TEST 11: The Client with Neurologic Health Problems Flashcards
The Client with a Head Injury
1. The nurse has established a goal to maintain intracranial pressure (ICP) within the normal
range for a client who had a craniotomy 12 hours ago. What should the nurse do? Select all that apply.
1. Encourage the client to cough to expectorate secretions.
2. Elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees.
3. Contact the health care provider if ICP is greater than 20 mm Hg.
4. Monitor neurologic status using the Glasgow Coma Scale.
5. Stimulate the client with active range-of-motion exercises.
The Client with a Head Injury
1. 2, 3, 4. The nurse should maintain ICP by elevating the head of the bed and monitoring
neurologic status. An ICP greater than 20 mm Hg indicates increased ICP, and the nurse should notify
the health care provider. Coughing and range-of-motion exercises will increase ICP and should be
avoided in the early postoperative stage.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- The nurse is monitoring a client with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). What indicators
are the most critical for the nurse to monitor? Select all that apply. - Systolic blood pressure.
- Urine output.
- Breath sounds.
- Cerebral perfusion pressure.
- Level of pain.
- 1, 4. The nurse must monitor the systolic and diastolic blood pressure to obtain the mean
arterial pressure (MAP), which represents the pressure needed for each cardiac cycle to perfuse the
brain. The nurse must also monitor the cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is obtained from the
ICP and the MAP. The nurse should also monitor urine output, respirations, and pain; however,
crucial measurements needed to maintain CPP are ICP and MAP. When ICP equals MAP, there is no
CPP.
CN: Management of care; CL: Analyze
A nurse is assessing a client with increasing intracranial pressure. What is a client’s mean arterial
pressure (MAP) in mm Hg when blood pressure (BP) is 120/60 mm Hg?
__________________________ mm Hg.
- 80 mm Hg
MAP = SBP + (2XDBP) ] / 3
MAP = [120 + (2X 60 )] / 3
MAP = 240 / 3 = 80
To obtain the MAP, use this formula:
CN: Management of care; CL: Apply
- A client with a contusion has been admitted for observation following a motor vehicle
accident when he was driving his wife to the hospital to deliver their child. The next morning, instead
of asking about his wife and baby, he asked to see the football game on television that he thinks is
starting in 5 minutes. He is agitated because the nurse will not turn on the television. What should the
nurse do next? Select all that apply. - Find a television so the client can view the football game.
- Determine if the client’s pupils are equal and react to light.
- Ask the client if he has a headache.
- Arrange for the client to be with his wife and baby.
- Administer a sedative.
- 2, 3. The nurse should determine if the client’s pupils are equal and react to light, and ask the
client if he has a headache. Confusion, agitation, and restlessness are subtle clinical manifestations of
increased intracranial pressure (ICP). At this time, it is not appropriate for the nurse to find a
television or arrange for the client to see his wife and baby. Administering a sedative at this time will
obscure assessment of increased ICP.
CN: Management of care; CL: Synthesize
- The nurse is assessing the level of consciousness in a client with a head injury who has been
unresponsive for the last 8 hours. Using the Glasgow Coma Scale the nurse notes that the client opens
the eyes only as a response to pain, responds with sounds that are not understandable, and has
abnormal extension of the extremities. The nurse should: - Attempt to arouse the client.
- Reposition the client with the extremities in normal alignment.
- Chart the client’s level of consciousness as coma.
- Notify the physician.
- The client has a score of 6 (eye opening to pain = 2; verbal response, incomprehensible
sounds = 2; best motor response, abnormal extension = 2); a score less than 7 is indicative of coma.
While the nurse should continue to speak to the client, at this time the client will not be able to be
aroused. The nurse should continue to provide skin care and appropriate alignment, but the client will
continue to have a motor response of limb extension. It is not necessary to notify the physician as this
assessment does not represent a significant change in neurological status.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- The client has a score of 6 (eye opening to pain = 2; verbal response, incomprehensible
- An unconscious client with multiple injuries arrives in the emergency department. Which
nursing intervention receives the highest priority? - Establishing an airway.
- Replacing blood loss.
- Stopping bleeding from open wounds.
- Checking for a neck fracture.
- The highest priority for a client with multiple injuries is to establish an open airway for
effective ventilation and oxygenation. Unless the client has a patent airway, other care measures will
be futile. Replacing blood loss, stopping bleeding from open wounds, and checking for a neck
fracture are important nursing interventions to be completed after the airway and ventilation are
established.
