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Abdomen > Final Flashcards > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is undesccended testes-testicle remains within the abdomen or groin and fail to descend into the scrotal sac?
A. Epididymitis
B. Scrotum
C. Cryptorchidism
D. Verumontanum

A

C.

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2
Q

What are cyst filled with clear, serous fluid located in the epididymis?
A. Pyocele
B. Epidydimal cysts
C. Hydrocele
D. Hematocyle

A

B

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3
Q

What is inflammation of the epididymis?

A

Epididymitis

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4
Q

What is blood located between the visceral and parietal layers of the tunica vaginalis?
A. Hematocrit
B. Hematocele
C. Hydrocele
D. Pyocele

A

B

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5
Q

What is fluid formed between the visceral and parietal layers of the tunica vaginalis?
A. Pyocele
B. Hematocele
C. Hydrocele
D. Varicocele

A

C

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6
Q

What is puss located between the visceral and parietal layers of the tunica vaginalis?
A. Pyocele
B. Varicocele
C. Vas deferens
D. Scrotum

A

A

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7
Q

What is the sac containing the testes and epididymis?
A. Testicle
B. Scrotum
C. Vas deferens
D. Pampiniform plexus

A

B

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8
Q

What is the maile gonad that produces hormones that include masculine features and spermatozoa?
A. Vas deferens
B. Testicle
C. Scrotum
D. Verumontanum

A

B

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9
Q

What are dilated veins in the pampiniform plexus?
A. Varicocele
B. Vas deferens
C. Pyocele
D. Hydrocele

A

A

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10
Q

What is the junction of the ejaculatory ducts with the urethra?
A. Verumontanum
B. Vas deferens
C. Varicocele
D. Testicle

A

A

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11
Q

What is the tube that connects the epididymis to the seminal vesicle?
A. Variocele
B. Scrotum
C. Vas deferens
D. Pampiniform plexus

A

C

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12
Q

What is the plexus of veins in the spermatic cord that drain into the right and left testicular veins?
A. Testicle
B. Varicocele
C. Pampiniform plexus
D. Verumontanum

A

C

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13
Q

The diameter of a Varicocele measures more than ______ mm?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

A

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14
Q

The testes are covered by a fibrous capsule formed by the:
A. Cowpers fascia
B. Tunica albuginea
C. Dartos muscle
D. Cremaster muscle

A

B

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15
Q

The testes measure:
A. 6 cm long, 3 cm in diameter (ap), 3 cm wide
B. 5 cm long, 2 cm in diameter (ap), 2 cm wide
C. 4 cm long, 3 cm in diameter (ap), 3 cm wide
D. 2 cm long, 5 cm in diameter (ap), 5 cm wide

A

C

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16
Q

Sonographic characteristics of the normal testis include a(n):
A. Inhomogeneous pattern with dense internal echoes
B. Homogenous pattern with medium-level echoes
C. Inhomogeneous pattern with medium-level echoes
D. Homogeneous pattern with low-level echoes

A

B

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17
Q

The epididymis courses ______ to the testis.
A. Superior and posterolaterally
B. Posterior and inferior
C. Anterior and inferior
D. Anterior and superior

A

A.

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18
Q

The most common cause of acute scrotal pain in the adolescent is:
A. Testicular torsion
B. Epididymitis
C. An inguinal hernia
D. A Varicocele

A

A

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19
Q

Common causes of Hydrocele include all of the following except:
A. Epididymo-orchitis
B. Microlithiasis
C. Trauma
D. Testicular torsion

A

B

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20
Q

Which one of the following statements about varicoceles is false?
A. Secondary varicoceles develop from compression of the spermatic vein
B. Varicoceles refer to dilated, serpiginous, and elongated veins of the Pampiniform plexus
C. Varicoceles are more common on the right side of the scrotum
D. Primary varicoceles result from incompetent valves in the spermatic vein

A

C. It’s to the left

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21
Q

A Seminoma of the testicle generally appears on ultrasound as a(n) ______ mass.
A. Anechoic
B. Hypoechoic
C. Complex
D. Hyperechoic

A

B

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22
Q

Epididymo-orchitis most commonly results from a:
A. Virus
B. Trauma
C. Sexually transmitted disease
D. Bladder infection

A

D

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23
Q

The primary source of blood flow to the testicles is via the______ arteries.
A. Internal iliac
B. Centripetal
C. Renal
D. Testicular

A

D.

