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Biology > Test 3: Chapter 19_Blood, and Chapter 20_Heart > Flashcards

Test 3: Chapter 19_Blood, and Chapter 20_Heart Flashcards

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1
Q

Identify the 2 layers of the serous pericardium

A

Parietal Layer and Visceral Layer

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2
Q

T or F the base of the heart is made of the L ventricle

A

False

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3
Q

What cellular arrangement allows the heart to pump as much blood as possible?

A

Spiralled

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4
Q

What creates a point of insertion for cardiac muscle, providing resistance?

A

Fibrous Skeleton

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5
Q

Valves that close when the ventricles relax

A

Semilunar Valves

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6
Q

Side of heart associated with pulmonary circulation

A

Right Side

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7
Q

Formed when the great, middle, and small coronary veins merge

A

Coronary Sinus

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8
Q

Increase in free radicals, may damage heart further

A

Reperfusion

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9
Q

Forms intercalated discs, allows free flow of Ca

A

Gap Junctions

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10
Q

Leaks from damaged heart cells

A

Creatine Kinase

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11
Q

Another name for visceral pericardium

A

Epicardium

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12
Q

Located in the right atrium

A

AV and SA Nodes

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13
Q

Descends interventricular septum

A

AV Bundle

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14
Q

Pierces the myocardium

A

Purkinje Fibers

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15
Q

Impulse rests for 1/10th second here

A

AV Node

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16
Q

Only electrical path from atria to ventricles

A

AV Bundle

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17
Q

Lays in the upper right atrium

A

SA Node

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18
Q

Near SVC opening

A

SA Node

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19
Q

Identify the branches of the L coronary artery.

A

Anterior Interventricular Artery (Left Anterior Descending Artery) and Circumflex Artery

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20
Q

Which branch of the R coronary artery lays in the posterior interventricular sulcus?

A

Middle CV

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21
Q

Identify the vessel(s) associated with the R atrium.

A

Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus

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22
Q

Identify the vessel(s) associated with the L ventricle

A

Aortic Semilunar Valve, Ascending Aorta, Descending Aorta

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23
Q

Why is the heart not prone to cramps?

A

During exercise the heart oxidizes lactic acid from skeletal muscles

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24
Q

Which layer of the pericardium prevents overstretching?

A

Fibrous Pericardium

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25
Q

A(n) ______ occurs when 2 vessels merge allowing for an alternate route of blood flow called _______.

A

Anastomoses; collateral circulation

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26
Q

T or F, Cardiac muscle is striated.

A

True

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27
Q

Identify the artery and vein in the coronary sulcus.

A

Circumflex artery and small coronary vein

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28
Q

What is the role of Ca in muscle contraction?

A

Ca binds to the regulatory protein, troponin, which allows actin and myosin filaments to begin sliding past one another which builds tension.

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29
Q

Why does the impulse rest for 1/10th of a second?

A

To allow for atrial contraction

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30
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation to the heart travels through what nerve(s)?

A

Cranial Nerve X: Vagus

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31
Q

SV (stroke volume) multiplied by HR equals?

A

Cardiac Output

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32
Q

Identify the peaks on and ECG.

A

P-Atrial depolarization, QRS Complex, T-Ventricular Depolarization

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33
Q

Which represents ventricular contraction on and ECG?

A

QRS Complex

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34
Q

Glycolipids on the surface of RBCs determine what?

A

Blood Type

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35
Q

True or False, blood is thicker than water?

A

True

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36
Q

Which plasma protein is responsible for clotting?

A

Fibrinogen

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37
Q

Give one cause of polycythemia besides blood doping,

A

Hypoxia, dehydration, EPO use by athetes

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38
Q

Identify one location of hemopoiesis in a fetus.

A

First occurs in the yolk sac, red marrow becomes the primary source 3 months prior to birth

39
Q

Identify one method used by neutrophils to destroy pathogens.

A

Phagocytosis

40
Q

Percentage of RBCs in the total blood volume

A

HCT (Hematocrit)

41
Q

Ability of a stem cell to mature into many cell types

A

Pluripotent

42
Q

Large, leaky vessel, allows cells to enter circulation

A

Sinus

43
Q

What growth factor, stimulates platelet development

A

TPO (thrombopoietin)

44
Q

Found in RBCs, binds to oxygen

A

Hemoglobin

45
Q

Found on all nucleated cells, self vs non-self.

A

MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)

46
Q

Ability of WBCs to squeeze from capillaries

A

Emigration (diapedesis)

47
Q

B cells, T cells, NK cells

A

Lymphocytes

48
Q

WBCs that release heparin and histamines

A

Basophils

49
Q

Carries iron to the liver

A

Transferrin

50
Q

Non-recycled parts of hemoglobin/RBCs are converted to this

A

Bilirubin

51
Q

Term that describes a nucleus with many lobes.