CN: Safety and infection control; CL: Synthesize
- The highest priority for a client with multiple injuries is to establish an open airway for
- A client has delirium following a head injury. The client is disoriented and agitated. In which
order from first to last should the nurse do the following as a part of a plan to care for this client?1. Request a prescription for haloperidol (Haldol). - Maintain a quiet environment.
- Assure client’s safety.
- Approach the client using short sentences.
7.
4. Approach the client using short sentences.
3. Assure client’s safety.
2. Maintain a quiet environment.
1. Request a prescription for haloperidol (Haldol).
The first step in providing care for a client with delirium is to approach the client calmly,
introduce oneself, and use short sentences when explaining the care given. The nurse should also
assure the client’s safety by protecting the client from injury. Maintaining a quiet and calm
environment by removing extraneous noises will prevent overstimulation. Pharmacologic intervention
is used only when other plans for care are not effective. When the underlying problems related to the
head injury are resolved, the delirium likely will improve.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
8. A client is at risk for increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following would be the priority for the nurse to monitor? 1. Unequal pupil size. 2. Decreasing systolic blood pressure. 3. Tachycardia. 4. Decreasing body temperature.
- Increasing ICP causes unequal pupils as a result of pressure on the third cranial nerve.
Increasing ICP causes an increase in the systolic pressure, which reflects the additional pressure
needed to perfuse the brain. It increases the pressure on the vagus nerve, which produces
bradycardia, and it causes an increase in body temperature from hypothalamic damage.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Analyze
- Increasing ICP causes unequal pupils as a result of pressure on the third cranial nerve.
- What should the nurse do first when a client with a head injury begins to have clear drainage
from the nose? - Compress the nares.
- Tilt the head back.
- Give the client tissues to collect the fluid.
- Administer an antihistamine for postnasal drip.
- The clear drainage must be analyzed to determine whether it is nasal drainage or
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The nurse should not give the client tissues because it is important to know
how much leakage of CSF is occurring. Compressing the nares will obstruct the drainage flow. It is
inappropriate to tilt the head back, which would allow the fluid to drain down the throat and not be
collected for a sample. It is inappropriate to administer an antihistamine because the drainage may not
be from postnasal drip.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- The clear drainage must be analyzed to determine whether it is nasal drainage or
10. Which of the following respiratory patterns indicates increasing intracranial pressure in the brain stem? 1. Slow, irregular respirations. 2. Rapid, shallow respirations. 3. Asymmetric chest excursion. 4. Nasal flaring.
- Neural control of respiration takes place in the brain stem. Deterioration and pressure
produce irregular respiratory patterns. Rapid, shallow respirations, asymmetric chest movements, and
nasal flaring are more characteristic of respiratory distress or hypoxia.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Apply
- Neural control of respiration takes place in the brain stem. Deterioration and pressure
- Which of the following nursing interventions is appropriate for a client with an increased
intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg? - Give the client a warming blanket.
- Administer low-dose barbiturates.
- Encourage the client to hyperventilate.
- Restrict fluids.
- Normal ICP is 15 mm Hg or less for 15 to 30 seconds or longer. Hyperventilation causes
vasoconstriction, which reduces cerebrospinal fluid and blood volume, two important factors for
reducing a sustained ICP of 20 mm Hg. A cooling blanket is used to control the elevation of
temperature because a fever increases the metabolic rate, which in turn increases ICP. High doses of
barbiturates may be used to reduce the increased cellular metabolic demands. Fluid volume and
inotropic drugs are used to maintain cerebral perfusion by supporting the cardiac output and keeping
the cerebral perfusion pressure greater than 80 mm Hg.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Normal ICP is 15 mm Hg or less for 15 to 30 seconds or longer. Hyperventilation causes
- The nurse is assessing a client with increasing intracranial pressure (ICP). The nurse should
notify the health care provider about which of the following changes in the client’s condition?1. Widening pulse pressure. - Decrease in the pulse rate.
- Dilated, fixed pupils.
- Decrease in level of consciousness (LOC).
- A decrease in the client’s LOC is an early indicator of deterioration of the client’s
neurologic status. Changes in LOC, such as restlessness and irritability, may be subtle. Widening of
the pulse pressure, decrease in the pulse rate, and dilated, fixed pupils occur later if the increased
ICP is not treated.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- A decrease in the client’s LOC is an early indicator of deterioration of the client’s
- The client has a sustained increased intracranial pressure (ICP) of 20 mm Hg. Which client
position would be most appropriate? - The head of the bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees.
- Trendelenburg’s position.
- Left Sims’ position.
- The head elevated on two pillows.
