Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Abdomen > Test 3: Chapter 11 - Slpeen, Chapter 12 - Pancreas, and Chapter 13 - Gastrointestinal Tract > Flashcards

Test 3: Chapter 11 - Slpeen, Chapter 12 - Pancreas, and Chapter 13 - Gastrointestinal Tract Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following statements is false?
A. the uncinate process is posterior to the superior mesenteric artery.
B. The head of the pancreas is superior to the caudate lobe
C. The gastroduodenal artery is the anterolateral border of the head
D.The head of the pancreas is anterior to the IVC

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The head of the pancreas is inferior to the ________ of the liver?
A. right lobe
B. Caudate lobe
C. Right lateral fissure
D. Left lateral fissure

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The ________ passes through a groove posterior to the pancreatic head.
A. Gastroduodenal artery
B. Superior mesenteric vein
C. Hepatic duct
D. Common bile duct

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The tail of the pancreas is located:
A. anterior to the right kidney, near the liver hilum
B. anterior to the left kidney, near the splenic hilum
C. posterior to the right kidney, near the liver hilum
D. posterior to the left kidney, near the splenic hilum

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The primary pancreatic duct is the duct of __________.
A. Ampulla
B. Santorini
C. Wrisung
D. Vater

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An older man with a history of alcoholism is recently diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. His hematocrit and hypotension levels are decreased. Your differential diagnosis should include:
A. chronic pancreatitis
B. hemorrhagic pancreatitis
C. pseudocyst
D. cholecystitis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient with painless jaundice, weight loss, and a decrease in appetite should be evaluated for:
A. Cholecystitis
B. Adenocarcinoma of the pancreas
C. Pancreatic pseudocyst
D. Pancreatitis

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The sonographic appearance of a normal pancreas is typically _______ or ______ to the liver?
A. isoechoic;hyperechoic
B. Hypoechoic;anechoic
C. isoechoic;hypoechoic
D. hyperechoic;anechoic

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Clinical signs and symptoms in acute pancreatitis include all of the following except:
A. elevated amylase
B. nasuea and vomiting
C. severe abdominal pain radiating to the back
D. severe abdominal pain radiating to the right shoulder

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States is:
A. colitis
B. biliary tract disease
C. pancreatic malignancy
D. alcohol intake

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the cells that perform exocrine function?
A. Amylase
B. Acini cells
C. Lipase
D. Pseudocyst

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the enzyme secreted by the pancreas to aid in the digestion of carbohydrates?
A. Lipase
B. Amylase
C. Hypercalcemia
D. SMA

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the portion of the pancreas that has an endocrine function and produces insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin?
A. Body of the pancreas
B. SMA
C. Islets of Langerhans
D. Acini cells

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the pancreatic enzyme that breaks down fats; enzyme is elevated in pancreatitis and remains increased longer than amylase?
A. amylase
B. acini cells
C. lipase
D. pseudocyst

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the condition in which fat levels are elevated contributing to pancreatitis?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Lipase
D. Amylase

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a space or cavity that contains fluid?
A. Pseudocyst
B. Body of pancreas
C. SMA

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are elevated levels of calcium in the blood?
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Hypercalcemia

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What lies in the mid epigastrium anterior to the SMA, SMV, AO, and IVC.
A. Body of the pancreas
B. Tail of the pancreas
C. Head of the pancreas

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What serves as the posterior border to the body of the pancreas?
A. SMV
B. SMA
C. PV
D. CBD

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What serves as the lateral border of the heead of the pancreas?
A. Loop of the duodenum
B. Body of the pancreas
C. Tail of the pancreas
D. Head of the pancreas

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the small accessory duct found in the head of the pancreas?
A. Duct of Wirsung
B. Duct of Santorini
C. Common bile duct

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the largest duct that drains the tail, body and head of pancreas; joins the common bile duct to enter the duodenum through ampulla of vater?
A. Duct of santorini
B. Hepatic duct
C. CBD
D. Duct of Wirsung

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the union of the superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein to form the main portal vein?
A. CBD
B. Portal confluence
C. SV
D. HV

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the production of the hormone insulin?
A. Endocrine
B. Exocrine

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the production and digestion of pacreatic juice?
A. Endocrine
B. Exocrine

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the hormone that causes glycogen formation from glucose in the liver and allows cells within insulin receptors to take up glucose?
A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Lipase
D. Amylase

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What stimulates the liver to convert glycogen to glucose?
A. Glucagon
B. Insulin
C. Amylase
D. Lipase

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the small opening in the duodenum in which the pancreatic and common bile duct enter to release secretions?
A. CBD
B. CHD
C. Ampulla of Vater
D. Sphincter of Oddi