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24
Q

Microlithiasis of the testis is associated with a(n):
A. Inguinal hernia
B. Spermatocele
C. Hydrocele
D. Malignant neoplasm

A

D

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25
Q

Compared with the testis, the epididymis typically appears:
A. Hypoechoic
B. Anechoic
C. Homogenous
D. Hyperechoic

A

A

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26
Q

The thyroid is an endocrine gland that regulates metabolic function through the production of all the following except:
A. Triiodothyronine
B. Thyroxalcitonin
C. Thyroxine
D. Thyroliberin

A

D

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27
Q

The normal dimensions of the thyroid gland are:
A. 3 cm length, 5 cm width, 2 cm depth
B. 6 cm length, 3 cm width, 3 cm depth
C. 5 cm length, 2 cm width, 2 cm depth
D. 4 cm length, 5 cm width, 2 cm depth

A

C

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28
Q

The lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by:
A. Island tissue
B. The isthmus
C. Ismal tissue
D. Parathyroid tissue

A

B

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29
Q

All of the following structures are adjacent to the thyroid gland in some way except the:
A. Parotid muscle
B. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Strap muscles
D. Longus colli muscle

A

A

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30
Q

Which on of the following structure lies medial to the left thyroid lobe?
A. Larynx
B. Strap muscles
C. Jugular vein
D. Longus colli muscle

A

A

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31
Q

The most common cause of thyroid disorders worldwide is which one of the following?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Autoimmune process
C. Iodine deficiency
D. Iron deficiency

A

C

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32
Q

Common disorders associated with hyperthyroidism include all of the following except:
A. Graves’ disease
B. Toxic multinodular goiter
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. Toxic adenoma

A

C

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33
Q

Which one of the following sonographic features of a thyroid adenoma is the most common?
A. Irregular margins
B. Complex echo pattern
C. Hypoechoic peripheral halo
D. Hyperechoic mass

A

C

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34
Q

The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that affects the:
A. Liver, colon, and kidneys
B. Kidneys, heart, and colon
C. Gastrointestinal tract, breast, and scrotum
D. Kidneys, bones, and gastrointestinal tract

A

D

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35
Q

The normal parathyroid glands are located on the ______ and the ______ surface of the thyroid gland
A. Posterior; medial
B. Posterior; lateral
C. Anterior; lateral
D. Anterior; medial

A

A

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36
Q

Usually ______ parathyroid glands exist
A. Four
B. Two
C. Five
D. Three

A

A

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37
Q

A solitary thyroid nodule in the presence of ipsilateral lymphadenopathy suggests which one of the following?
A. Follicular carcinoma
B. Graves’ disease
C. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
D. Adenoma

A

A

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38
Q

The most common cause of primary hyperparathryroidism is which one of the following?
A. Thyroid adenoma
B. Parathyroid adenoma
C. Parathyroid cyst
D. Parathyroid hemorrhagic cyst

A

B

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39
Q

Which one of the following structures lies posterolateral to the thyroid gland?
A. Omohyoid muscle
B. Longus colli muscle
C. Esophagus
D. Sternocleidomastoid muscle

A

B

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40
Q

Hyperfunction of all parathyroid glands with no apparent cause occurs with which one of the following?
A. Secondary hyperplasia of the thyroid gland
B. Primary hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
C. Secondary hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

B

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41
Q

Increased vascularity with color Doppler, termed the thyroid inferno, is observed in __________.
A. De Quervain thyroiditis
B. Hashimotos disease
C. Graves’ disease
D. Papillary carcinoma

A

C

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42
Q

The most common cause of thyroid malignancy is ___________ carcinoma.
A. Follicular
B. Medullary
C. Anaplastic
D. Papillary

A

D

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43
Q

An abnormal lymph node demonstrates which one of the following?
A. Central echogenic complex
B. Oval contour
C. Round contour
D. Homogenous texture

A

C

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44
Q

What is the thyroid hormone that is important for maintaining a desne, strong bone matrix and regulating the blood calcium level:
A. Calcitonin
B. TSH
C. T4
D. T3

A

A

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45
Q

What refers to a normal functioning thyroid gland?
A. Isthums
B. Euthyroid
C. Pyramidal lobe
D. Calcitonin

A

B

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46
Q

What is the over secretion of thyroid hormones?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Hypophosphatasia