- The client’s ICP is elevated, and the client should be positioned to avoid extreme neck
flexion or extension. The head of the bed is usually elevated 30 to 45 degrees to drain the venous
sinuses and thus decrease the ICP. Trendelenburg’s position places the client’s head lower than the
body, which would increase ICP. Sims’ position (side lying) and elevating the head on two pillows
may extend or flex the neck, which increases ICP.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- The client’s ICP is elevated, and the client should be positioned to avoid extreme neck
- The nurse administers mannitol (Osmitrol) to the client with increased intracranial pressure.
Which parameter requires close monitoring? - Muscle relaxation.
- Intake and output.
- Widening of the pulse pressure.
- Pupil dilation.
- After administering mannitol, the nurse closely monitors intake and output because mannitol
promotes diuresis and is given primarily to pull water from the extracellular fluid of the edematous
brain. Mannitol can cause hypokalemia and may lead to muscle contractions, not muscle relaxation.
Signs and symptoms, such as widening pulse pressure and pupil dilation, should not occur because
mannitol serves to decrease ICP.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Analyze
- After administering mannitol, the nurse closely monitors intake and output because mannitol
- The nurse is assessing a client for movement after halo traction placement for a C8 fracture.
The nurse should document which of the following? - The client’s shoulders shrug against downward pressure of the examiner’s hands.
- The client’s arm pulls up from a resting position against resistance.
- The client’s arm straightens out from a flexed position against resistance.
- The client’s hand-grasp strength is equal.
15. 4. The correct motor function test for C8 is a hand-grasp check. The motor function check for C4 to C5 is shoulders shrugging against downward pressure of the examiner's hands. The motor function check for C5 to C6 is an arm pulling up from a resting position against resistance. The motor function check for C7 is an arm straightening out from a flexed position against resistance. CN: Management of care; CL: Analyze
- A client who is regaining consciousness after a craniotomy becomes restless and attempts to
pull out the IV line. Which nursing intervention protects the client without increasing the intracranial
pressure (ICP)? - Place in a jacket restraint.
- Wrap the hands in soft “mitten” restraints.
- Tuck the arms and hands under the drawsheet.
- Apply a wrist restraint to each arm.
- It is best for the client to wear mitts, which help prevent the client from pulling on the IV
without causing additional agitation. Using a jacket or wrist restraint or tucking the client’s arms and
hands under the drawsheet restrict movement and add to feelings of being confined, all of which
would increase her agitation and increase ICP.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- It is best for the client to wear mitts, which help prevent the client from pulling on the IV
- Which activity should the nurse encourage the client to avoid when there is a risk for
increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? - Deep breathing.
- Turning.
- Coughing.
- Passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.
- Coughing is contraindicated for a client at risk for increased ICP because coughing
increases ICP. Deep breathing can be continued. Turning and passive ROM exercises can be
continued with care not to extend or flex the neck.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- Coughing is contraindicated for a client at risk for increased ICP because coughing
- A client who had a serious head injury with increased intracranial pressure is to be
discharged to a rehabilitation facility. Which of the following rehabilitation outcomes would be
appropriate for the client? The client will: - Exhibit no further episodes of short-term memory loss.
- Be able to return to his construction job in 3 weeks.
- Actively participate in the rehabilitation process as appropriate.
- Be emotionally stable and display preinjury personality traits.
- Recovery from a serious head injury is a long-term process that may continue for months oryears. Depending on the extent of the injury, clients who are transferred to rehabilitation facilities
most likely will continue to exhibit cognitive and mobility impairments as well as behavior and
personality changes. The client would be expected to participate in the rehabilitation efforts to the
extent he is capable. Family members and significant others will need long-term support to help them
cope with the changes that have occurred in the client.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Evaluate
- Recovery from a serious head injury is a long-term process that may continue for months oryears. Depending on the extent of the injury, clients who are transferred to rehabilitation facilities
- Which of the following describes decerebrate posturing?
- Internal rotation and adduction of arms with flexion of elbows, wrists, and fingers.
- Back hunched over, rigid flexion of all four extremities with supination of arms and plantar
flexion of feet. - Supination of arms, dorsiflexion of the feet.
- Back arched, rigid extension of all four extremities.
- Decerebrate posturing occurs in clients with damage to the upper brain stem, midbrain, or
pons and is demonstrated clinically by arching of the back, rigid extension of the extremities,
pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion of the feet. Internal rotation and adduction of arms with
flexion of elbows, wrists, and fingers describes decorticate posturing, which indicates damage to
corticospinal tracts and cerebral hemispheres.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Apply
- Decerebrate posturing occurs in clients with damage to the upper brain stem, midbrain, or
- A client receiving vent-assisted mode ventilation begins to experience cluster breathing after
recent intracranial occipital bleeding. The nurse should: - Count the rate to be sure that ventilations are deep enough to be sufficient.