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the small muscle that guards the ampulla of vater?
A. Ampulla of vater
B. Sphincter of oddi
C. Glucagon
D. Acini cells

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which one of the following statements about the spleen is false?
A. The spleen lies inferiror to the diaphragm
B. The spleen lies posterior to the hypochondrium
C. The spleen is located within the retroperitoneum
D. The normal adult spleen measures approx 7 cm in width

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Splenomegaly may result from all of the following except:
A. Congestion
B. Trauma
C. Subphrenic abscess
D. Collagen vascular disease

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The normal sonographic appearance of the splenic parenchyma is:
A. Homogeneous and similar to the liver
B. Heterogeneous
C. Hyperechoic compared with the liver
D. Hypoechoic compared with the kidney

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When accessory spleens are present, they are usually located:
A. near the kidney
B. near the hilum of the spleen
C. at the inferior margin of the spleen
D. on the posterior aspect of the spleen

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The splenic vein courses along the posterior border of the:
A. pancreas
B. adrenal gland
C. spleen
D. kidney

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which one of the following may cause a splenic rupture?
A. hemangioma
B. Infarction
C. Complicated cyst
D. Metastic tumor

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A spleen that has migrated from its normal location is termed a(n):
A. Splenomegaly
B. Accessory spleen
C. Ectopic spleen
D. Wandering spleen

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Massive splenomegaly is most likely the result of:
A. Infection
B. Myelofibrosis
C. Leukemia
D. Portal hypertension

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Primary tumors that may metastasize to the spleen originate from all of the following strutures except the:
A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Ovary
D. Stomach

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The best patient position to evaluate the spleen is:
A. left posterior oblique
B. right decubitus
C. supine
D. left lateral decubitus

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which one of the following structures is often visualized on a saittal ultrasound as a “bulls-eye” or target pattern anterior to the aorta and posterior to the left lobe of the liver?
A. Common bile duct
B. Gastroesophageal juction
C. Ligamentum teres
D. Pancreatic duct

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Small bowel obstruction is associated with:
A. dilation of the bowel loops distal to the site of the obstruction
B. dilation of the bowel loops proximal to the site of the obstruction
C. collapsed bowel loops proximal to the site of the obstruction
D. polypoid masses throughout the obstruction

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Acute appendicitis may be seen on a transverese sonogram as a ________ mass.
A. Target-shaped
B. hyperechoic
C.hypoechoic
D. Anechoic

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The _______ has a target shape and is located in the midline anterior to the pancreas body.
A. fundus
B. gastric antrum
C. pyloric canal
D. body

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The appendix is located at:
A. Mubarney’s point
B. McBurney’s point
C. Iliac crest
D. McBurney’s sign

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The maximum outer diameter of the normal appendix can measure up to _______ millimeters (mm).
A. 6
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A diverticulum is most common in the:
A. small intestines
B. ileum
C. stomach
D. colon

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The most common tumor of the gastrointestinal tract in children under 10 years of age is:
A. leiomyoma
B. lymphoma
C. fecalith
D. polyp

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The celiac axis, superior mesenteric artery, and _________ artery supply both the small and large intestines.
A. renal
B. splenic
C. lumbar
D. inferior mesenteric

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The progression of acute appendicitis to frank perforation is more rapid in:
A. preschool children
B. senior citizens
C. adults
D. elementary school children

A

A

50
Q

Symptoms of appendiceal mucoceles may include all of the following except:
A. sepsis
B. bloating
C. urinary symptoms
D. asymptomatic

A

B

51
Q

Gastrointestinal leiomyosarcomas most commonly occur in the:
A. jejunum
B. ascending colon
C. ileum
D. duodenum

A

C

52
Q

What is known as the digestive tract; includes mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, duodenum, small and large intestine.
A. Pyloric canal
B. Villi
C. Alimentary canal
D. Cardiac orifice

A

C

53
Q

What is the entrance of the esophagus into the stomach?
A. Rugae
B. Villi
C. Cardiac orifice
D. Pyloric canal

A

C

54
Q

What is the normal segmentation of the wall of the colon?
A. Villi
B. Rugae
C. Mesentary
D. Haustra

A

D

55
Q

What is the canal located between the stomach and proximal duodenum?
A. Alimentary canal
B. Pyloric canal

A

B

56
Q

What are the inner folds of the stomach?
A. rugae
B. villi
C. haustra
D. mesentary

A

A

57
Q

What are the inner folds of the small intestine?
A. rugae
B. mesentary
C. villi
D. haustra

A

C

58
Q

What projects from parietal peritoneum and attaches to the small intestine, anchoring it to the posterior abdominal wall?
A. Accessory spleen
B. Mesentery
C. Villi
D. Polyp

