Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Killing C. Botulinum endospores

A

Commercial sterilization

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2
Q

Removing pathogens

A

Disinfection

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3
Q

Removing pathogens from living tissue

A

antisepsis

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4
Q

Refers to microbial contamination

A

Sepsis

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5
Q

The absence of significant contamination. _____ surgery techniques prevent microbial contamination of wounds

A

Asepsis

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6
Q

Removing microbes from a limited area

A

Degerming

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7
Q

Lowering microbial counts on eating utensils

A

Sanitization

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8
Q

Killing microbes

A

Biocide/germicide

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9
Q

Inhibiting, not killing, microbes

A

Bacteriostasis

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10
Q

The lowest temperature at which all cells in a culture are killed in 10 minutes

A

Thermal death point

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11
Q

Time during which all cells in a culture are killed

A

Thermal death time

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12
Q

Minutes to kill 90% of the population at a given temperature

A

Decimal reduction time

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13
Q

_____ heat denatures proteins

A

Moist

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14
Q

Steam under pressure

A

Autoclave

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15
Q

Steam must contact items surface

A

Steam sterilization

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16
Q

Reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens

A

Pasteurization

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17
Q

Equivalent treatment of pasteurization is at ____ C

A

63°C

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18
Q

High temperature for short time for pasteurization is at____C

A

72°C

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19
Q

Ultra high temperature pasteurization is at_____C

A

140°C

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20
Q

Removes microbes greater than 0.3 µm

A

HEPA

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21
Q

Removes microbes greater than 0.22 µm

A

Membrane filtration

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22
Q

True or false. Refrigeration, deep freezing, and Lyophilization inhibit microbial growth due to low temperature

A

True

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23
Q

True or false high-pressure denatures proteins

A

True

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24
Q

____ Prevents metabolism

A

Desiccation

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25
Q

True or false. Osmotic pressure causes plasmolysis

A

True

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26
Q

Dry heat, flaming, incineration, hot air sterilization are ways of dry heat sterilization; kills by ______

A

Oxidation

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27
Q

This type of dry heat sterilization has an equivalent treatment of 100°C for two hours

A

Hot air

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28
Q

This type of dry heat sterilization has an equivalent treatment of 121°C for 15 minutes

A

Autoclave

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29
Q

X-rays, gamma rays, electron beams are _____ type of radiation

A

IOnzing

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30
Q

This type of radiation ionizes water to release 0H+. Damages DNA

A

Ionizing radiation

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31
Q

This type of radiation has UV, 260 nm, and damages DNA

A

Non-ionizing radiation

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32
Q

This type of radiation kills by heat; not a specially antimicrobial

A

Microwaves

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33
Q

True or false. Phenol phenolics disrupt plasma membrane’s

A

True

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34
Q

Bisophenols (hexachlorophene and tricolsan) and Biguanides ( chlorhexidine) work by disrupting ___ ___

A

Plasma membrane’s

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35
Q

Ethanol, Isopropanol are are types of ____. These types of solutions denature proteins, and dissolve lipids. they also require water

A

Alcohols

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36
Q

True or false. 70% is the best concentration for alcohol to enter the cell

A

True

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37
Q

Iodine and Corine are types of ____

A

Halogens

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38
Q

___ ___ May be used to prevent gonorrheal ophthalmia neonatorum

A

Silver sulfadiazine

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39
Q

True or false. Copper sulfate is an algicide

A

True

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40
Q

The oligo dynamic action of heavy metals reacts by ____ ____

A

Denature proteins

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41
Q

True or false. Gaseous sterilants work by denaturizing proteins, and by use of heat sensitive material

A

True

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42
Q

True or false. Peroxygens work by oxidizing. They are used on contaminated surfaces

A

True

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43
Q

____ breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and hydrogen

A

Catalase

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44
Q

The removal or destruction of all living microorganisms

A

Sterilization

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45
Q

Subjects can food to only enough heat to destroy the endospores of clostridium botulinum

A

Commercial sterilization

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46
Q

The destruction of vegetative pathogens on the surface, usually with chemicals

A

Disinfection

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47
Q

True or false. Spores and viruses are completely killed and destroyed by disinfection

A

False

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48
Q

_____ is the chemical disinfection of living tissues, such as skin or mucous membranes

A

Antisepsis

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49
Q

_____ is the removal of transient microbes from skin by mechanical cleansing or by an anti-septic

A

Degerming

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50
Q

_____ is the reduction of microbial populations on objects to safe public-health levels

A

Sanitization

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51
Q

The suffix stat or stasis is used to indicate only what the substance _____

A

Inhibits

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52
Q

In general the suffix -cide indicates the ____ of a specified organism

A

Killer

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53
Q

The lowest temperature required to kill a liquid culture of a certain species of bacteria in 10 minutes