- Notify the physician of the client’s breathing pattern.
- Increase the rate of ventilations.
- Increase the tidal volume on the ventilator.
- Cluster breathing consists of clusters of irregular breaths followed by periods of apnea on
an irregular basis. A lesion in the upper medulla or lower pons is usually the cause of cluster
breathing. Because the client had a bleed in the occipital lobe, which is just superior and posterior to
the pons and medulla, clinical manifestations that indicate a new lesion are monitored very closely in
case another bleed ensues. The nurse should notify the physician immediately so that treatment can
begin before respirations cease. The client is not obtaining sufficient oxygen and the depth of
breathing is assisted by the ventilator. The health care provider will determine changes in the
ventilator settings.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Cluster breathing consists of clusters of irregular breaths followed by periods of apnea on
- In planning the care for a client who has had a posterior fossa (infratentorial) craniotomy,
which of the following is contraindicated when positioning the client? - Keeping the client flat on one side or the other.
- Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- Logrolling or turning as a unit when turning.
- Keeping the neck in a neutral position.
- Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is contraindicated for infratentorial
craniotomies because it could cause herniation of the brain down onto the brain stem and spinal cord,
resulting in sudden death. Elevation of the head of the bed to 30 degrees with the head turned to the
side opposite the incision, if not contraindicated by the increased intracranial pressure, is used for
supratentorial craniotomies.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is contraindicated for infratentorial
- When evaluating an arterial blood gas report from a client with a subdural hematoma who
had surgery and is now on a ventilator, the nurse notes the PaCO 2 is 35 mm Hg (4.7 kPa). The
ventilator settings are: TV 400, respiration rate 24, FIO 2 100%. What should the nurse do first? - Ask the respiratory technician to decrease the respiration rate on the ventilator to 18.
- Position the client with the head of bed elevated.
- Continue to monitor the client.
- Inform the charge nurse of the results of the report.
- CO 2 has vasodilating properties; therefore, lowering PaCO 2 through hyperventilation will
lower ICP caused by dilated cerebral vessels. Since the client’s PaCO 2 level is normal (35 to 45 mm
Hg or 4.7 to 6.0 kPa), paging the respiratory technician to change the respiration rate is an
appropriate action. Elevating the head of the client’s bed is contradicted with this client’s condition:
that would lower blood pressure and care of these patients involves maintenance of a flat position in
bed for 24 hours after surgery. Continuing to monitor the client is inappropriate because the PaCO 2
level is normal and the respiratory technician needs to adjust the hyperventilation setting to normal on
the ventilator since the lab indicates that PaCo 2 is normal. Informing the charge nurse about the
change in ventilator settings is not necessary at this time because this is expected care for this client.
CN: Physiological Integrity; CL: Synthesize
- CO 2 has vasodilating properties; therefore, lowering PaCO 2 through hyperventilation will
- A client with a head injury regains consciousness after several days. Which of the following
nursing statements is most appropriate as the client awakens? - “I’ll get your family.”
- “Can you tell me your name and where you live?”
- “I’ll bet you’re a little confused right now.”
- “You are in the hospital. You were in an accident and unconscious.”
- It is important to first explain where a client is to orient him or her to time, person, and
place. Offering to get the family and asking questions to determine orientation are important, but the
first comments should let the client know where he or she is and what has happened. It is useful to be
empathetic to the client, but making a comment such as “I’ll bet you’re a little confused” is not helpfuland may cause anxiety.
CN: Psychosocial adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- It is important to first explain where a client is to orient him or her to time, person, and
The Client with Seizures
24. The nurse sees a client walking in the hallway who begins to have a seizure. The nurse
should do which of the following in priority order?
1. Maintain a patent airway.
2. Record the seizure activity observed.
3. Ease the client to the floor.
4. Obtain vital signs.
The Client with Seizures
24.
3. Ease the client to the floor.
1. Maintain a patent airway.
4. Obtain vital signs.
2. Record the seizure activity observed.
To protect the client from falling, the nurse first should ease the client to the floor. It is important
to protect the head and maintain a patent airway since altered breathing and excessive salivation can
occur. The assessment of the postictal period should include level of consciousness and vital signs.
The nurse should record details of the seizure once the client is stable. The events preceding the
seizure, timing with descriptions of each phase, body parts affected and sequence of involvement, and
autonomic signs should be recorded.
CN: Safety and infection control; CL: Synthesize
- Which of the following is contraindicated for a client with seizure precautions?
- Encouraging him to perform his own personal hygiene.
- Allowing him to wear his own clothing.
