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Test 3 Study Flashcards

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1
Q

how do you calculate exposure?

A

exposure rate x exposure time

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2
Q

if the distance from the source exceeds 5 x’s the source diameter, it can be treated as a what?

A

point source

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3
Q

the distance from the source must exceed ________ the source diameter, to be treated as a point source

A

5 x’s

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4
Q

where should tech stand during fluoro?

A

behind radiologist

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5
Q

thickness of the absorber that will reduce the rad intensity to 1/2 it’s original value

A

half value layer (HVL)

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6
Q

thickness of absorber that ill reduce the rad intensity to 1/10th of it’s original value

A

tenth value layer (TVL)

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7
Q

1 TVL = ? HVL

A

3.3

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8
Q

____________ is the equivalent whole body dose

A

effective dose

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9
Q

equivalent whole body dose is the ___________________ to various organs/tissues

A

weighted avg of the rad dose

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10
Q

D x Wt = ?

A

effective dose

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11
Q

absorbed dose x Wr x Wt = ?

A

effective dose

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12
Q

rad weighting factor for XR?

A

1

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13
Q

rad weighting factor for gamma ray?

A

1

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14
Q

rad weighting factor for neutrons?

A

5 - 20

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15
Q

rad weighting factor for protons?

A

2

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16
Q

rad weighting factor for alpha particles?

A

20

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17
Q

tissue weighting factor for gonads?

A

0.20

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18
Q

tissue weighting factor for bone marrow?

A

0.12

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19
Q

tissue weighting factor for colon, lung, or stomach?

A

0.12

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20
Q

tissue weighting factor for liver, breast, thyroid?

A

0.05

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21
Q

tissue weighting factor for skin?

A

0.01

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22
Q

we assume that the occupational effective dose to be _____ of the monitor dose.

A

10%

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23
Q

leakage rad. must be ________________________ from the protective housing

A

less than 100 mR/hr @ a distance of 1 meter

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24
Q

100 mR/hr = ? mGy/hr

A

1 mGy/hr

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25
Q

SID indicator must be accurate to w/in?

A

2% of indicated SID

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26
Q

XR beam & light beam must coincide to?

A

w/in 2% of SID

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27
Q

when PBL is activated, the collimators are automatically adjusted so that the ________________________

A

rad field matches the film size

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28
Q

regulatory standards requires the PBL to have an accuracy by

A

2% of the SID

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29
Q

filtration reduces exposure to pt’s skin/tissue by absorbing most of the ______________ from the heterogeneous beam

A

lower energy photons

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30
Q

filtration _______ the avg energy (qual.) of beam

A

increases

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31
Q

the increase in avg energy of beam by filtration is referred to as?

A

hardening of beam

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32
Q

includes the glass envelope encasing the XR tube, the insulating oil, & the glass window

A

inherent filtration

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33
Q

inherent filtration amounts to approx.?

A

0.5 mm of Al equivalent

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34
Q

collimator provides an additional ______ of Al equivalent

A

1 mm

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35
Q

consists of sheet of Al or its equivalent of appropriate thickness, located outside the glass window of the tube housing above the coll. shutters

A

added filtration

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36
Q

added filtration is usually ____ of Al equivalent

A

1 mm

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37
Q

the inherent & added filtration should combine to equal the required ____________ (fixed tube, above 70 kVp)

A

2.5 mm of Al

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38
Q

(reproducibility) the variation in the XR intensity should not exceed?