A

C

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47
Q

What is a low phosphatase level; sometimes seen wiht hyperparathyroidism?
A. Euthyroid
B. Isthmus
C. Hypophosphatasia
D. Hyperthyroidism

A

C

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48
Q

What is the small piece of thyroid tissue connecting the right and left lobes of the gland?
A. Pyramidal lobe
B. Isthmus
C. RT lobe
D. LT lobe

A

B

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49
Q

What hormone is secreted by the parathyroid glands, which regulate serum calcium levels?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Calcitonin

A

A

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50
Q

What is present in small percentage of patients; extends superiorly from the isthmus pyramidal lobe?
A. Pyramidal lobe
B. Cyst
C. Isthums
D. Thyroid

A

A

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51
Q

What is a remnant of embryonic development that appears as a cyst in the neck?
A. Lymphadenopathy
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Brachial cleft cyst
D. Lobe

A

C

52
Q

What is the disorder associated with elevated serum calcium level, usually caused by a benign parathyroid adenoma?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

A

53
Q

What are swollen lymph nodes?
A. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism
C. Graves Disease
D. Lymphadenopathy

A

D

54
Q

What is the enlargement of multiple parathyroid glands?
A. Parathyroid hyperplasia
B. Graves disease
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

A

55
Q

What is the over secretion of parathyroid hormones, usually from a parathyroid adenoma?
A. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
B. Primary hyperparathyroidism

A

B

56
Q

What is the enlargement of parathyroid glands in patients with real failure or vitamin D deficiency?
A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

B

57
Q

What is the congenital anomalie that presents in the midline of the neck anterior to the trachea?
A. Graves disease
B. Hasimoto’s disease
C. Thyroglossal duct cysts
D. Brachial cleft cyst

A

C

58
Q

What is the autoimmune disorder of diffuse toxic goiter characterized by bulging eyes?
A. Hasimotos disease
B. Graves disease

A

B

59
Q

What is chronic inflammation of the thyroid gland caused by the formation of antibodies against normal thyroid tissue?
A. Graves disease
B. Hasimoto’s thyroiditis

A

B

60
Q

What is the inflammation of the thyroid?

A

Thyroidisits

61
Q

What is the cancer that forms in the follicular cells in the thyroid and grows in small finger-like shapes?
A. Exopthalmos
B. HCC
C. Papillary carcinoma
D. Adenocarcinoma

A

C

62
Q

What is the term for bulging eyes?

A

Exophthalmos

63
Q

The transjugular intrahepatic portosystemin shunt (TIPS) is _______ based procedure designed to decompress the portal venous system by connecting the portal system with the ________ system via a stent
A. surgical; Vena cava
B. surgical; hepatic arterial
C. catheter; hepatic venous
D. catheter; gall bladder biliary

A

C

64
Q

The most common tumor sites that can spread carcinoma to the biliary tree include all of the following except:
A. melanoma
B. breast
C. colon
D. kidney

A

D

65
Q

The most common cause of biliary ductal obstruction is the presence of a ductal:
A. stricture
B. cyst
C. stone
D. tumor

A

D

66
Q

Splenic infarction is most commonly the result of:
A. Splenic trauma
B. splenomegaly
C. pneumonia
D. cardiac emboli

A

D

67
Q

What sonographic signs are present in the patient with histoplasmosis?
A. atrophy
B. adenomas
C. bright echoes
D. cystic masses

A

C

68
Q

All of the following are functions of the spleen except?
A. production of lymphocytes
B. destruction of red blood cells
C. production of plasma cells
D. destruction of white blood cells

A

B

69
Q

Atrophy of the spleen may be found in all of the following except:
A. sickle cell anemia
B. normal individuals
C. cirrhosis
D. wasting diseases

A

C

70
Q

The spleen has two components joined at the hilum; they are the _______ and _______ components.
A. Superior; inferior
B. superolateral; inferomedial
C. anterior; posterior
D. superomedial; inferolateral

A

D

71
Q

A common course of enzyme destruction via the pancreas is fluid accumulation in the:
A. lesser sac
B. greater omentum
C. greater sac
D. lesser omentum

A

A

72
Q

The normal size of the pancreatic duct at the pancreatic head is less than ______ mm.
A. 6
B. 3
C. 5
D. 1

A

B

73
Q

The normal dimension of the pancreatic head is usually less than _________.
A. 1 cm
B. 3 cm
C. 2-3 cm
D. 2 cm