- Assessing his oral temperature with a glass thermometer.
- Encouraging him to be out of bed.
- Temperatures are not assessed orally with a glass thermometer because the thermometer
could break and cause injury if a seizure occurred. The client can perform personal hygiene. There is
no clinical reason to discourage the client from wearing his own clothes. As long as there are no
other limitations, the client should be encouraged to be out of bed.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Temperatures are not assessed orally with a glass thermometer because the thermometer
- Which of the following will the nurse observe in the client in the ictal phase of a generalized
tonic-clonic seizure? - Jerking in one extremity that spreads gradually to adjacent areas.
- Vacant staring and abruptly ceasing all activity.
- Facial grimaces, patting motions, and lip smacking.
- Loss of consciousness, body stiffening, and violent muscle contractions.
- A generalized tonic-clonic seizure involves both a tonic phase and a clonic phase. The
tonic phase consists of loss of consciousness, dilated pupils, and muscular stiffening or contraction,
which lasts about 20 to 30 seconds. The clonic phase involves repetitive movements. The seizure
ends with confusion, drowsiness, and resumption of respiration. A partial seizure starts in one region
of the cortex and may stay focused or spread (eg, jerking in the extremity spreading to other areas of
the body). An absence seizure usually occurs in children and involves a vacant stare with a brief loss
of consciousness that often goes unnoticed. A complex partial seizure involves facial grimacing with
patting and smacking.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- A generalized tonic-clonic seizure involves both a tonic phase and a clonic phase. The
- It is the night before a client is to have a computed tomography (CT) scan of the head without
contrast. The nurse should tell the client: - “You must shampoo your hair tonight to remove all oil and dirt.”
- “You may drink fluids until midnight, but after that drink nothing until the scan is completed.”
- “You will have some hair shaved to attach the small electrode to your scalp.”
- “You will need to hold your head very still during the examination.”
- The client will be asked to hold the head very still during the examination, which lasts
about 30 to 60 minutes. In some instances, food and fluids may be withheld for 4 to 6 hours before the
procedure if a contrast medium is used because the radiopaque substance sometimes causes nausea.
There is no special preparation for a CT scan, so a shampoo the night before is not required. The
client may drink fluids until 4 hours before the scan is scheduled. Electrodes are not used for a CTscan, nor is the head shaved.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- The client will be asked to hold the head very still during the examination, which lasts
- The client will have an electroencephalogram (EEG) in the morning. The nurse should
instruct the client to have which of the following for breakfast? - No food or fluids.
- Only coffee or tea if needed.3. A full breakfast as desired without coffee, tea, or energy drinks.
- A liquid breakfast of fruit juice, oatmeal, or smoothie
- Beverages containing caffeine, such as coffee, tea, cola, and energy drinks, are withheld
before an EEG because of the stimulating effects of the caffeine on the brain waves. A meal should
not be omitted before an EEG because low blood sugar could alter brain wave patterns; the client can
have the entire meal except for the coffee. The client does not need to be on a liquid diet or NPO.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- Beverages containing caffeine, such as coffee, tea, cola, and energy drinks, are withheld
- The client is scheduled to receive phenytoin (Dilantin) through a nasogastric tube (NGT) and
has a tube-feeding supplement running continuously. The head of the bed is elevated to 30 degrees.
Prior to administering the medication, the nurse should: - Elevate the head of the bed to 60 degrees.
- Draw blood to determine the Dilantin level after giving the morning dose in order to determine
if client has toxic blood level. - Stop the tube feeding 1 hour before giving Dilantin and hold tube feeding for 1 hour after
giving Dilantin. - Flush the NGT with 150 mL of water before and after giving the Dilantin.
- In order for Dilantin to be properly absorbed and provide maximum benefit to the client,
nutritional supplements must be stopped before and after delivery. The head of the bed is elevated 30
degrees since this client has a tube feeding infusing; it is not necessary to elevate the bed any further.
Blood levels are usually drawn before giving a dose of Dilantin, not after. It is not necessary to flush
with such a large amount of water (150 mL) before and after Dilantin.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- In order for Dilantin to be properly absorbed and provide maximum benefit to the client,
- A 22-year-old who hit his head while playing football has a tonic-clonic seizure. Upon
awakening from the seizure, the client asks the nurse, “What caused me to have a seizure? I’ve never
had one before.” Which cause should the nurse include in the response as a primary cause of tonic-
clonic seizures in adults older than age 20? - Head trauma.
- Electrolyte imbalance.
- Congenital defect.
- Epilepsy.