A

Thermal death point

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54
Q

The length of time required to kill all bacteria any liquid culture at a given temperature

A

Thermal death time

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55
Q

True or false. Chemicals may denature proteins by reacting, for example, with disulfide bonds which give proteins there three-dimensional active shape

A

True

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56
Q

True or false. Microbial control agents damage the plasma membrane by causing leakage of cellular contents and interferes with cell growth

A

True

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57
Q

____ at 100°C kills vegetative forms of bacterial pathogens, many viruses, and fungi within 10 minutes

A

Boiling

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58
Q

True or false endospores and some viruses completely die after the boiling process

A

False

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59
Q

_____ is mild heating that is sufficient to kill particular spoilage or disease organisms without seriously damaging the taste of the product

A

Pasteurization

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60
Q

_____ as in direct flaming, is efficient for limited purposes

A

Incineration

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61
Q

___ ____ apply to liquid suspension such as fruit juice can kill vegetative bacterial cells while preserving flavors, color, and nutrition values. Endospores are relatively resistant

A

High pressure

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62
Q

True or false microbes do not require water for growth and adequately desiccated foods will support their growth

A

False

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63
Q

True or false. Generally molds and yeast resist osmotic pressures better than bacteria

A

True

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64
Q

This method for evaluating a disinfectant uses a disc of filter paper that is soaked in the chemical agent, which is placed on in an inoculated surface of an agar plate. A clear zone around the disc indicates inhibition

A

Disk diffusion method

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65
Q

Also known as carbolic acid, is seldomly used today. Derivatives of the ____ molecule however, are widely used

A

Phenol

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66
Q

____ injure plasma membrane, inactivate enzymes, or denature proteins.

A

Phenolics

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67
Q

______ is the main ingredient in pHisoHex and is used in nurseries to control gram-positive skin bacteria such as staphylococci and streptococci

A

Hexachlorophene

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68
Q

_____ is a widely use this bisphenol found in many household products. It has a broad spectrum of activity, especially against gram-positive bacteria. It is also affected begins gram-negative bacteria and fungi

A

Triclosan

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69
Q

____ is frequently use for surgical skin preparation and surgical and scrubs. Alexidine is similar but more rapid and actions

A

Clorahexidine

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70
Q

True or false iodine impairs protein synthesis

A

True

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71
Q

A____ is a solution of iodine in water

A

Tincture

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72
Q

____ is a strong oxidizing agent that inhibits enzymatic function

A

Chlorine

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73
Q

_____ Are a combination of chlorine and ammonia. They are more stable than other forms of Coreen and are used as a sanitizer and for disinfection in municipal water systems

A

Chloramines

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74
Q

True or false chlorine dioxide is a gas use for area disinfection, most notably to kill endospores of anthrax bacteria

A

True

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75
Q

______ Are bactericidal and fungicidal butts are not effective against endospores or non-envelope viruses

A

Alcohols

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76
Q

___ ___ is often used to destroy green algae and reservoirs or other waters

A

Copper sulfate

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77
Q

True or false zinc chloride is used in mouthwashes

A

True

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78
Q

Sure false. Mercuric chloride is highly bacteriocidal, but it is toxic and corrosive and is in activated by organic matter

A

True

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79
Q

_____ infectious proteins that cause neurological diseases such as mad cow disease, or difficult to render noninfectious

A

Prions

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80
Q

____ is the science of heredity; includes the study of what genes are, how they carry information, have a replicated and pass to subsequent generations of cells or pass between organisms, and how the expression of their information within an organism determines the particular characteristics of that organism

A

Genetics

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81
Q

The genetic information in a cell is called

A

Genome

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82
Q

Hey cells ___ includes it’s chromosomes and plasmids

A

Genomes

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83
Q

_____ are structures containing DNA that physically carry hereditary information; the chromosomes contain the genes

A

Chromosomes

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84
Q

____ are segments of DNA (except in some viruses, in which they are made of RNA) that code for functional products

A

Genes

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85
Q

DNA is composed of repeating _____ containing the bases ATCG (adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine)

A

Nucleotides

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86
Q

Strands of DNA are held together by ____ bonds between AT and CG

A

Hydrogen

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87
Q

An organism’s genetic makeup, the information that codes for all the characteristics and potential properties of the organism

A

Genotype

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88
Q

True or false the genotype is it’s Gene collection- its DNA

A

True

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89
Q

Refers to an organisms actual express properties, such as its ability to perform a chemical reaction

A

Phenotype

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90
Q

True or false the phenotype is the collection of enzymatic or structural proteins

A

True

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91
Q

DNA and chromosomes is the form of one long double _____

A

Helix

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92
Q

In _____, DNAs not found within a nuclear membrane.

