Test 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Killing C. Botulinum endospores
A
Commercial sterilization
2
Q
Removing pathogens
A
Disinfection
3
Q
Removing pathogens from living tissue
A
antisepsis
4
Q
Refers to microbial contamination
A
Sepsis
5
Q
The absence of significant contamination. _____ surgery techniques prevent microbial contamination of wounds
A
Asepsis
6
Q
Removing microbes from a limited area
A
Degerming
7
Q
Lowering microbial counts on eating utensils
A
Sanitization
8
Q
Killing microbes
A
Biocide/germicide
9
Q
Inhibiting, not killing, microbes
A
Bacteriostasis
10
Q
The lowest temperature at which all cells in a culture are killed in 10 minutes
A
Thermal death point
11
Q
Time during which all cells in a culture are killed
A
Thermal death time
12
Q
Minutes to kill 90% of the population at a given temperature
A
Decimal reduction time
13
Q
_____ heat denatures proteins
A
Moist
14
Q
Steam under pressure
A
Autoclave
15
Q
Steam must contact items surface
A
Steam sterilization
16
Q
Reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens
A
Pasteurization
17
Q
Equivalent treatment of pasteurization is at ____ C
A
63°C
18
Q
High temperature for short time for pasteurization is at____C
A
72°C
19
Q
Ultra high temperature pasteurization is at_____C
A
140°C
20
Q
Removes microbes greater than 0.3 µm
A
HEPA
21
Q
Removes microbes greater than 0.22 µm
A
Membrane filtration
22
Q
True or false. Refrigeration, deep freezing, and Lyophilization inhibit microbial growth due to low temperature
A
True
23
Q
True or false high-pressure denatures proteins
A
True
24
Q
____ Prevents metabolism
A
Desiccation
25
True or false. Osmotic pressure causes plasmolysis
True
26
Dry heat, flaming, incineration, hot air sterilization are ways of dry heat sterilization; kills by ______
Oxidation
27
This type of dry heat sterilization has an equivalent treatment of 100°C for two hours
Hot air
28
This type of dry heat sterilization has an equivalent treatment of 121°C for 15 minutes
Autoclave
29
X-rays, gamma rays, electron beams are _____ type of radiation
IOnzing
30
This type of radiation ionizes water to release 0H+. Damages DNA
Ionizing radiation
31
This type of radiation has UV, 260 nm, and damages DNA
Non-ionizing radiation
32
This type of radiation kills by heat; not a specially antimicrobial
Microwaves
33
True or false. Phenol phenolics disrupt plasma membrane's
True
34
Bisophenols (hexachlorophene and tricolsan) and Biguanides ( chlorhexidine) work by disrupting ___ ___
Plasma membrane's
35
Ethanol, Isopropanol are are types of ____. These types of solutions denature proteins, and dissolve lipids. they also require water
Alcohols
36
True or false. 70% is the best concentration for alcohol to enter the cell
True
37
Iodine and Corine are types of ____
Halogens
38
___ ___ May be used to prevent gonorrheal ophthalmia neonatorum
Silver sulfadiazine
39
True or false. Copper sulfate is an algicide
True
40
The oligo dynamic action of heavy metals reacts by ____ ____
Denature proteins
41
True or false. Gaseous sterilants work by denaturizing proteins, and by use of heat sensitive material
True
42
True or false. Peroxygens work by oxidizing. They are used on contaminated surfaces
True
43
____ breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and hydrogen
Catalase
44
The removal or destruction of all living microorganisms
Sterilization
45
Subjects can food to only enough heat to destroy the endospores of clostridium botulinum
Commercial sterilization
46
The destruction of vegetative pathogens on the surface, usually with chemicals
Disinfection
47
True or false. Spores and viruses are completely killed and destroyed by disinfection
False
48
_____ is the chemical disinfection of living tissues, such as skin or mucous membranes
Antisepsis
49
_____ is the removal of transient microbes from skin by mechanical cleansing or by an anti-septic
Degerming
50
_____ is the reduction of microbial populations on objects to safe public-health levels
Sanitization
51
The suffix stat or stasis is used to indicate only what the substance _____
Inhibits
52
In general the suffix -cide indicates the ____ of a specified organism
Killer
53
The lowest temperature required to kill a liquid culture of a certain species of bacteria in 10 minutes
Thermal death point
54
The length of time required to kill all bacteria any liquid culture at a given temperature
Thermal death time
55
True or false. Chemicals may denature proteins by reacting, for example, with disulfide bonds which give proteins there three-dimensional active shape
True
56
True or false. Microbial control agents damage the plasma membrane by causing leakage of cellular contents and interferes with cell growth
True
57
____ at 100°C kills vegetative forms of bacterial pathogens, many viruses, and fungi within 10 minutes
Boiling
58
True or false endospores and some viruses completely die after the boiling process
False
59
_____ is mild heating that is sufficient to kill particular spoilage or disease organisms without seriously damaging the taste of the product
Pasteurization
60
_____ as in direct flaming, is efficient for limited purposes
Incineration
61
___ ____ apply to liquid suspension such as fruit juice can kill vegetative bacterial cells while preserving flavors, color, and nutrition values. Endospores are relatively resistant
High pressure
62
True or false microbes do not require water for growth and adequately desiccated foods will support their growth
False
63
True or false. Generally molds and yeast resist osmotic pressures better than bacteria
True
64
This method for evaluating a disinfectant uses a disc of filter paper that is soaked in the chemical agent, which is placed on in an inoculated surface of an agar plate. A clear zone around the disc indicates inhibition
Disk diffusion method
65
Also known as carbolic acid, is seldomly used today. Derivatives of the ____ molecule however, are widely used