A

C

74
Q

If the celiac axis is well visualized, the sonographer should move the transducer in the ________ direction to image the pancreas.
A. anterior
B. posterior
C. superior
D. inferior

A

D

75
Q

The splenic artery is considered to be along the ________ border of the pancreas.
A. lateral
B. superior
C. inferior
D. posterior

A

B

76
Q

In cases of acute pancreatitis, the parenchyma of the pancreas generally appears:
A. hypoechoic
B. echogenic
C. calcified
D. homogeneous

A

A

77
Q

The pancreas is found behind the __________ omental sac.
A. greater
B. superior
C. inferior
D. lesser

A

D

78
Q

The persistence of the dorsal and ventral pancreas with the head encircling the duodenum is called:
A. hypoplasia
B. annular pancreas
C. cystic fibrosis
D. agenesis

A

B

79
Q

The head of the pancreas lies:
A. medial to the eduodenum
B. posterior to the aorta
C. lateral to the inferior vena cava
D. anterior to the liver

A

A

80
Q

A serum ________ level of twice normal usually indicates acute pancreatitis.
A. aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
B. alkaline phosphatase
C. lipase
D. amylase

A

D

81
Q

Which one of the following veins courses in a sagittal place and passes posterior to the neck of the pancreas?
A. main portal
B. Splenic
C. Superior mesenteric
D. Inferior mesenteric

A

C

82
Q

An extremely large echogenic renal sinus that appears to engulf the entire renal parenchymal outline suggests:
A. hypernephroma
B. hydronephrosis
C. nephrocalcinosis
D. lipomatosis

A

D

83
Q

Outside the renal capsule is the:
A. renal medulla
B. renal fascia
C. paranephric space
D. perinephric fat

A

D

84
Q

A cystlike enlargement of the distal end of the ureter is called a:
A. diverticulum
B. urachal cyst
C. ureterocele
D. cystitis

A

C

85
Q

A dilated renal pelvis without ureteral dilation is observed in patients with:
A. ureterocele
B. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
C. hydronephrosis
D. posterior urethral valve obstruction

A

B

86
Q

The greater curvature of the stomach is supported by all of the following ligaments except:
A. gastrophrenic ligament
B. greater omentum
C. gastrosplenic ligament
D. gastrohepatic ligament

A

D

87
Q

Metastatic disease to the stomach may be secondary to all of the following except:
A. melanoma
B. breast
C. prostate
D. lung

A

C

88
Q

Which one of the following is an embryologic mistake?
A. gastric bezoar
B. polyp
C. leiomyoma
D. duplication cyst

A

D

89
Q

The “keyboard” sign is seen in the:
A. colon
B. duodenum
C. appendix
D. stomach

A

B

90
Q

What is the right, anterior, superior segment of the liver numbered as according to Couinaud’s System of Hepatic Nomenclature?
A. segment 4
B. Segment 7
C. Segment 8
D. Segment 6

A

C

91
Q

What is the right, posterior, inferior, segment of the liver numbered as according to Couinaud’s system of hepatic nomenclature?
A. segment 3
B. segment 5
C. segment 6
D. segment 7

A

C

92
Q

In focal fatty sparing, the most common affected areas include anterior to gallbladder wall; anterior to portal vein; and _______________.
A. posterior to the gallbladder wall
B. posterior to the portal vein
C. periportal segment of RT lobe liver
D. None of these are correct
E. All of these are correct

A

D

93
Q

Which one of the following is noted in type 1 glycogen storage disease?
A. small liver and hypoechoic parenchyma
B. Hyperechoic, attenuating liver and hepatomegaly
C. Normal texuture and hepatomegaly
D. Normal texture and prominent intrahepatic biliary ducts

A

B

94
Q

Fatty infiltration may be observed in all patients except those with:
A. diabetes mellitus
B. chronic alcholism
C. hepatoportal fistula
D. hepatitis

A

C

95
Q

An increase in portal venous pressure or hepatic venous gradient is defined as:
A. liver hypotension
B. portal hypertension
C. portal hypotension
D. venous blood thrombosis

A

B

96
Q

In cases of choledocholithiasis, stones tend to lodge in the:
A. pancreatic duct
B. common bile duct
C. ampulla of vater
D. common hepatic duct

A

C

97
Q

The hepatic duct is joined by the _________ to form the _________.
A. pancreatic duct; cystic duct
B. cystic duct; common bile duct
C. common bile duct; cystic duct
D. right hepatic duct; common bile duct