A

5%

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39
Q

the max acceptable variation in linearity is _____ from one mA station to an adjacent mA station

A

10%

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40
Q

should it be possible to expose an IR while the tech stands unprotected outside a fixed protective barrier (control booth)

A

no

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41
Q

the exposure control should be ______ to the operating console and not to a ____________

A

fixed; long cord

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42
Q

the exposure switch on a mobile XR system must allow the operator to remain at least ______ from the XR tube

A

2 meters

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43
Q

the SSD must not be less than ____ on stationary fluoro equipment

A

38 cm

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44
Q

the SSD must not be less than ____ on mobile fluoro equipment

A

30 cm

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45
Q

the I.I. serves as a primary protective barrier and it must be ___________ equivalent

A

2 mm of pb equivalent

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46
Q

filtration must be at least __________ equivalent

A

2.5 mm of Al equivalent

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47
Q

bucky slot must be covered w at least __________ equivalent

A

0.25 mm of pb

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48
Q

the protective curtain must be of at least _________ equivalent

A

0.25 mm of pb equivalent

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49
Q

a cumulative timer must produce an audible signal when the fluoro T has exceeded?

A

5 mins

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50
Q

the image receptor assembly serves as a what?

A

primary protective barrier

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51
Q

a quantity that reflects not only the dose but also the volume of tissue irradiated

A

dose area product (DAP)

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52
Q

DAP is a better indicator of?

A

risk

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53
Q

DAP _________ w increasing field size

A

increases

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54
Q

the intensity of the XR beam at the table top should not exceed ___________ for ea. mA station of operation @ 80 kVp

A

2.1 R/min

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55
Q

DAP for regular fluoro?

A

10 R/min

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56
Q

DAP for high level fluoro?

A

20 R/min

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57
Q

primary protective barrier wall should be _____ inch of pb

A

1/16th”

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58
Q

primary protective barrier wall should be ______ high

A

7 ft

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59
Q

secondary protective barrier wall should be made of _____ inch of pb

A

1/32”

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60
Q

height of secondary protective barrier?

A

from beginning of primary barrier w a 1/2” overlap, up to the ceiling

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61
Q

from where do techs receive most of their occupational rad exposure?

A

fluoro

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62
Q

an area that is occupied primarily by radiology personnel & pt

A

controlled area

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63
Q

what is the rad limit for a controlled area?

A

1 mSv/wk (100 mrem/wk)

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64
Q

rad limit for uncontrolled area?

A

2 mrem/wk

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65
Q

the level of radiation activity in the room

A

workload

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66
Q

a busy general purpose XR room may have a workload of __________

A

500 mA-min/wk

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67
Q

the % if T during which the XR beam is on & directed toward a particular protective barrier; “beam-on T”

A

use factor

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68
Q

the use factor for a 2ndary barrier is always considered as?

A

1

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69
Q

NCRP recommends use factor of ? for walls

A

1/4

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70
Q

NCRP recommends use factor of ? for floors

A

1

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71
Q

protective barriers are designed w the assumption of ____ kVp for general radiography

A

100

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72
Q

protective barriers are designed w the assumption of ____ kVp for mammo

A

30

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73
Q

most exams are conducted at an avg of ___ kVp

A

75

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74
Q

instruments designed for rad detection operate in what mode?

A

pulse or rate

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75
Q

in what mode is presence of rad indicated by ticking, chirping or beeping sound?

A

pulse mode

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76
Q

in what mode is the instrument response expressed in mGy/hr (mR/hr)

A

rate mode

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77
Q

instruments designed to measure the radiation intensity operate in what mode?

A

integrate

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78
Q

the determination by sci. methods of the amount, rate & distribution of rad emitted from a source of ionizing rad

A

dosimetry

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79
Q

2 general types of detection instruments used

A

fields survey instruments (for lg scale; nuclear waste, etc) & personnel monitors

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80
Q

is ionization chamber type survey meter used for measuring or detecting?

A

measuring

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81
Q

is geiger-mueller counters used for detection or measuring?

A

detecting

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82
Q

aka Cutie Pie

A

ionization chamber

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83
Q

what is the basis for gas filled rad detectors in the ionization chamber?

A

ionization of gas

84
Q

what is useful for rad surveys when exposure levels are in excess of 1 mR/hr ( 10 microgray/hr)

A

ionization chamber

85
Q

disadvantage of ionization chamber?