- Trauma is one of the primary causes of brain damage and seizure activity in adults. Other
common causes of seizure activity in adults include neoplasms, withdrawal from drugs and alcohol,
and vascular disease. Given the history of head injury, electrolyte imbalance is not the cause of the
seizure. There is no information to indicate that the seizure is related to a congenital defect. Epilepsy
is usually diagnosed in younger clients.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Apply
- Trauma is one of the primary causes of brain damage and seizure activity in adults. Other
- Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with seizures
who is going home with a prescription for gabapentin (Neurontin)? - Take all the medication until it is gone.
- Notify the physician if vision changes occur.
- Store gabapentin in the refrigerator.
- Take gabapentin with an antacid to protect against ulcers.
- Gabapentin (Neurontin) may impair vision. Changes in vision, concentration, or
coordination should be reported to the physician. Gabapentin should not be stopped abruptly because
of the potential for status epilepticus; this is a medication that must be tapered off. Gabapentin is to be
stored at room temperature and out of direct light. It should not be taken with antacids.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- Gabapentin (Neurontin) may impair vision. Changes in vision, concentration, or
- What is the priority nursing intervention in the postictal phase of a seizure?
- Reorient the client to time, person, and place.
- Determine the client’s level of sleepiness.
- Assess the client’s breathing pattern.
- Position the client comfortably.
- A priority for the client in the postictal phase (after a seizure) is to assess the client’s
breathing pattern for effective rate, rhythm, and depth. The nurse should apply oxygen and ventilation
to the client as appropriate. Other interventions, to be completed after the airway has been
established, include reorientation of the client to time, person, and place. Determining the client’s
level of sleepiness is useful, but it is not a priority. Positioning the client comfortably promotes rest
but is of less importance than ascertaining that the airway is patent.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- A priority for the client in the postictal phase (after a seizure) is to assess the client’s
- Which intervention is most effective in minimizing the risk of seizure activity in a client who
is undergoing diagnostic studies after having experienced several episodes of seizures? - Maintain the client on bed rest.
- Administer butabarbital sodium 30 mg PO, three times per day.
- Close the door to the room to minimize stimulation.
- Administer carbamazepine 200 mg PO, twice per day.
- Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant that helps prevent further seizures. Bed rest, sedation
(phenobarbital), and providing privacy do not minimize the risk of seizures.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant that helps prevent further seizures. Bed rest, sedation
- What nursing assessments should be documented at the beginning of the ictal phase of a
seizure? - Heart rate, respirations, pulse oximeter, and blood pressure.
- Last dose of anticonvulsant and circumstances at the time.
- Type of visual, auditory, and olfactory aura the client experienced.
- Movement of the head and eyes and muscle rigidity.
- During a seizure, the nurse should note movement of the client’s head and eyes and muscle
rigidity, especially when the seizure first begins, to obtain clues about the location of the trigger focus
in the brain. Other important assessments would include noting the progression and duration of the
seizure, respiratory status, loss of consciousness, pupil size, and incontinence of urine and stool. It is
typically not possible to assess the client’s pulse and blood pressure during a tonic-clonic seizure
because the muscle contractions make assessment difficult to impossible. The last dose ofanticonvulsant medication can be evaluated later. The nurse should focus on maintaining an open
airway, preventing injury to the client, and assessing the onset and progression of the seizure to
determine the type of brain activity involved. The type of aura should be assessed in the preictal
phase of the seizure.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- During a seizure, the nurse should note movement of the client’s head and eyes and muscle
- The nurse is assessing a client in the postictal phase of generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The
nurse should determine if the client has: - Drowsiness.
- Inability to move.
- Paresthesia.
- Hypotension.
- The nurse should expect a client in the postictal phase to experience drowsiness to
somnolence because exhaustion results from the abnormal spontaneous neuron firing and tonic-clonic
motor response. An inability to move a muscle part is not expected after a tonic-clonic seizure
because a lack of motor function would be related to a complication, such as a lesion, tumor, or
stroke, in the correlating brain tissue. A change in sensation would not be expected because this
would indicate a complication such as an injury to the peripheral nerve pathway to the corresponding
part from the central nervous system. Hypotension is not typically a problem after a seizure.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- The nurse should expect a client in the postictal phase to experience drowsiness to
- When preparing to teach a client about phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) therapy, the nurse should
urge the client not to stop the drug suddenly because: - Physical dependency on the drug develops over time.
- Status epilepticus may develop.
- A hypoglycemic reaction develops.
- Heart block is likely to develop.