Phenol
66
____ injure plasma membrane, inactivate enzymes, or denature proteins.
Phenolics
67
______ is the main ingredient in pHisoHex and is used in nurseries to control gram-positive skin bacteria such as staphylococci and streptococci
Hexachlorophene
68
_____ is a widely use this bisphenol found in many household products. It has a broad spectrum of activity, especially against gram-positive bacteria. It is also affected begins gram-negative bacteria and fungi
Triclosan
69
____ is frequently use for surgical skin preparation and surgical and scrubs. Alexidine is similar but more rapid and actions
Clorahexidine
70
True or false iodine impairs protein synthesis
True
71
A____ is a solution of iodine in water
Tincture
72
____ is a strong oxidizing agent that inhibits enzymatic function
Chlorine
73
_____ Are a combination of chlorine and ammonia. They are more stable than other forms of Coreen and are used as a sanitizer and for disinfection in municipal water systems
Chloramines
74
True or false chlorine dioxide is a gas use for area disinfection, most notably to kill endospores of anthrax bacteria
True
75
______ Are bactericidal and fungicidal butts are not effective against endospores or non-envelope viruses
Alcohols
76
___ ___ is often used to destroy green algae and reservoirs or other waters
Copper sulfate
77
True or false zinc chloride is used in mouthwashes
True
78
Sure false. Mercuric chloride is highly bacteriocidal, but it is toxic and corrosive and is in activated by organic matter
True
79
_____ infectious proteins that cause neurological diseases such as mad cow disease, or difficult to render noninfectious
Prions
80
____ is the science of heredity; includes the study of what genes are, how they carry information, have a replicated and pass to subsequent generations of cells or pass between organisms, and how the expression of their information within an organism determines the particular characteristics of that organism
Genetics
81
The genetic information in a cell is called
Genome
82
Hey cells ___ includes it's chromosomes and plasmids
Genomes
83
_____ are structures containing DNA that physically carry hereditary information; the chromosomes contain the genes
Chromosomes
84
____ are segments of DNA (except in some viruses, in which they are made of RNA) that code for functional products
Genes
85
DNA is composed of repeating _____ containing the bases ATCG (adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine)
Nucleotides
86
Strands of DNA are held together by ____ bonds between AT and CG
Hydrogen
87
An organism's genetic makeup, the information that codes for all the characteristics and potential properties of the organism
Genotype
88
True or false the genotype is it's Gene collection- its DNA
True
89
Refers to an organisms actual express properties, such as its ability to perform a chemical reaction
Phenotype
90
True or false the phenotype is the collection of enzymatic or structural proteins
True
91
DNA and chromosomes is the form of one long double _____
Helix
92
In _____, DNAs not found within a nuclear membrane.
Prokaryotes
93
True or false. DNA replication makes possible the flow of genetic information from one generation to the next
True
94
True or false. The DNA of cell replicates after cell division so that each offspring cell receives a chromosome opposite to the parents
False
95
The site where the synthesis of new strands of DNA begins
Replication fork
96
The removal of all microbial life
Sterilization
97
____ are obligatory intracellular parasites that require a living host cell in order to multiply
Viruses
98
Refers to the spectrum of host cells the virus can infect
Host range
99
Viruses that infect bacteria are called
Bacteriophages
100
A ____ is a fully developed complete viral particle
Virion
101
The protein coat is the _____; It is made up of protein subunits, the ______
Capsid/ capsomeres
102
The ____ May be covered by an envelope of some combination of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates
Capsid
103
Envelopes may be covered with ___, projecting from the surface
Spikes
104
Some viruses use these spikes to adhere to red blood cells, causing a clumping called _____
Hemagglutination
105
Resembles long rods, the capsids are hollow cylinder with a helical structure. Examples are the tobacco mosaic virus or bacteriophage M13
Helical viruses
106
Usually have a capsid in the shape of an icosahedron. Examples are the adenovirus and poliovirus
Polyhedral viruses
107
____ viruses have an envelope covering their capsid. They are roughly spherical but pleomorphic. A helical virus such as the influenza virus is referred to as ____ ____
Envelope/ envelope helical
108
A polyhedral virus such is herpes simplex, with a capsule, is an ____ ____ ____
Envelope polyhedral virus
109
____ ____ such as poxviruses, do not contain identifiable capsids. They may have several coats around the nucleic acid or, like many bacteriophages, have a polyhedral head and a helical tail
Complex viruses
110
A group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and ecological niche
Viral species
111
The suffix -virus is used for _____ name
Genus
112
Family names end in ____
-viridae
113
_____ require a specific host bacterium for growth. The growth medium for the host maybe liquid or solid, the solid media are used for detecting and counting viruses by the plaque method.
Bacteriophage
114
For this method, a melted agar suspension of host cells and bacteriophage are poured in a thin layer over and agar surface on a Petri dish
Plaque method
115
The bacteria develop into a turbid lawn except where they are destroyed by proliferating phage, forming a circular clearing called a____
Plaque
116
___ can be cultured in suitable living animals, and some can be grown only in this way. Because signs of disease in the animal are often significant, this method can be used in diagnosis
Viruses
117
____ ___ can be inoculated by a hole drilled in the shell. Growth may be detected by death of the embryo or formation of pox or lesions on the membranes
Embryonated eggs
118
___ ___ has been the method of choice for viral cultivation
Cell culture
119
Cell infection by a virus causes observable death or damage known as ___ ____, which can be used much as plaques are for counting or detecting viruses
Cytopathic effects
120
These cell lines are derived directly from tissue and tend to die after a few generations, but a few specialized human cell lines may be cultivated for 100 generations or so
Primary cell lines
121
These cell lines are developed from embryonic human cells, are used to culture rabies virus for human diploid cell vaccines
Diploid cell lines
122
True or false. Continuous cell lines, often cancer cells such as hela cells can be maintained for an indefinite number of generations
True
123
The most common method of viral identification are _____. The virus is detected and identified by its reaction with anti-bodies, which are specific proteins produced by animals in response to the virus
Serological
124
What are the steps of the lytic cycle
```
Attachment
Penetration
Biosynthesis
Maturation
Release
```
125
Phage attaches by tail fibers to host cell
Attachment
126
____is a highly specific reaction depending on a complementary receptor site
Attachment
127
The process of ____ occurs when the phage lysozyme opens cell wall; tail sheath contracts to Force the tail core and DNA into the cell. Then injects the DNA of the virus into the cytoplasm
Penetration
128
The viral DNA causes transcription RNA from viral DNA and thus commandeers the metabolic machinery of the host cell from its own biosynthesis. For several minutes following infection, complete phages cannot be found; this is called the _____ period
Eclipse
129
During the _____ period, the phage DNA and capsid, form separately, or assembled into virions
Maturation
130
Within the lytic cycle ___ causes lysis and death of host cells
Phage
131
Within the ____ cycle, prophage DNA Incorporates in host DNA, phage conversion, and specialized transduction all occurs
Lysogenic
132
In ____ ____ A lysogenic phage incorporate small amounts of host DNA along with its own DNA and can confer this DNA to a newly infected so
Specialized transduction
133
What is the process of animal virus multiplication
```
Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Biosynthesis
Maturation
Release
```
134
In the process of animal virus multiplication attachment is defined as
Viruses attached to the cell membrane
135
In the process of animal virus multiplication the process of penetration occurs by
Endocytosis or fusion
136
In the process of animal virus multiplication uncoating happens by
Viral or host enzymes
137
In the process of animal virus multiplication biosynthesis is defined as
Production of nucleic acid and proteins
138
In the process of animal virus multiplication maturation occurs when
Nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble
139
In the process of animal virus multiplication release happens by the process of
Budding or rupture
140
______ adenoviruses are the cause of some common cold; they are named after adenoids
Adenovirdae
141
____ pox viruses cause infection such as smallpox. Pox are pus filled sacs on the skin
Poxviridae
142
Multiplication of of DNA viruses may occur entirely in the _____
Cytoplasm
143
The DNA may be formed in the nucleus and the protein in the cytoplasm, with the final assembly taking place in the _____
Nucleus
144
RNA viruses multiply in the ____
Cytoplasm
145
True or false. Most cancers are caused by DNA or retroviruses because retroviruses can make a DNA copy of their RNA genome
True
146
True or false the DNA can go into the host cell genome and disrupt the workings of genes
True
147
Some retroviruses cause cancers, and one type is the cause of ___
Aids
148
When cells multiply in an uncontrolled way, the excess tissue is called a ____
Tumor
149
A malignant tumor is ___
Cancerous
150
A Benign tumor is
Not cancerous
151
____ are not solid tumors but and excess production of white cells
Leukemia
152
Chicken sarcoma or cancer of connective tissue paper, and adenocarcinoma or cancer of glandular tissue can be transmitted by ______
Viruses
153
When the virus remains Laytons in the nerve cells of the host for long periods without causing disease is known as
Latent infection
154
Herpes simplex virus, which causes cold sores, and the chickenpox virus, which causes shingles, are examples of ____ viral infections
Latent
155
Refers to a disease process that occurs gradually over a long period
Persistent or chronic viral infection
156
Originally called ____ viral infection, the term refers to the slow progress of the disease
Slow
157
The measles virus which continues to reproduce slowly cause this rare encephalitis. this disease process is an example of a ___ viral infection
Persistent
158
A number of neurological diseases, called spongiform encephalopathies, may be caused by _____
Prions
159
The ____ appears to be pure protein and to lack nucleic acid's
Prions
160
Scrapie in sheep, mad cow disease, Creutzfeldt Jacob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker syndrome are caused by ____
Prions
161
Disease causing microorganisms
Pathogens
162
The science that deals with the study of disease
Pathology
163
Cause of disease is known as
Etiology
164
The manner in which a disease develops, the structural and functional changes brought about by the disease, and the final effects on the body
Pathogenesis
165
Invasion or colonization of the body by potentially pathogenic microorganisms
Infection
166
Any change from a state of health; it is an abnormal state in which the body is not properly adjusted or capable of performing its normal functions
Disease
167
Micro organisms that establish permanent residence without producing disease are known as
Normal flora or normal micro biota
168
Other microorganisms that may be present for a time and then disappear are called
Transients micro biota
169
An example of microbial antagonism is the production of bacteriocins by E. coli cells in the large intestine, which inhibits pathogens such as _____ and ____
Salmonella and Shingella
170
The relationship between the normal microbiota of a healthy person and that person is called
Symbiosis
171
If, in the symbiosis, one of the organisms is benefited and the other unaffected, the relationship is known as
Commensalism
172
If both organisms are benefited in symbiosis it is called
Mutualism
173
If one organism is benefited at the expense of the other in symbiosis it is called
Parasitism
174
Under certain conditions these relationships (symbiosis) can change, the members of the normal microbiota can become
Opportunistic pathogen's
175
Changes in the body function felt by the patient, such as pain and malaise
Symptoms
176
A vague feeling of body discomfort, that are subjective and not a parent to an observer
Malaise
177
Objective changes that the physician can observe and measure
Signs
178
A specific group of symptoms or signs accompanying a particular disease is called a
Syndrome
179
Spread directly or indirectly from one host to another; typhoid fever and tuberculosis are examples
Communicable diseases
180
Caused by microorganisms such as clostridium tetani, which only produces tetanus when it is introduced into the body by contamination of wounds
Noncommunicable diseases
181
This type of disease is easily spread from one person to another
Contagious disease
182
The _____ of a disease is the fraction of the population that contracts it during a particular length of time
Incidence
183
The _____ of a disease is the fraction of the population that has the disease at a given time
Prevalence
184
If a disease occurs only occasionally, it is called
Sporadic
185
When a disease is constantly present, as is the common cold, it is termed
Endemic
186
If many people in a given area acquire a certain disease in a short period of time, it is referred to as an _____ disease, such as influenza
Epidemic
187
A worldwide epidemic is referred to as a ____ disease
Pandemic
188
This type of disease is one that develops rapidly but last only a short time-influenza for example
Acute disease
189
This type of disease develops more slowly in the body's reaction or often less severe, but it is continuous or recurrence for long periods of time
Chronic disease
190
Tuberculosis, syphilis, and leprosy are examples of ___ diseases
Chronic
191
Disease is intermediate between acute and chronic are described as
Sub acute
192
This type of disease is one in which the pathogen is inactive for a time but then becomes active to produce the symptoms
Latent disease
193
Shingles is an example of this type of disease
Latent disease
194
When many immune people are present in a community, ____ immunity exists; that is, susceptible people are so few that a communicable disease does not cause an epidemic
Herd
195
This type of infection is one in which the invading microorganisms are limited to a relatively small area of the body, as, for example, in boils and abscesses
Local infection
196
With this type of infection, Microorganisms or their products are spread throughout the body by the blood or lymphatic system
Systemic or generalized
197
This type of infection is one in which a local infection, such as infected teeth, tonsils, or sinuses, and through the blood or length and spreads to other parts of the body
Focal infection
198
The presence of bacteria in the blood is known as
Bacteremia
199
_____ is a toxic, inflammatory condition arising from the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from a focus of infection
Sepsis
200
______ is sepsis that results from the proliferation of bacterial pathogens in the bloodstream
Septicemia
201
_____ is the presence of toxins in the blood, and ____ is the presence of viruses in the blood
Toxemia/ viremia
202
An acute infection that causes the initial illness
Primary infection
203
This type of infection is one caused by an opportunistic only after the primary infection has weakened the body's defenses
Secondary infection
204
This type of infection is one that does not cause any noticeable illness
Subclinical or inapparent infection
205
_____ _____ such as gender, genetic background, climate, age, and nutrition, can greatly affect the occurrence of disease and individuals
Predisposing factors
206
The incubation period, prodromal period, period Of illness, period of decline, and period Of convalescence are stages of
Development of disease
207
The time between actual infection and the first appearance of signs and symptoms
Incubation period
208
This period Follows the incubation period In some diseases and is characterized by mild symptoms of the disease
Prodromal period
209
During this period, the overt symptoms of the disease are apparent
Period Of illness
210
During this period, The signs and symptoms subside
Period of decline
211
During this period the patient regains his or her pre-disease state
Period Of convalescence
212
A continual source of the pathogen, such as an animal or in that animate object, is a
Reservoir of infection
213
Many people Harbor pathogens and transmit them to others, directly or indirectly these people may be diseased or obvious transmitters, the others, called _____ do not exhibit symptoms. these are ____ reservoirs
Carriers/human
214
Diseases that occur primarily in the wild into domestic animals but can be transmitted to humans are called_____. Transmission may be direct contact with infected animals; contamination of food and water; insect victors; contact with contaminated Hides, fur, or feathers; or consumption of infected animal products
Zoonoses
215
Examples of _____ reservoirs for infectious disease is our soil, which harbors the agent of botulism, and water contaminated by human or animal feces, which transmits gastro intestinal pathogens
Nonliving
216
Infections may be spread more or less directly from one host to another by
Direct contact transmission
217
Kissing, handshaking, bites, or sexual intercourse are examples of
Direct contact transmission
218
This type of contact transmission occurs when agents of disease are spread within very short distances (less than a meter) while contained in droplets of saliva or mucus from coughing or sneezing
Droplet infection
219
This type of contact transmission involves a nonliving object, such as a drinking cup or towel called a ____
Indirect contact transmission/fomite
220
In animate reservoir such as food, water, or blood may transmit diseases to large numbers of individuals. This mode of transmission is known as
Vehicle transmission
221
Diseases spread by agents of infection traveling on droplets or dust for a distance of more than a meter are considered to occur by
Airborne transmission
222
Spores produced by fungi also can be transmitted by the airborne____
Route
223
Anthropods are the most important group of disease ___- animals That carry pathogens from one host to another
Vectors
224
In this type of transmission, insects, such as flies, Carries pathogens on their bodies to food that is later swallowed by the host
Mechanical transmission
225
With this form of transmission, the anthropod pass the pathogen and a bite, or it may pass the pathogen and it's feces, which later enters the wounds caused by the anthropods bite
Biological transmission
226
____ ___ ___ are the routes by which a pathogen leaves the body, often to be transmitted to others. Examples are mouth, nose, gentrourinary tract, blood and feces
Portals of exit
227
This type of infection does not show any evidence of being present or incubating at the time of admission to a hospital; it is acquired as a result of a hospital stay
Nosocomial infection
228
True or false. Most of the microbes that cause nosocomial infections do not cause disease in helping people, but are pathogenic only for individuals whose defenses have been weekend by illness or therapy
True
229
True or false. A compromised host is one who's resistance to infection is impaired by disease, therapy or burns.
True
230
True or false.Broken skin or mucous membranes, and suppressed immune system, are two principal conditions that can compromise the host
True
231
True or false. The principal routes of transmission of nosocomial infections are direct contact transmission from patient to patient or hospital staff to patients and indirect contact transmission through fomite's in the hospital's ventilation system
True
232
____ ___ ____ are ones that are new or changing, showing an increase in incidents in the recent past or a potential for increased in the near future
Emerging infectious disease
233
The science that deals with the transmission of disease is in the human population, and where and when they occur, is called
Epidemiology
234
This person determines not only the etiology of the disease, but also data such as geographical distribution, and age, gender, and so on, of persons affected
Epidemiologists
235
This type of epidemiology looks for common factors among the affected persons that might have preceded the disease outbreak
Analytical epidemiology
236
This type of epidemiology consist of persons affected by the disease providing information on age, sex, and personal habits
Descriptive epidemiology
237
This type of epidemiology test they hypothesis, such as assumed effectiveness of a drug
Experimental epidemiology
238
Relative incidence of a disease is called
Morbidity
239
Deaths from a disease is called
Mortality
240
Propionibacterium, staphylococcus, Corynbacterium, micrococcus, Candida, Malassezia our principal components found in what region of the body
Skin
241
Staphylococcus epidermis, S. Aureus, diphtheroids, Propionibacterium, streptococci, micrococcus our principal components of what region of the body
Eyes
242
Staphylococcus aureus, S. Epidermidis, and aerobic diphtheroids are principal components of what region of the body
Nose
243
S. Epidermidis, S. Aureus, diphtheroids, streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria, and Haemorphilus our principal components of what region of the body
Throat
244
Streptococcus, Lactobacillus, Staphylococcus, fusobacterium, Candida, Neisseria our principal components of what region of the body
Mouth
245
E. coli, bacterioid's, lactobacillus, and Enterococcus, Bifidobacterium, enterobacter, Klebsiella, and candida our principal components of what region of the body
Large intestine
246
Staphylococcus, micrococcus, Enterococcus, Lactobacillus, bacteroids, aerobic diphtheroids, and proteus our principal components of what region of the body
Urethra
247
Lactobacilli, streptococcus, Clostridium, Candida albicans, and Trichomonas vaginalis our principal components of what region of the body
Vagina
248
This type of arthropod vector can transfer a pathogen of typhoid fever and baciliary dysentery from the feces of infected people to food
Houseflies
249
The disease processes of malaria, yellow fever, dengue, and arthropod borne encephalitis are caused by what type of arthropod vector
Mosquitoes
250
African trypanosomiasis is caused by what type of arthropod vector
Tsetse fly
251
Chargas disease is caused by what type of arthropod vector
Kissing bug
252
Ehrlichiosis, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and lime disease are caused by what type of arthropod vector
Tick
253
Epidemic typhus is caused by what type of arthropod vector
Louse
254
Endemic Marine typhus and plague are caused by what type of arthropod vector
Rat flea
255
Relapsing fever is caused by what type of arthropod Vector
Soft tick
256
Urinary tract infections, pneumonia , surgical wound infections, C diff or diarrhea, sepsis, and bacteremia are examples of what type of infections
Nosocomial infections
257
_____ is the ability to cause disease but overcoming the defenses of a host; however, first the pathogen must enter the host body
Pathogenicity
258
____ is the degree of pathogenicity
Virulence
259
The avenue by which a micro gains access to the body is a
Portal of entry
260
The _____ ___ ___ for pathogens are mucous membranes, skin, and direct deposition beneath the skin or membranes (parenteral route)
Portals of entry
261
To gain access to the body, pathogens can penetrate ___ ___ lining the conjunctiva of the eyes and the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and Genitourinary tract
Mucous membranes
262
Diseases contracted by this portal of entry are the common cold, pneumonia, tuberculosis, influenza, and measles
Mucous membranes
263
Micro organisms contracted from food, water, or fingers enter the body by the gastrointestinal tract through this portal of entry
Mucous membranes
264
Although many are destroyed by stomach acids and intestinal enzymes, diseases such as poliomyelitis, hepatitis a, typhoid fever, amoebic dysentery, Shingellosis, and Cholera are transmitted through which portal of entry
Mucous membranes
265
Examples of pathogens that enter through the mucous membranes of the ____ ___ are HIV, aids, genital warts, chlamydia, syphilis, herpes and gonorrhea
Genitourinary tract
266
With few exceptions, such as hookworm, micro organisms cannot penetrate unbroken ____
Skin
267
Some fungi, however, grow on the ____ of the skin, and other microorganisms gain access by penetrating openings such as hair follicles and sweat ducts
Keratin
268
When the skin and mucous membranes are punctured or injured (traumatized) Micro organisms can gain access to the body tissues. This route is referred to as the _____ route
Parenteral route
269
Whether or not disease results after entry of micro organisms depends on many factors. The organism must enter by a _____ ___
Preferred route
270
Salmonella typhi, for example, must enter the Gastrointestinal tract to cause typhoid fever, rather than being robbed onto the skin. This is an example of ___ ___
PReferred route
271
Clostridium tetani must penetrate the skin to cause tetanus, and Corynbacterium diphtheria must enter the respiratory tract to cause diphtheria. These are examples of
Preferred portal of entry
272
Almost all pathogens have some means of attaching themselves to host tissues at their portal of entry. For most pathogens, this attachment ____ is a necessary step in pathogenicity
Adherence
273
The attachment between pathogen and host makes use of surface ____ and complementary surface ____
Adhesins/ receptors
274
How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: For many pathogens, set such as streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae, _____ confer a resistance to phagocytosis
Capsules
275
How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: streptococcus, for example, contains a protein called _____ ___ on the fuzzy layer of fibrils on the cell surface that helps it resist phagocytosis and improve adherence
M proteins
276
How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: the waxy lipid that makes up the ___ ___ of Mycobacterium tuberculosis also increases virulence by resisting digestion of phagocytosis and can even multiply inside phagocytes
Cell wall
277
How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: neisseria gonorrhoeae attached to host cells by means of ____ and an outer membrane protein called ___
Fimbriae/ opa
278
____ ____ (exoenzymes) have the ability to open cells, dissolved material between cells, and form or dissolve blood clots
Extracellular enzymes
279
_____ produced by some members of the genius Staphylococcus are enzymes that coagulate blood
Coagulase
280
Bacterial ____ are enzymes that break down fibrin and dissolve clots form by the blood to isolate infections
Kinases
281
_____ (fibrinolysin) produced by the enzyme streptococci, and ____, produced by staphylococci are best known bacterial enzymes
Streptokinase/staphylokinase
282
_____ is an enzyme secreted by certain bacteria that digest hyaluronic acid
Hyaluronidase
283
_____ is a compound of mucopolysaccharide that holds together certain body cells, much like mortar holds together Bricks, especially in connective tissue
Hyaluronidase
284
Both of the organisms that produce gas gangrene and a number of streptococci produce this enzyme, which may promote spread of the infections to adjoining tissues
Hyaluronidase
285
____ produced by several species of clostridium, breaks down the college and framework of the muscle tissue
Collagenase
286
As a defense against adherence of pathogens to mucosal surfaces, the body produces a class of antibodies called
IgA antibodies
287
Some pathogens have the ability to produce enzymes called ____ ___that can destroy these antibodies
IgA proteases
288
A major factor in the body's defenses is the specific resistance of the immune system that recognizes antigens by producing antibodies against them, as in the IGA antibodies. Some organisms can continually change their antigenic structure, by means of ___ ___ and invade the immune system
Antigenic variation
289
Microbes sometimes attached to host cells by adhesions. This activates factors in the host cell _____ that results in entrance into the cell by the microbe
Cytoskeleton
290
A major components of the cytoskeleton is a protein called
Actin
291
Some pathogens such as salmonellae produce surface proteins called __ that rearrange nearby actin filament of the cytoskeleton. This causes the pathogen to be engulfed by the cell
Invasins
292
Once inside the host cell, some bacteria can use actin to propel themselves from one host cell to another. Actual movement from one cell to another involves a glycoprotein called
Cadherin
293
These proteins remove iron from iron transport proteins by binding it more tightly. Iron can also be released from cells of the host when the cell is killed by toxins produced by the pathogen
Siderophores
294
____ is required for the growth of pathogens; however, there is little free iron in the host body. It is tightly bound to iron transport proteins such as lactoferrin, transferrin, and ferritin, as well as ____
Iron / hemoglobin
295
Once pathogens attached to host cells, they can cause ___ ___ as the pathogens use the host cell for nutrients and produced waste products. Most damage by bacteria, however, is done by toxins
Direct damage
296
Poisonous substances produced by certain micro organisms
Toxins
297
Proteins secreted by the bacterium, mostly gram-positive, into the surrounding medium or released following lysis
Exotoxins
298
This type of toxin is highly specific in their effects on the body tissues and are among the most lethal substances known
Exotoxins
299
The body can produce antibodies called ___ that provide immunity to exotoxins
Antitoxins
300
Exotoxins can be inactivated, called ___ and used to stimulate anti-toxins in the body against diseases such as diphtheria and tetanus
Toxoids
301
___ toxins are named because they consist of two parts. Most exotoxins are of this type
A-B
302
After release of the toxins from the pathogen, diphtheria toxins for example, the __ part binds to the host cell, and the A-B toxin is transported into the cell by endocytosis. There the component separates and the ___ part inhibits protein synthesis
B/ A
303
___ ___ toxins cause lysis of host cells by disrupting their plasma membrane. Examples are Cell lysing exotoxins of Staphylococcus aureus. These toxins also contribute to virulence by killing host cells, especially phagocytes and macro phages of the body's defense system
Membrane disrupting
304
Membrane disrupting toxins that kill the body's defense system are called
Leukocidins (white cell killers)
305
If the target of membrane disrupting toxins are red blood cells they are called
Hemolysins
306
True or false. Hemolysins kill both red blood cells and white blood cells and many other body cells
True
307
____Are antigens that provoke a very intense immune response. They stimulate the proliferation of immune system cells called T cells, an important factor and body specific immune defenses
Super antigens
308
Proteins that stimulates or inhibits many cell functions are known as
Cytokines
309
____ released by superantigens stimulation can cause many symptoms of disease and even death. Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is an example
Cytokines
310
____ toxin, an AB toxin is produced by corynebacterium diphtheriae when it is infected by a lysogenic phage carrying the tox gene
Diphtheria toxin
311
____ toxin is produced by streptococcus pyogenes and produces the red skin rash characteristic of scarlet fever
Erythrogenic toxin
312
This is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis when ingested
Botulinum toxin
313
This is an A-B neurotoxin that blocks the relaxation pathway of muscle control, producing spasmodic contraction
Tetanus toxin
314
This is an A-B toxin that causes release of large amounts of fluids and electrolytes. The result is a severe diarrhea
Vibrio enterotoxin
315
_____ are not secreted by bacteria but are part of the outer portion of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria
Endotoxins
316
True or false. Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide portion called lipid A
True
317
_____ are released upon death and lysis of the bacteria, as well as during bacterial multiplication
Endotoxins
318
This type of toxin activates a blood clot in proteins the block capillaries and thereby cause the death of tissues. It also stimulates macro phages to release damaging amounts of cytokines
Endotoxins
319
Visible damage to host cell is known as
Cytopathic effects
320
____ effects kill the cell
Cytocidal
321
___ effects are damaging but not lethal
Noncytocidal
322
True or false. In bacteria, replication begins at an origin of replication, and in some cases to replication fork move in opposite directions
True
323
In ___ A strand of messenger RNA is synthesized from the genetic information in DNA
Transcription
324
Protein synthesis is called ____ because it translates the language of nucleic acid into the language of proteins
Translation
325
Each new double-stranded DNA molecule has one original strand and one new strand, the process is called
Semi conservative replication
326
In eukaryotic genes, ____ are regions of DNA that are expressed, and ___ are the intervening regions of DNA that you not encode proteins
Exons/ introns
327
True or false transition and translation are almost simultaneous in bacteria
True
328
If DNA has a base sequence of ATGCAT then the mRNA will have
UACGUA
329
The region where our name polymerase binds to DNA and transcription begins is known as the
Promoter site
330
The site where the RNA polymerase and newly formed mRNA are released from the DNA, signaling the end point for transcription of the gene
Terminator site
331
The language of mRNA is in ___, groups of three nucleotides such as AUG
Codons
332
The sites of translation are ____ that move along mRNA
Ribosomes
333
The cell conserves energy by making only those proteins needed at the time. If a gene produces a product at a fixed rate, it is
Constitutive
334
And ___ is a substance whose presence results in the formation, or increase in the amount, of an enzyme. Such enzymes are called ___ ___; this genetically controlled response is termed enzyme ____
Inducer / enzyme induction / induction
335
Genetic regulation that decreases enzyme synthesis is enzyme ____
Repression
336
Protein synthesis and bacteria is controlled by a system called the ___ ___
Operon model
337
The operator and promoter sites plus the structural genes are the ___
Operon
338
A regulatory Gene called the ___ encodes a repressor proteins the switches inducible and repressible operons off and on
I gene
339
The lac operon is an ____ operon
Inducible
340
In ____ operon: the absence of lactulose, the repressor binds to the operator site, thus preventing transcription. Lactulose is present, the repressor binds to an metabolite of lactulose instead of to the operator, and lactulose digesting enzymes are transcribed.
Inducible
341
In ___ operon The structural genes are transcribed until they are turned off or repressed
Repressible
342
A change in the base sequence of DNA
Mutation
343
The most common mutation is a ___ ___, or point mutation, in which a single base in DNA is replaced with a different one
Base substitution
344
When a base substitution occurs it is likely to result in the incorporation of an incorrect amino acid in the synthesize proteins, a result known as a ____ mutation
Missense mutation
345
When a missense mutation occurs, such an error may create a stop codon, which stops protein synthesis before completion, resulting in a
Nonsense mutation
346
One or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or inserted in the DNA causing this type of mutation
Frameshift mutation
347
Many simple mutations are ___; the change in DNA-based sequence cause is no change in the activity of the product encoded by the gene
Silent
348
_____ radiation-such as x-rays and gamma rays, which are mutagens-damages DNA
Ionizing
349
___ light is another mutagen that affects DNA. Certain light repair enzymes can repair ultraviolet damage a process stimulated by visible light
Ultraviolet
350
___ radiation breaks open DNA and causes free radicals in the cytoplasm
Ionizing radiation
351
The most important effects of direct UV light on DNA is the formation of harmful ___ ___ between certain bases
Covalent bonds
352
The ____ ___ is based on the ability of a mutated sell to mutate again and to revert to its original form
Ames test
353
A procedure using bacteria to identify potential carcinogens
Ames test
354
True or false. The Ames test is based on the observation that exposure of Mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances may cause new mutations that reverse the effects of the original mutation
True
355
The ___ ___ measures the reversion of histidine auxotroph of salmonella to histidine synthesize cells after treatment with a mutagen
Ames test
356
The rearrangement of genes to form new combinations is known as
Genetic recombination
357
If two chromosomes break and Are rejoined in such a way that some of the genes are reshuffled between the two chromosomes, the process is called
Crossing over
358
This occurs when genes are passed from an organism to its offspring.
Vertical gene transfer
359
Bacteria can also pass jeans laterally to other microbes of the same generation-known as
Horizontal gene transfer
360
In ____ , "naked"DNA in solution is transferred from one bacterial cell to another
Transformation
361
The process of ____ occurs naturally among very few genre of bacteria, and it usually occurs when donor and recipient are closely related and in the log phase of growth
Transformation
362
_____ requires contact between living cells of opposite meeting types.
Conjugation
363
Another mechanism by which genetic material is transferred from one bacterium to another is known as
Conjugation
364
____ is mediated by one kind of plasmid, a circular piece of DNA replicates independently from the cells chromosomes
Conjugation
365
True or false. Conjugation does not require direct cell to cell contact
False
366
True or false. The conjugating cells must generally be opposite meeting type; donor cells must carry the plasmid, and recipient cells usually do not
True
367
In this process, bacterial DNA is transferred from a donor sell to a recipient cell inside a virus that infects bacteria
Transduction
368
In __ transduction, only certain bacterial genes are transferred
Specialized
369
In ___ transduction the phage attaches to the bacterial cell wall and Engex DNA into the bacterium
Generalized
370
A circular piece of DNA that replicates independently from the cells chromosomes, usually carry only jeans that are not essential for growth of the cell
Plasmids
371
Small segments of DNA that can move from one region of the chromosome to another
Transporons
372
The ___ strand in DNA replication is synthesized continuously by DNA polymerase
Leading
373
The ____strand in DNA replication is synthesized continuously. Primase , an RNA polymerase synthesizes a short RNA primer, which is then extended by DNA polymerase
Lagging