A

not well suited to detect alpha rad & low levels of rad

86
Q

what is accurate, sensitive to wide range of rad energies, portable, can measure 1 mR/hr to several thousand R/hr?

A

ionization chamber

87
Q

Geiger-Mueller counter works on what principle?

A

ionization of gas

88
Q

3 gases used in Geiger-Mueller counter?

A

Helium, Argon, Neon

89
Q

what is useful in detecting low level radioactive contaminations?

A

Geiger-Mueller counter

90
Q

what detection device is used in nuclear med?

A

Geiger-Mueller counter

91
Q

is the Geiger-Mueller counter a good measurement device of rad?

A

no

92
Q

what crystals produce small flashes of light when exposed to radiation in a scintillation counter?

A

sodium iodide or cesium iodide crystals (Thallium activated)

93
Q

the light produced by sodium iodide or cesium iodide crystals in a scintillation counter is detected by a ___________ & is converted into ___________ which can be measured.

A

photomultiplier tube; electric signals

94
Q

the scintillation counter is the most sensitive detector of?

A

gamma & XR rad

95
Q

what is useful in the detection of lost rad sources?

A

scintillation counter

96
Q

the ratio of secondary e-‘s to incident e-‘s

A

dynode gain

97
Q

the photocathode does what?

A

amplifies e-‘s

98
Q

most scintillation counters are what?

A

hygroscopic

99
Q

term for something that absorbs moisture & will swell & crack

A

hygroscopic

100
Q

what prevents the crystals of scintillation counter from swelling & cracking?

A

hermetic seal of Al containment

101
Q

device that emits e-‘s when illuminated by light

A

photocathode

102
Q

the process of emitting e-‘s by a photocathode when stimulated by light

A

photoemission

103
Q

what 3 ways can you express the estimation of pt dose?

A

entrance skin dose (ESD), gonadal dose, bone marrow dose

104
Q

what is the medium of ESD?

A

air

105
Q

ESD is most often referred to as?

A

pt dose

106
Q

what can be calculated using a nomogram?

A

ESD

107
Q

what is measured using TLDs (most often)

A

ESD

108
Q

avg ESD of fluoro is?

A

40 mGy/min

109
Q

a family of curves for estimating output XR intensity from a single-phase radiographic unit

A

nomogram

110
Q

avg rad dose to the entire bone marrow is?

A

mean marrow dose

111
Q

US mean marrow dose = ?

A

1 mGy/yr (100 mrad/yr)

112
Q

the gonadal dose that, if received by every member of the pop, would produce the total genetic effect on the pop as the sum of the indiv. doses actually received

A

genetically significant dose (GSD)

113
Q

what is estimated thru lg scale epidemiologic studies?

A

GSD

114
Q

glandular dose should not exceed _______ w contact mammo & _________ w a grid

A

1 mGy/view; 3 mGy/view

115
Q

according to US public health data, _____ of the total pt effective dose is from CT

A

70%

116
Q

overlapping slices in CT _______ pt dose

A

increases

117
Q

increased CT pitch _________ pt dose

A

reduces

118
Q

the higher the multi-slice value in CT, the ______ the pt dose

A

less

119
Q

pt dose is lower w higher multislice CT bc the ______________ for a given imaged anatomy

A

beam penumbra is less

120
Q

repeat exams should be kept below?

A

5%

121
Q

____ kVp & ____ mAs reduce pt dose

A

high; low

122
Q

digi rad can be conducted at what to lower pt dose?

A

higher kVp

123
Q

what film screen speed combo reduces pt dose?

A

fast speed film screen

124
Q

pos pt ______ to primary beam for upper extrem’s to min exposure

A

lat

125
Q

when is a shadow shield necessary?

A

when sterile conditions are needed

126
Q

organogenesis period is?

A

2 wk - 10th wk of pregnancy

127
Q

1st 2 weeks of pregnancy?