A

B

59
Q

What results from he failure of fusion of separate splenic masses forming on the dorsal mesograstricum;
A. No spleen
B. Accessory spleen
C. Wandering spleen
D. Leukopenia

A

B

60
Q

What are phagocytic cells found in the liver and spleen comprising the reticuloendothelial system; plays a role in the synthesis of blood?
A. Reticuloendothelial cells
B. Leukopenia
C. Villi

A

A

61
Q

What is an abnormal decreases in white blood cells?
A. leukopenia
B. phagocytosis
C. polycythemia
D. wandering spleen

A

A

62
Q

What is the spleen that has migrated from its normal location in LUQ?
A. Accessory spleen
B. Wandering spleen
C. No spleen

A

B

63
Q

What is the definition of new growth?

A

Neoplasm

64
Q

What is a rare congenital abnormality that is most likely inherited?
A. Caoli’s disease
B. Dilated biliary ducts
C. Extrahepatic biliary obstruction

A

A

65
Q

What is the classic sign for Caroli’s disease dilated duct surrounding the adjacent hepatic atery and portal vein?
A. Central dot
B. Target sign
C. Murphy’s point

A

A

66
Q

Hepatic duct _______ mm or more is suspicious and requires further investigation.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9

A

B

67
Q

What are the three primary areas for obstruction to occur?

A

Intrahepatic, suprapancreatic, and porta hepatic

68
Q

What is a uncommon cause for extrahepatic biliary obstruction and patients presents with painful jaundice?

A

Mirizzi Syndrome

69
Q

What is a normal size of a hepatic duct?
A. < 9 mm
B. 6 mm
C. < 7 mm
D. 10 mm

A

C

70
Q

Sonographic findings:
- intrahepatic duct dilation
- normal size CBD
- large stone in neck of GB or cystic duct

What is it?

A

Mirizzi syndrome

71
Q

What is primary choledocholithiasis?
A. stones formed in ducts secondary to structures or dilation of bile ducts leading to bile stasis
B. stones migrated from GB

A

A

72
Q

What is secondary choledocholithiasis?
A. stones formed in ducts secondary to structures or dilation of bile ducts leading to bile stasis
B. stones migrated from GB

A

B

73
Q

What is blood in the biliary tree secondary to surgical intervention or liver biopsy, malignancy?
A. hemobilia
B. Pneuomobilia

A

A

74
Q

What is air in the biliary tree secondary to surgical intervention such as CBD stents, biliary-enteric anastomoses or emphysematous cholecystitis, prolonged acute cholecystitis.
A. hemobilia
B. pneuomobilia

A

B

75
Q

_________ cholangitis and ______ cholangitis are other names for cholangitis.
A. bacterial; stones
B. neoplasm; cysts
C. sclerosing; AIDS
D. AIDS; ascariasis

A

C

76
Q

Cholangitis is medical emergency as it develops increasing pressure in biliary tree with pus accumulation

T or F

A

T

77
Q

What is a parasitic roundworm that uses fecal-oral route of transmission?
A. Ascariasis
B. Cholangiocarcinoma
C. Caroli’s disease
D. Cholangitis

A

A

78
Q

What is the ascending colon arise from the right lower quadrant to ben at this point to form the transverse colon?
A. Hepatic flexure
B. Muscularis
C. Splenic flexure
D. Diverticulum

A

A

79
Q

What is the congenital sac or blind pouch found in the lower portion of the ileum?
A. Morrison’s pouch
B. Muscularis
C. Meckel’s diverticulum
D. Diaphragm

A

C

80
Q

What is the third layer of the bowel?
A. Rugae
B. Mesentery
C. Muscularis
D. Villi

A

C

81
Q

What is the transverse colon travels horizontally across the abdomen and bends at this point to form the descending colon?
A. Splenic flexure
B. Hepatic flexure

A

A

82
Q

What is fecalith or calcification located in the appendix?
A. Rugae
B. Appendicolith
C. Choledocholithiasis

A

B

83
Q

What is located by drawing a line from the right anterosuperior iliac spine to the umbilicus; at approximately the midpoint of this line?
A. McBurney’s point
B. Murphys point
C. McBurney’s sign

A

A

84
Q

What is a rare malignancy that originates within large bile ducts?
A. Cholangiocarcinoma
B. HCC
C. Adenoma
D. RCC

A

A

85
Q

What is the least common location for cholangiocarcinoma?
A. intrahepatic
B. extrahepatic

A

A

86
Q

Intrahepatic Cholangiocarcinoma is the second most common primary malignancy of the liver?