- Anticonvulsant drug therapy should never be stopped suddenly; doing so can lead to life-
threatening status epilepticus. Phenytoin sodium does not carry a risk of physical dependency or lead
to hypoglycemia. Phenytoin has antiarrhythmic properties, and discontinuation does not cause heart
block.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Apply
- Anticonvulsant drug therapy should never be stopped suddenly; doing so can lead to life-
- A client who has had seizures asks the nurse about being able to drive because of the
seizures. Which response by the nurse is best? - A person with a history of seizures can drive only during daytime hours.
- A person with evidence that the seizures are under medical control can drive.
- A person with evidence that seizures occur no more often than every 12 months can drive.
- A person with a history of seizures can drive if he or she carries a medical identification card
- Specific motor vehicle regulations and restrictions for people who experience seizures
vary locally. Most commonly, evidence that the seizures are under medical control is required before
the person is given permission to drive. Time of day is not a consideration when determining driving
restrictions related to seizures. The amount of time a person has been seizure-free is a consideration
for lifting driving restrictions; however, the time frame is usually 2 years. It is recommended, not
required, that a person who is subject to seizures carry a card or wear an identification bracelet
describing the illness to facilitate quick identification in the event of an emergency.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- Specific motor vehicle regulations and restrictions for people who experience seizures
- The nurse is teaching a client to recognize an aura. The nurse should instruct the client to
note: - A postictal state of amnesia.
- A hallucination that occurs during a seizure.
- A symptom that occurs just before a seizure.
- A feeling of relaxation as the seizure begins to subside.
- An aura is a premonition of an impending seizure. Auras usually are of a sensory nature (eg,
an olfactory, visual, gustatory, or auditory sensation); some may be of a psychic nature. Evaluating an
aura may help identify the area of the brain from which the seizure originates. Auras occur before a
seizure, not during or after (postictal). They are not similar to hallucinations or amnesia or related to
relaxation.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize
- An aura is a premonition of an impending seizure. Auras usually are of a sensory nature (eg,
- Which statement by a client with a seizure disorder taking topiramate (Topamax) indicates the
client has understood the nurse’s instruction? - “I will take the medicine before going to bed.”
- “I will drink six to eight glasses of water a day.”
- “I will eat plenty of fresh fruits.”
- “I will take the medicine with a meal or snack.”
- Toxic effects of topiramate (Topamax) include nephrolithiasis, and clients are encouraged
to drink six to eight glasses of water a day to dilute the urine and flush the renal tubules to avoid stone
formation. Topiramate is taken in divided doses because it produces drowsiness. Although eating
fresh fruits is desirable from a nutritional standpoint, this is not related to the topiramate. The drug
does not have to be taken with meals.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Evaluate
- Toxic effects of topiramate (Topamax) include nephrolithiasis, and clients are encouraged
40. Which clinical manifestation is a typical reaction to long-term phenytoin sodium (Dilantin) therapy? 1. Weight gain. 2. Insomnia. 3. Excessive growth of gum tissue. 4. Deteriorating eyesight.
- A common adverse effect of long-term phenytoin therapy is an overgrowth of gingival
tissues. Problems may be minimized with good oral hygiene, but in some cases, overgrown tissues
must be removed surgically. Phenytoin does not cause weight gain, insomnia, or deterioratingeyesight.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Evaluate
- A common adverse effect of long-term phenytoin therapy is an overgrowth of gingival
- A 21-year-old female client takes clonazepam. What should the nurse ask this client about?
Select all that apply. - Seizure activity.
- Pregnancy status.
- Alcohol use.
- Cigarette smoking.5. Intake of caffeine and sugary drinks.
- 1, 2, 3. The nurse should assess the number and type of seizures the client has experienced
since starting clonazepam monotherapy for seizure control. The nurse should also determine if the
client might be pregnant because clonazepam crosses the placental barrier. The nurse should also ask
about the client’s use of alcohol because alcohol potentiates the action of clonazepam. Although the
nurse may want to check on the client’s diet or use of cigarettes for health maintenance and promotion,
such information is not specifically related to clonazepam therapy.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Evaluate
The Client with a Stroke
A client is being monitored for transient ischemic attacks. The client is oriented, can open the eyes
spontaneously, and follows commands. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score?
______________________ points.
The Client with a Stroke
42. 15 points
The Glasgow Coma Scale provides three objective neurologic assessments: spontaneity of eye
opening, best motor response, and best verbal response on a scale of 3 to 15. The client who scores
the best on all three assessments scores 15 points.
CN: Management of care; CL: Apply
- The nurse is teaching a client about taking prophylactic warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which
statement indicates that the client understands how to take the drug? Select all that apply. - “The drug’s action peaks in 2 hours.”
- “Maximum dosage is not achieved until 3 to 4 days after starting the medication.”
