and the need to protect oneself from further
bruising. The client should not jump or increase exertion of joints, which may lead to bleeding in the
joints and joint pain.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Evaluate
- The client who states that the test results are normal has only heard that the bone marrow is