A

B

98
Q

The normal diameter of the common hepatic duct is approx _______ mm.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

A

C

99
Q

The valves of Heister are tiny valves found within the:
A. cystic duct
B. common bile duct
C. pancreatic duct
D. common hepatic duct

A

A

100
Q

The sonographic appearance of cholelithiasis is best described as:
A. nonshadowing, mobile, hyperechoic focus
B. mobile, hyperechoic focus demonstrating posterior shadowing
C. immobile, echogenic focus demonstrating a comet-tail artifact
D. mobile, hypoechoic focus demonstrating posterior shadowing

A

B

101
Q

Thickening of the gallbladder wall may be caused by all of the following except:
A. hepatitis
B. pancreatitis
C. adenomyomatosis
D. cholecystitis

A

B

102
Q

The physiologic effect of a fatty meal includes all of the following except:
A. stimulation of cholecystokinin (CCK)
B. contraction of the gallbladder
C. decreased bile flow to the liver
D. relaxation of the sphicter of oddi

A

C

103
Q

A fusiform dilation of the common bile duct is known as:
A. a choledochal cyst
B. adenomyomastosis
C. cholangitis
D. a phrygian cap

A

A

104
Q

Patients positive for AIDS are at risk for developing:
A. hepatitis
B. cholangitis
C. pancreatitis
D. nephritis

A

B

105
Q

The distal duct lies ________ with the anterior wall of the inferior vena cava (IVC)
A. parallel
B. perpendicular
C. lateral
D. horizontal

A

A

106
Q

What is the most common cause of painless scrotal swelling?
A. Hydrocele
B. Pyocele
C. Epididymo-orchitis

A

A

107
Q

Anomaly termed _____ ______ ______ is the most common cause of torsion

A

Bell clapper deformity

108
Q

Torsion is the most common cause of acute pain in adolescent?

T or F

A

T

109
Q

Extratesticular mass varicoceles is more common in infertile men?

T or F

A

T

110
Q

What is the volume formula?

A

L X W X H X .523

111
Q

The adrenal glands are the fourth most common site in the body for metastasis

T or F

A

T

112
Q

The second most common primary retroperitoneal tumor is a leiomyosarcoma

T or F

A

T

113
Q

What are tiny cysts that range in size from .2-2.5 cm (note multiple tiny cysts)
A. Simple cysts
B. Complex cysts
C. Peribiliary cysts

A

C

114
Q

What are the clinical signs of pyogenic abscess

A

Fever, pain, n/v, diarrhea, increased LFT’s

115
Q

What has the sographic findings of multiple small hypoechoic masses with echogenic central core reffered to as a ‘bull-eye target lesions or ‘wheel within a wheel pattern
A. Hepatic candidiasis
B. Pyogenic abscess
C. Liver disease

A

Hepatic candidiasis (fungal infection)

116
Q

What is the most common orgaism causing opportunistic infection in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
A. Neoplasm
B. Pneumocystis carinii
C. Cavernous hemangioma

A

B

117
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of benign cavernous hemangioma?

A

metastases, focal fatty infiltration, adenoma

118
Q

What is the second most common benign liver mass?
A. Cavernous hemangioma
B. Focal nodular hyperplasia

A

B

119
Q

What is another name for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Hepatoma

120
Q

What is the most common primary tumor in the liver?
A. HCC
B. Renal cell
C. Cavernous Hemangioma
D. FNH

A

A

121
Q

What is the most common form of neoplastic involvement of liver metastatic disease?
A. Malignant Neoplasm - Metastatic Disease
B. HCC
C. FNH
D. Adenoma

A

A

122
Q

What is the autosomal dominant genetic disorder that affects several areas of body to include the kidney?
A. ADPKD
B. RDPKD
C. Von Hippel-Lindau

A

C

123
Q

What is the inherited disorder (autosomal recessive) that eventually leads to ESRD?
A. Nephronophthisis
B. Medullary sponge kidney
C. ADPKD
D. Column of bertin

A

A

124
Q

What is another name for renal cell carcinoma?

A

Hypernephroma or Grawitz’s tumor

125
Q

What accounts for 90% malignancies that involve the renal pelvis, ureter, and bladder?
A. Renal cell carcinoma
B. Transitional cell carcinoma

A

B

Abdomen (7 decks)

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