- “Effects of the drug continue for 4 to 5 days after discontinuing the medication.”
- “Protamine sulfate is the antidote for warfarin.”
- “I should have my blood levels tested periodically.”
- 2, 3, 5. The maximum dosage of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) is not achieved until 3 to 4 days
after starting the medication, and the effects of the drug continue for 4 to 5 days after discontinuing the
medication. The client should have blood levels tested periodically to make sure that the desired
level is maintained. Warfarin has a peak action of 9 hours. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin;
protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Evaluate
- Which of the following nursing measures is not appropriate when providing oral hygiene for
a client who has had a stroke? - Placing the client on the back with a small pillow under the head.
- Keeping portable suctioning equipment at the bedside.
- Opening the client’s mouth with a padded tongue blade.
- Cleaning the client’s mouth and teeth with a toothbrush.
- A helpless client should be positioned on the side, not on the back, with the head on a small
pillow. A lateral position helps secretions escape from the throat and mouth, minimizing the risk of
aspiration. It may be necessary to suction the client if he aspirates. Suction equipment should be
nearby. It is safe to use a padded tongue blade, and the client should receive oral care, including
brushing with a toothbrush.
CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- A helpless client should be positioned on the side, not on the back, with the head on a small
- A client arrives in the emergency department with an ischemic stroke and receives tissue
plasminogen activator (t-PA) administration. The nurse should first: - Ask what medications the client is taking.
- Complete a history and health assessment.
- Identify the time of onset of the stroke.
- Determine if the client is scheduled for any surgical procedures.
- Studies show that clients who receive recombinant t-PA treatment within 3 hours after the
onset of a stroke have better outcomes. The time from the onset of a stroke to t-PA treatment is
critical. A complete health assessment and history is not possible when a client is receiving
emergency care. Upcoming surgical procedures may need to be delayed because of the administration
of t-PA, which is a priority in the immediate treatment of the current stroke. While the nurse should
identify which medications the client is taking, it is more important to know the time of the onset of
the stroke to determine the course of action for administering t-PA.
CN: Pharmacological and parenteral therapies; CL: Synthesize
- Studies show that clients who receive recombinant t-PA treatment within 3 hours after the
46. During the first 24 hours after thrombolytic treatment for an ischemic stroke, the primary goal is to control the client's: 1. Pulse. 2. Respirations. 3. Blood pressure. 4. Temperature.
- Control of blood pressure is critical during the first 24 hours after treatment because an
intracerebral hemorrhage is the major adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy. Vital signs are
monitored, and blood pressure is maintained as identified by the physician and specific to the client’s
ischemic tissue needs and risk of bleeding from treatment. The other vital signs are important, but the
priority is to monitor blood pressure.CN: Reduction of risk potential; CL: Synthesize
- Control of blood pressure is critical during the first 24 hours after treatment because an
47. What is a priority nursing assessment in the first 24 hours after admission of the client with a thrombotic stroke? 1. Cholesterol level. 2. Pupil size and pupillary response. 3. Bowel sounds. 4. Echocardiogram.
- It is crucial to monitor the pupil size and pupillary response to indicate changes around the
cranial nerves. The cholesterol level is not a priority assessment, although it may be an assessment to
be addressed for long-term healthy lifestyle rehabilitation. Bowel sounds need to be assessed
because an ileus or constipation can develop, but this is not a priority in the first 24 hours, when the
primary concerns are cerebral hemorrhage and increased intracranial pressure. An echocardiogram is
not needed for the client with a thrombotic stroke without heart problems.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Analyze
- It is crucial to monitor the pupil size and pupillary response to indicate changes around the
- A client with a hemorrhagic stroke is slightly agitated, heart rate is 118, respirations are 22,
bilateral rhonchi are auscultated, SpO 2 is 94%, blood pressure is 144/88, and oral secretions are
noted. What order of interventions should the nurse follow when suctioning the client to prevent
increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and maintain adequate cerebral perfusion?1. Suction the airway. - Hyperoxygenate.
- Suction the mouth.
- Provide sedation.
48.
4. Provide sedation.
2. Hyperoxygenate.
1. Suction the airway.
3. Suction the mouth.
Increased agitation with suctioning will increase ICP; therefore, sedation should be provided
first. The client should be hyperoxygenated before and after suctioning to prevent hypoxia since
hypoxia causes vasodilation of the cerebral vessels and increases ICP. The airway should then be
suctioned for no more than 10 seconds. The mouth can be suctioned once the airway is clear to
remove oral secretions. Once the mouth is suctioned, the suction catheter should be discarded.
CN: Physiological adaptation; CL: Synthesize