T or F

A

T

87
Q

What is another name for Hilar Cholangiocarcinoma?
A. Klatskin’s tumor
B. Wilms tumor
C. Nephroblastoma

A

Klatskin’s tumor

88
Q

Hilar cholangiocarcinoma or Klatskin’s tumor occurs at the bifurcation of CHD

T or F

A

T

89
Q

The pancreas is a retroperitoneal cavity

t or f

A

T

90
Q

What is the primary duct extending the length of the pancreas?
A. duct of wirsung
B. duct of santorini

A

A

91
Q

What is the secondary duct that drains upper anterior head of pancreas?
A. duct of wirsung
B. duct of santorini

A

B

92
Q

What is the normal length for the pancreas?
A. 12-18 cm
B. 25 cm
C. 10 cm
D. 8 cm

A

A

93
Q

Branches of _________ feed the body and tail
A. splenic artery
B. celiac axis
C. pancreaticoduodenal artery
D. superior mesenteric artery

A

A

94
Q

Branches of ___________ arteries supply the head of the pancreas
A. Splenic artery
B. Pancreaticoduodenal artery
C. Hepatic artery
D. Splenic vein

A

B

95
Q

What is the most common primary neoplasm of the pancreas? And is the most common non-function islet cell-tumor and is malignant?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Insulinoma
C. Gastrionoma

A

A

96
Q

What is the most common functioning islet-cell tumor and usually benign?
A. Gastrionoma
B. Insulinoma

A

B

97
Q

What is the 2nd most common islet cell functioning tumor that is usually malignant?
A. Insulinoma
B. Gastrionoma

A

B

98
Q

You can’t live without a spleen

T or F

A

F

99
Q

What is a rare medical disease caused by the loss or weakening of the ligaments that help to hold the spleen stationary?

A

Wandering spleen

100
Q

What happens when there is caudal displacement of the spleen?
A. LUQ masses
B. Splenic cyst
C. Left pleural effusion
D. All of the above

A

D

101
Q

What happens when there is cephalic displacements of the spleen?
A. Volume loss of left lung
B. left lobe pneumonia
C. Paralysis of the left hemi-diaphragm
D. Large abdominal mass
E. All of the above

A

E

102
Q

The accessory spleen is the most common anomaly

T or F

A

T

103
Q

What is the spleen’s main function?

A

Its filtering process

104
Q

What does the spleen serve as a reservoir for?

A

Blood and filters and purifies the blood and lymph fluid that flows through it.

105
Q

What are the functions related to erythrocytes (RBC’s)
A. reservoir and storage
B. recycling and filtering
C. Disposal and cleansing
D. All of the above

A

D

106
Q

The splenic vein travels horizontally and _____ to join the ____ to form the MPV
A. laterally; SMA
B. anteriorly; HPV
C. medially; SMV
D. posteriorly; PV

A

C

107
Q

The upper limit of normal for an adult spleen is less than ____ cm?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 7
D. 13

A

D

108
Q

The spleen is a retroperitoneal organ?

T or F

A

F it is intraperitoneal

109
Q

Splenic abscess are uncommon

T or F

A

T

110
Q

What are the clinical findings for a splenic abscess?

A

May be subtle, fever, LUQ, tenderness,
abdominal pain, left shoulder and flank pain, splenomegaly

111
Q

What is the most common cause is occlusion of the major splenic artery or any of its branches?
A. splenic infarction
B. AIDS
C. Hepatosplenic candidiasis

A

A

112
Q

Splenic cysts are classified as ______ or _______ in origin
A. anechoic; isoechoic
B. heterogenous; hyperechoic
C. parasitic; nonparasitic
D. parascitic; hyperechoic

A

C

113
Q

Echinococcus is the only parasite that forms splenic cysts

T or F

A

T

114
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of hemangioma

A

Hydatid cyst, abscess, dermoid cyst, metastasis

115
Q

Patient is asymptomatic. Tumor may be solitary or multiple and is considered well-defined but not encapsulated.
A. Hamartoma
B. Hemangiosarcoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Cyst

A

A

116
Q

What is a malignant neoplasm arising from the vascular endothelium of the spleen?
A. Lymphoma
B. Hemangiosarcoma
C. Carcinoma
D. HCC

A

B

117
Q

The spleen is commonly invloved with lymphoma

T or F

A

T

118
Q

The spleen is the 5th most common site of metastases

T or F

A

F it is the tenth

119
Q

What size in length is considered enlargement of the spleen?
A. > 9 cm
B. > 20 cm
C. > 13 cm
D. 8cm

A

C

120
Q

Gaucher disease is pediatric focused primarily

T or F

A

T

Abdomen (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions