Test 3: Chapter 19_Blood, and Chapter 20_Heart Flashcards
Identify the 2 layers of the serous pericardium
Parietal Layer and Visceral Layer
T or F the base of the heart is made of the L ventricle
False
What cellular arrangement allows the heart to pump as much blood as possible?
Spiralled
What creates a point of insertion for cardiac muscle, providing resistance?
Fibrous Skeleton
Valves that close when the ventricles relax
Semilunar Valves
Side of heart associated with pulmonary circulation
Right Side
Formed when the great, middle, and small coronary veins merge
Coronary Sinus
Increase in free radicals, may damage heart further
Reperfusion
Forms intercalated discs, allows free flow of Ca
Gap Junctions
Leaks from damaged heart cells
Creatine Kinase
Another name for visceral pericardium
Epicardium
Located in the right atrium
AV and SA Nodes
Descends interventricular septum
AV Bundle
Pierces the myocardium
Purkinje Fibers
Impulse rests for 1/10th second here
AV Node
Only electrical path from atria to ventricles
AV Bundle
Lays in the upper right atrium
SA Node
Near SVC opening
SA Node
Identify the branches of the L coronary artery.
Anterior Interventricular Artery (Left Anterior Descending Artery) and Circumflex Artery
Which branch of the R coronary artery lays in the posterior interventricular sulcus?
Middle CV
Identify the vessel(s) associated with the R atrium.
Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus
Identify the vessel(s) associated with the L ventricle
Aortic Semilunar Valve, Ascending Aorta, Descending Aorta
Why is the heart not prone to cramps?
During exercise the heart oxidizes lactic acid from skeletal muscles
Which layer of the pericardium prevents overstretching?
Fibrous Pericardium
A(n) ______ occurs when 2 vessels merge allowing for an alternate route of blood flow called _______.
Anastomoses; collateral circulation
T or F, Cardiac muscle is striated.
True
Identify the artery and vein in the coronary sulcus.
Circumflex artery and small coronary vein
What is the role of Ca in muscle contraction?
Ca binds to the regulatory protein, troponin, which allows actin and myosin filaments to begin sliding past one another which builds tension.
Why does the impulse rest for 1/10th of a second?
To allow for atrial contraction
Parasympathetic stimulation to the heart travels through what nerve(s)?
Cranial Nerve X: Vagus
SV (stroke volume) multiplied by HR equals?
Cardiac Output
Identify the peaks on and ECG.
P-Atrial depolarization, QRS Complex, T-Ventricular Depolarization
Which represents ventricular contraction on and ECG?
QRS Complex
Glycolipids on the surface of RBCs determine what?
Blood Type
True or False, blood is thicker than water?
True
Which plasma protein is responsible for clotting?
Fibrinogen
Give one cause of polycythemia besides blood doping,
Hypoxia, dehydration, EPO use by athetes
Identify one location of hemopoiesis in a fetus.
First occurs in the yolk sac, red marrow becomes the primary source 3 months prior to birth
Identify one method used by neutrophils to destroy pathogens.
Phagocytosis
Percentage of RBCs in the total blood volume
HCT (Hematocrit)
Ability of a stem cell to mature into many cell types
Pluripotent
Large, leaky vessel, allows cells to enter circulation
Sinus
What growth factor, stimulates platelet development
TPO (thrombopoietin)
Found in RBCs, binds to oxygen
Hemoglobin
Found on all nucleated cells, self vs non-self.
MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex)
Ability of WBCs to squeeze from capillaries
Emigration (diapedesis)
B cells, T cells, NK cells
Lymphocytes
WBCs that release heparin and histamines
Basophils
Carries iron to the liver
Transferrin
Non-recycled parts of hemoglobin/RBCs are converted to this
Bilirubin
Term that describes a nucleus with many lobes.
Polymorphonuclear
Why do RBCs experience only anaerobic respiration?
Because they are not true cells and lack organelles such as mitochondria
Identify the agranular WBCs.
Lymphocytes and Monocytes
When is leukopenia a good thing?
Never
How does kidney failure lead to anemia?
It causes a decrease in EPO
Why do men have a higher hematocrit?
There are higher concentrations of testosterone in men, which stimulates the production of EPO, which stimulates RBCs, increasing the HCT in men. During reproductive years, women may have lower levels due to excessive loss of blood from menstruation.
What is determined in a differential blood test?
Identifies the number and percentage of each type of WBC in a blood sample of 100 cells
How does a WBC “find” an infection?
Chemotaxis, which is when chemical messengers attract the WBC to toxins or other inflamed tissue.
Why are RBCs bi-concave?
Reticulocyte stage, the loss of nucleus causes the center of the cell to indent.
What vessel is associated with the R ventricle?
Pulmonary trunk and arteries
Why does the electrical impulse through the heart rest for 1/10th of a second at the AV node
For atrial contraction to ensure emptying of the blood
Compare the locations of hemopoiesis in an embryo to that of an adult.
Hemopoiesis first occurs in the yolk sac of the embryo, then later the liver, spleen, thymus, and lymph nodes, during the three months prior to birth and throughout the adult life, the red bone marrow becomes the primary source,
What does pluripotent mean?
The ability to mature into multiple types of cells
What growth factor stimulates the development of RBCs? Platelets?
RBCs: EPO; Platelets: TPO
Why are RBCs concave in shape?
Due to ejection of its nucleus causing it to become a reticulocyte
Oxygen binds to what part of a hemoglobin molecule?
Heme
How do the kidneys respond to hypoxia?
It stimulates the kidney to set up the release of EPO, speeding the development of proerythroblasts into reticulocytes in the red marrow, which will increase the RBCs allowing for more oxygen carrying capacity.
Produce histamines during allergic reactions
Basophils
First to site of bacterial infection
Neutrophils
Form B and T cells
Lymphocytes
Become fixed or wandering
Monocytes
Combat parasitic worms
Eosiniphils
Polymorphonuclear
Neutrophils
Combat the effects of histamines
Eosinophils
Horseshoe shaped nucleus
Monocytes
Where is the MHC found and what does it determine?
It extends from the surface of all nucleated cells and differentiates self from non self
Which type of WBC is responsible for tissue rejection in a transplant?
T cells (T lymphocytes)
What can be determined from a differential WBC count?
Identifies the number and percentage of each type of WBC in a sample of 100
Explain chemotaxis and emigration in relation to each other and WBCs.
Chemotaxis is when there is movement in response to a chemical change, emigration is when WBC crawl out of circulation to reach the site of an infection
Platelets form as fragments from larger cells called…?
Megakaryocytes
What causes vasoconstriction in a cut vessel?
Serotonin and thromboxane A2
Plasma minus the clotting factors is called
Serum
A clot in an unbroken vessel is called a
Thrombus
During coagulation, thrombin and calcium convert fibrinogen into
Fibrin
What vitamin is needed for 4 Clotting factors?
Vitamin K
What inactive enzyme is incorporated into the clot?
Plasminogen
What is iron-deficiency anemia?
Most common type of anemia caused by inadequate absorption of iron, excessive loss, or increased requirement.
What is megaloblastic anemia?
Caused from an inadequate intake of vitamin b12 or folic acid.
What is pernicious anemia?
Insufficient hemopoiesis as a result of the inability of the stomach to produce intrinsic factor, which is needed in the absorption of b12 in the small intestine.
What is hemorrhagic anemia?
Caused from excessive loss of RBCs through bleeding
What is Hemolytic Anemia?
Caused when RBC plasma membranes rupture prematurely, causing the released hemoglobin to pour into the blood and damage the filtering units (glomeruli) in the kidneys.
What is Thalassemia?
When deficient synthesis of hemoglobin occurs. The RBCs are small and pale and short lived. Primarily occurs in countries bordering the Mediterranean Sea.
What is aplastic anemia?
Destruction of the red bone marrow caused by toxins. Gamma radiation and certain medications that inhibit enzymes needed for hemopoiesis.