A

all or nothing effect

128
Q

current estimated levels of human radiation exposure to medical imaging rad?

A

3.2 mSv

129
Q

current estimated levels of human rad exposure to natural rad?

A

3 mSv

130
Q

current estimated levels of human rad exposure to Radon?

A

2 mSv

131
Q

total current estimated levels of human rad exposure?

A

6.3 mSv

132
Q

annual legal dose limit in US

A

50 mSv/yr (5000 mrem/yr; 5 rem/yr)

133
Q

legal dose limit for entire pregnancy in US?

A

5 mSv (500 mrem; 0.5 rem)

134
Q

legal monthly dose limit for pregnancy in US?

A

0.5 mSv (50 mrem; 0.05 rem)

135
Q

the requirement for personnel monitoring is _________ of the annual occupational effective dose limit. which is?

A

10% or more; (0.5 rem)

136
Q

film badges measure __________ irradiation

A

whole body

137
Q

most common type of personnel monitor?

A

film badge

138
Q

film badge should be changed how often?

A

every month

139
Q

film badges are sensitive down to ________

A

10 mrem

140
Q

film badge readings are made based on what?

A

control badge

141
Q

control badges are kept in a?

A

radiation free area

142
Q

concerned w providing occupational rad protection & minimizing rad dose to the public

A

health physics

143
Q

lines that represent positions of equal rad exposure in the fluoro room

A

isoexposure lines

144
Q

variation in XR intensity should not exceed?

A

5%

145
Q

the max acceptable variation in linearity is ____ form one mA station to an adjacent mA station

A

10%

146
Q

SSD must not be less than ________ on a stationary fluoro

A

38 cm (15”)

147
Q

SSD must not be less than ________ on a mobile fluoro

A

30 cm (12”)

148
Q

primary rad is the what?

A

useful beam

149
Q

the intensity of scatter rad 1 m from the pt is approx ___ of the intensity of the useful beam to the pt

A

0.1%

150
Q

annual recommended occupational dose limit?

A

50 mSv/yr

151
Q

the use factor for secondary barriers is

A

1 (always)

152
Q

basis for gas-filled radiation detectors?

A

ionization of gas

153
Q

device that emits e-‘s when illuminated

A

photocathode

154
Q

ratio of secondary e-‘s to incident e-‘s

A

dynode gain

155
Q

exposure to techs is measured in?

A

rems (Sv)

156
Q

exposure (R) refers to ras intensity in?

A

air

157
Q

dose in _____ is used to identify irradiation of pt’s.

  • rems
  • rads
  • R
  • Sv
A

rads

158
Q

pt dose can be expressed as entrance skin exposure, _______ dose, & _______ dose

A

mean marrow & gonadal

159
Q

for nursing personnel present during mobile XR, a personnel monitoring device is?

A

not required

160
Q

highest occupational exposure of diagnostic XR personnel occurs during:

a. fluoro
b. mobile XR
c. CT
d. both a & b

A

d

161
Q

exposure to tech during mobile C-arm fluoro is lowest is XR tube is placed?

A

under the pt

162
Q

best way for tech to reduce occupational exposure is to follow principles of:

a. ALARA
b. T & D
c. shielding
d. all of the above

A

d

163
Q

techs working in ______ receive higher occupational exposure.

a. mammo
b. CT
c. interventional rad
d. surgery

A

c. interventional rad

164
Q

a tech can reduce their exposure during fluoro by stepping:

a. back from the pt
b. behind radiologist
c. close to pt’s head
d. a & b

A

d. a & b

165
Q

the data on the personnel rad. monitoring report must always include the:

a. current exposure
b. cumulative annual exposure
c. skin dose
d. a & b

A

d. a & b

166
Q

minimum allowable thickness for protective apron is?

A

0.25 mm Pb/Eq

167
Q

A 1.0 mm Pb/Eq is _______________ for tech’s during fluoro

A

too heavy

168
Q

best way to hold pt’s who cannot support themselves is?

A

to use restraining devices

169
Q

tech’s can reduce pt dose by reducing:

a. # of repeat exams
b. kVp used
c. D from tube
d. unnecessary doctor orders

A

a. # of repeat exams

170
Q

gonadal shielding should be used…

a. on sinus/skull XRs
b. when gonads lie on/near useful beam
c. on all pt’s 40+ yrs
d. all of the above

A

b. when gonads lie on/near useful beam

171
Q

humans are most sensitive during?

A

fetal stages

172
Q

a local dose of ____ rad(s) or more can cause gonadal dysfunction

A

10 rads

173
Q

gonadal responses to rad have been observed at doses as low as ____ rads

A

10

174
Q

exposure is measured by multiplying _______ by ________

A

exposure rate, exposure T

175
Q

if a tech is exposed to 4 mR/hr for 45 mins, what is the total exposure?

A

3 mR

176
Q

when using the inverse square law during fluoro, the pt should be considered a(n) _______ source of rad

A

point

177
Q

if a tech is receiving 200 mR/hr standing 1 ft from pt, what is their exposure rate when they step back to a distance of 2 ft from pt?

A

50 mR/hr

178
Q

NCRP publishes annual DLs for ________ exposure.

a. public
b. occupational
c. prenatal
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

179
Q

DL’s are based on a __________ dose-response relationship to rad.

A

linear, non-threshold

180
Q

the DL for the general public is _______ the DL for occupational exposure

A

1/10th

181
Q

what is the annual effective dose limit recommended for occupational exposure?

A

5 rem

182
Q

recommended cumulative lifetime exposure for a tech is calculated by?

A

1 rem x age in yrs

183
Q

what is the total DL of the embryo & fetus?

A

0.5 rem

184
Q

how long is the 1st trimester?

A

3rd - 10th wk

185
Q

recommended DL for the pregnant tech is _______ mrem/mo

A

50 mrem/mo

186
Q

best approach to reducing occupational exposure?

a. maintain annual DL
b. follow ALARA
c. reduce your exposure to 1/2 the NCRP’s DL’s
d. wear protective apparel at all T’s

A

b. follow ALARA

187
Q

report about rad dose & affect to ppl

A

ICRP Report # 116

188
Q

report about rad protection of equipment/devices

A

NCRP Report # 102

189
Q

advises/recommended regulations on rad

A

NCRP/IRCP

190
Q

enforces regulations on rad

A

FDA

191
Q

on C-arm, where is there more rad? XR tube? or IR?

A

tube side

192
Q

min thickness for protective eyewear?

A

0.35 mm Pb/Eq

193
Q

what angle is there the least amount of backscatter?

A

90º (right angle)

194
Q

exposure switch (in control booth) should be at least ____ inches from any open edge of booth & must be a _______ switch

A

30”; fixed

195
Q

intermittent fluoro cuts rad by?

A

1/2

196
Q

the beams that pass through the compensating filter are _____ by comparison to the original beam

A

weaker

197
Q

I.I. acts as a what?

A

primary protective barrier of 2 mm Pb/Eq

198
Q

standards state that exposure in air from fluoro equipment shall not exceed?

A

10 R

199
Q

who is responsible for governing the use of rad. sources?

A

RSO (rad safety officer)

200
Q

what is the dose equivalent limit for hands of a tech?

A

50 rem

201
Q

primary factor in protecting tech from backscatter?

A

use pb shielding

202
Q

pb/Eq for pb aprons?

A

0.5 mm pb/eq

203
Q

how much is the rad exposure reduced if D btw pt & tech is doubled?

A

4 x’s

204
Q

a dose that is not expected to produce significant effects

A

DE limits

205
Q

DE limit a rad student may receive in 1 yr if they’re less than 18 yrs old?

A

1 mSv

Rad Bio (6 decks)

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