A

Polymorphonuclear

52
Q

Why do RBCs experience only anaerobic respiration?

A

Because they are not true cells and lack organelles such as mitochondria

53
Q

Identify the agranular WBCs.

A

Lymphocytes and Monocytes

54
Q

When is leukopenia a good thing?

A

Never

55
Q

How does kidney failure lead to anemia?

A

It causes a decrease in EPO

56
Q

Why do men have a higher hematocrit?

A

There are higher concentrations of testosterone in men, which stimulates the production of EPO, which stimulates RBCs, increasing the HCT in men. During reproductive years, women may have lower levels due to excessive loss of blood from menstruation.

57
Q

What is determined in a differential blood test?

A

Identifies the number and percentage of each type of WBC in a blood sample of 100 cells

58
Q

How does a WBC “find” an infection?

A

Chemotaxis, which is when chemical messengers attract the WBC to toxins or other inflamed tissue.

59
Q

Why are RBCs bi-concave?

A

Reticulocyte stage, the loss of nucleus causes the center of the cell to indent.

60
Q

What vessel is associated with the R ventricle?

A

Pulmonary trunk and arteries

61
Q

Why does the electrical impulse through the heart rest for 1/10th of a second at the AV node

A

For atrial contraction to ensure emptying of the blood

62
Q

Compare the locations of hemopoiesis in an embryo to that of an adult.

A

Hemopoiesis first occurs in the yolk sac of the embryo, then later the liver, spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes, during the three months prior to birth and throughout the adult life, the red bone marrow becomes the primary source,

63
Q

What does pluripotent mean?

A

The ability to mature into multiple types of cells

64
Q

What growth factor stimulates the development of RBCs? Platelets?

A

RBCs: EPO; Platelets: TPO

65
Q

Why are RBCs concave in shape?

A

Due to ejection of its nucleus causing it to become a reticulocyte

66
Q

Oxygen binds to what part of a hemoglobin molecule?

A

Heme

67
Q

How do the kidneys respond to hypoxia?

A

It stimulates the kidney to set up the release of EPO, speeding the development of proerythroblasts into reticulocytes in the red marrow, which will increase the RBCs allowing for more oxygen carrying capacity.

68
Q

Produce histamines during allergic reactions

A

Basophils

69
Q

First to site of bacterial infection

A

Neutrophils

70
Q

Form B and T cells

A

Lymphocytes

71
Q

Become fixed or wandering

A

Monocytes

72
Q

Combat parasitic worms

A

Eosiniphils

73
Q

Polymorphonuclear

A

Neutrophils

74
Q

Combat the effects of histamines

A

Eosinophils

75
Q

Horseshoe shaped nucleus

A

Monocytes

76
Q

Where is the MHC found and what does it determine?

A

It extends from the surface of all nucleated cells and differentiates self from non self

77
Q

Which type of WBC is responsible for tissue rejection in a transplant?

A

T cells (T lymphocytes)

78
Q

What can be determined from a differential WBC count?

A

Identifies the number and percentage of each type of WBC in a sample of 100

79
Q

Explain chemotaxis and emigration in relation to each other and WBCs.

A

Chemotaxis is when there is movement in response to a chemical change, emigration is when WBC crawl out of circulation to reach the site of an infection

80
Q

Platelets form as fragments from larger cells called…?

A

Megakaryocytes

81
Q

What causes vasoconstriction in a cut vessel?

A

Serotonin and thromboxane A2

82
Q

Plasma minus the clotting factors is called

A

Serum

83
Q

A clot in an unbroken vessel is called a

A

Thrombus

84
Q

During coagulation, thrombin and calcium convert fibrinogen into

A

Fibrin

85
Q

What vitamin is needed for 4 Clotting factors?

A

Vitamin K

86
Q

What inactive enzyme is incorporated into the clot?

A

Plasminogen

87
Q

What is iron-deficiency anemia?

A

Most common type of anemia caused by inadequate absorption of iron, excessive loss, or increased requirement.

88
Q

What is megaloblastic anemia?

A

Caused from an inadequate intake of vitamin b12 or folic acid.

89
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

Insufficient hemopoiesis as a result of the inability of the stomach to produce intrinsic factor, which is needed in the absorption of b12 in the small intestine.

90
Q

What is hemorrhagic anemia?

A

Caused from excessive loss of RBCs through bleeding

91
Q

What is Hemolytic Anemia?

A

Caused when RBC plasma membranes rupture prematurely, causing the released hemoglobin to pour into the blood and damage the filtering units (glomeruli) in the kidneys.

92
Q

What is Thalassemia?

A

When deficient synthesis of hemoglobin occurs. The RBCs are small and pale and short lived. Primarily occurs in countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea.

93
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

Destruction of the red bone marrow caused by toxins. Gamma radiation and certain medications that inhibit enzymes needed for hemopoiesis.

94
Q
A

Biology (7 decks)

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