A

Prokaryotes

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93
Q

True or false. DNA replication makes possible the flow of genetic information from one generation to the next

A

True

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94
Q

True or false. The DNA of cell replicates after cell division so that each offspring cell receives a chromosome opposite to the parents

A

False

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95
Q

The site where the synthesis of new strands of DNA begins

A

Replication fork

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96
Q

The removal of all microbial life

A

Sterilization

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97
Q

____ are obligatory intracellular parasites that require a living host cell in order to multiply

A

Viruses

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98
Q

Refers to the spectrum of host cells the virus can infect

A

Host range

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99
Q

Viruses that infect bacteria are called

A

Bacteriophages

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100
Q

A ____ is a fully developed complete viral particle

A

Virion

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101
Q

The protein coat is the _____; It is made up of protein subunits, the ______

A

Capsid/ capsomeres

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102
Q

The ____ May be covered by an envelope of some combination of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates

A

Capsid

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103
Q

Envelopes may be covered with ___, projecting from the surface

A

Spikes

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104
Q

Some viruses use these spikes to adhere to red blood cells, causing a clumping called _____

A

Hemagglutination

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105
Q

Resembles long rods, the capsids are hollow cylinder with a helical structure. Examples are the tobacco mosaic virus or bacteriophage M13

A

Helical viruses

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106
Q

Usually have a capsid in the shape of an icosahedron. Examples are the adenovirus and poliovirus

A

Polyhedral viruses

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107
Q

____ viruses have an envelope covering their capsid. They are roughly spherical but pleomorphic. A helical virus such as the influenza virus is referred to as ____ ____

A

Envelope/ envelope helical

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108
Q

A polyhedral virus such is herpes simplex, with a capsule, is an ____ ____ ____

A

Envelope polyhedral virus

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109
Q

____ ____ such as poxviruses, do not contain identifiable capsids. They may have several coats around the nucleic acid or, like many bacteriophages, have a polyhedral head and a helical tail

A

Complex viruses

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110
Q

A group of viruses sharing the same genetic information and ecological niche

A

Viral species

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111
Q

The suffix -virus is used for _____ name

A

Genus

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112
Q

Family names end in ____

A

-viridae

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113
Q

_____ require a specific host bacterium for growth. The growth medium for the host maybe liquid or solid, the solid media are used for detecting and counting viruses by the plaque method.

A

Bacteriophage

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114
Q

For this method, a melted agar suspension of host cells and bacteriophage are poured in a thin layer over and agar surface on a Petri dish

A

Plaque method

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115
Q

The bacteria develop into a turbid lawn except where they are destroyed by proliferating phage, forming a circular clearing called a____

A

Plaque

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116
Q

___ can be cultured in suitable living animals, and some can be grown only in this way. Because signs of disease in the animal are often significant, this method can be used in diagnosis

A

Viruses

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117
Q

____ ___ can be inoculated by a hole drilled in the shell. Growth may be detected by death of the embryo or formation of pox or lesions on the membranes

A

Embryonated eggs

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118
Q

___ ___ has been the method of choice for viral cultivation

A

Cell culture

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119
Q

Cell infection by a virus causes observable death or damage known as ___ ____, which can be used much as plaques are for counting or detecting viruses

A

Cytopathic effects

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120
Q

These cell lines are derived directly from tissue and tend to die after a few generations, but a few specialized human cell lines may be cultivated for 100 generations or so

A

Primary cell lines

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121
Q

These cell lines are developed from embryonic human cells, are used to culture rabies virus for human diploid cell vaccines

A

Diploid cell lines

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122
Q

True or false. Continuous cell lines, often cancer cells such as hela cells can be maintained for an indefinite number of generations

A

True

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123
Q

The most common method of viral identification are _____. The virus is detected and identified by its reaction with anti-bodies, which are specific proteins produced by animals in response to the virus

A

Serological

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124
Q

What are the steps of the lytic cycle

A
Attachment
Penetration
Biosynthesis
Maturation
Release
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125
Q

Phage attaches by tail fibers to host cell

A

Attachment

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126
Q

____is a highly specific reaction depending on a complementary receptor site

A

Attachment

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127
Q

The process of ____ occurs when the phage lysozyme opens cell wall; tail sheath contracts to Force the tail core and DNA into the cell. Then injects the DNA of the virus into the cytoplasm

A

Penetration

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128
Q

The viral DNA causes transcription RNA from viral DNA and thus commandeers the metabolic machinery of the host cell from its own biosynthesis. For several minutes following infection, complete phages cannot be found; this is called the _____ period

A

Eclipse

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129
Q

During the _____ period, the phage DNA and capsid, form separately, or assembled into virions

A

Maturation

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130
Q

Within the lytic cycle ___ causes lysis and death of host cells

A

Phage

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131
Q

Within the ____ cycle, prophage DNA Incorporates in host DNA, phage conversion, and specialized transduction all occurs

A

Lysogenic

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132
Q

In ____ ____ A lysogenic phage incorporate small amounts of host DNA along with its own DNA and can confer this DNA to a newly infected so

A

Specialized transduction

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133
Q

What is the process of animal virus multiplication

A
Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Biosynthesis
Maturation
Release
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134
Q

In the process of animal virus multiplication attachment is defined as

A

Viruses attached to the cell membrane

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135
Q

In the process of animal virus multiplication the process of penetration occurs by

A

Endocytosis or fusion

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136
Q

In the process of animal virus multiplication uncoating happens by

A

Viral or host enzymes

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137
Q

In the process of animal virus multiplication biosynthesis is defined as

A

Production of nucleic acid and proteins

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138
Q

In the process of animal virus multiplication maturation occurs when

A

Nucleic acid and capsid proteins assemble

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139
Q

In the process of animal virus multiplication release happens by the process of

A

Budding or rupture

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140
Q

______ adenoviruses are the cause of some common cold; they are named after adenoids

A

Adenovirdae

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141
Q

____ pox viruses cause infection such as smallpox. Pox are pus filled sacs on the skin

A

Poxviridae

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142
Q

Multiplication of of DNA viruses may occur entirely in the _____

A

Cytoplasm

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143
Q

The DNA may be formed in the nucleus and the protein in the cytoplasm, with the final assembly taking place in the _____

A

Nucleus

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144
Q

RNA viruses multiply in the ____

A

Cytoplasm

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145
Q

True or false. Most cancers are caused by DNA or retroviruses because retroviruses can make a DNA copy of their RNA genome

A

True

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146
Q

True or false the DNA can go into the host cell genome and disrupt the workings of genes

A

True

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147
Q

Some retroviruses cause cancers, and one type is the cause of ___

A

Aids

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148
Q

When cells multiply in an uncontrolled way, the excess tissue is called a ____

A

Tumor

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149
Q

A malignant tumor is ___

A

Cancerous

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150
Q

A Benign tumor is

A

Not cancerous

151
Q

____ are not solid tumors but and excess production of white cells

A

Leukemia

152
Q

Chicken sarcoma or cancer of connective tissue paper, and adenocarcinoma or cancer of glandular tissue can be transmitted by ______

A

Viruses

153
Q

When the virus remains Laytons in the nerve cells of the host for long periods without causing disease is known as

A

Latent infection

154
Q

Herpes simplex virus, which causes cold sores, and the chickenpox virus, which causes shingles, are examples of ____ viral infections

A

Latent

155
Q

Refers to a disease process that occurs gradually over a long period

A

Persistent or chronic viral infection

156
Q

Originally called ____ viral infection, the term refers to the slow progress of the disease

A

Slow

157
Q

The measles virus which continues to reproduce slowly cause this rare encephalitis. this disease process is an example of a ___ viral infection

A

Persistent

158
Q

A number of neurological diseases, called spongiform encephalopathies, may be caused by _____

A

Prions

159
Q

The ____ appears to be pure protein and to lack nucleic acid’s

A

Prions

160
Q

Scrapie in sheep, mad cow disease, Creutzfeldt Jacob disease, kuru, and Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker syndrome are caused by ____

A

Prions

161
Q

Disease causing microorganisms

A

Pathogens

162
Q

The science that deals with the study of disease

A

Pathology

163
Q

Cause of disease is known as

A

Etiology

164
Q

The manner in which a disease develops, the structural and functional changes brought about by the disease, and the final effects on the body

A

Pathogenesis

165
Q

Invasion or colonization of the body by potentially pathogenic microorganisms

A

Infection

166
Q

Any change from a state of health; it is an abnormal state in which the body is not properly adjusted or capable of performing its normal functions

A

Disease

167
Q

Micro organisms that establish permanent residence without producing disease are known as

A

Normal flora or normal micro biota

168
Q

Other microorganisms that may be present for a time and then disappear are called

A

Transients micro biota

169
Q

An example of microbial antagonism is the production of bacteriocins by E. coli cells in the large intestine, which inhibits pathogens such as _____ and ____

A

Salmonella and Shingella

170
Q

The relationship between the normal microbiota of a healthy person and that person is called

A

Symbiosis

171
Q

If, in the symbiosis, one of the organisms is benefited and the other unaffected, the relationship is known as

A

Commensalism

172
Q

If both organisms are benefited in symbiosis it is called

A

Mutualism

173
Q

If one organism is benefited at the expense of the other in symbiosis it is called

A

Parasitism

174
Q

Under certain conditions these relationships (symbiosis) can change, the members of the normal microbiota can become

A

Opportunistic pathogen’s

175
Q

Changes in the body function felt by the patient, such as pain and malaise

A

Symptoms

176
Q

A vague feeling of body discomfort, that are subjective and not a parent to an observer

A

Malaise

177
Q

Objective changes that the physician can observe and measure

A

Signs

178
Q

A specific group of symptoms or signs accompanying a particular disease is called a

A

Syndrome

179
Q

Spread directly or indirectly from one host to another; typhoid fever and tuberculosis are examples

A

Communicable diseases

180
Q

Caused by microorganisms such as clostridium tetani, which only produces tetanus when it is introduced into the body by contamination of wounds

A

Noncommunicable diseases

181
Q

This type of disease is easily spread from one person to another

A

Contagious disease

182
Q

The _____ of a disease is the fraction of the population that contracts it during a particular length of time

A

Incidence

183
Q

The _____ of a disease is the fraction of the population that has the disease at a given time

A

Prevalence

184
Q

If a disease occurs only occasionally, it is called

A

Sporadic

185
Q

When a disease is constantly present, as is the common cold, it is termed

A

Endemic

186
Q

If many people in a given area acquire a certain disease in a short period of time, it is referred to as an _____ disease, such as influenza

A

Epidemic

187
Q

A worldwide epidemic is referred to as a ____ disease

A

Pandemic

188
Q

This type of disease is one that develops rapidly but last only a short time-influenza for example

A

Acute disease

189
Q

This type of disease develops more slowly in the body’s reaction or often less severe, but it is continuous or recurrence for long periods of time

A

Chronic disease

190
Q

Tuberculosis, syphilis, and leprosy are examples of ___ diseases

A

Chronic

191
Q

Disease is intermediate between acute and chronic are described as

A

Sub acute

192
Q

This type of disease is one in which the pathogen is inactive for a time but then becomes active to produce the symptoms

A

Latent disease

193
Q

Shingles is an example of this type of disease

A

Latent disease

194
Q

When many immune people are present in a community, ____ immunity exists; that is, susceptible people are so few that a communicable disease does not cause an epidemic

A

Herd

195
Q

This type of infection is one in which the invading microorganisms are limited to a relatively small area of the body, as, for example, in boils and abscesses

A

Local infection

196
Q

With this type of infection, Microorganisms or their products are spread throughout the body by the blood or lymphatic system

A

Systemic or generalized

197
Q

This type of infection is one in which a local infection, such as infected teeth, tonsils, or sinuses, and through the blood or length and spreads to other parts of the body

A

Focal infection

198
Q

The presence of bacteria in the blood is known as

A

Bacteremia

199
Q

_____ is a toxic, inflammatory condition arising from the spread of bacteria or bacterial toxins from a focus of infection

A

Sepsis

200
Q

______ is sepsis that results from the proliferation of bacterial pathogens in the bloodstream

A

Septicemia

201
Q

_____ is the presence of toxins in the blood, and ____ is the presence of viruses in the blood

A

Toxemia/ viremia

202
Q

An acute infection that causes the initial illness

A

Primary infection

203
Q

This type of infection is one caused by an opportunistic only after the primary infection has weakened the body’s defenses

A

Secondary infection

204
Q

This type of infection is one that does not cause any noticeable illness

A

Subclinical or inapparent infection

205
Q

_____ _____ such as gender, genetic background, climate, age, and nutrition, can greatly affect the occurrence of disease and individuals

A

Predisposing factors

206
Q

The incubation period, prodromal period, period Of illness, period of decline, and period Of convalescence are stages of

A

Development of disease

207
Q

The time between actual infection and the first appearance of signs and symptoms

A

Incubation period

208
Q

This period Follows the incubation period In some diseases and is characterized by mild symptoms of the disease

A

Prodromal period

209
Q

During this period, the overt symptoms of the disease are apparent

A

Period Of illness

210
Q

During this period, The signs and symptoms subside

A

Period of decline

211
Q

During this period the patient regains his or her pre-disease state

A

Period Of convalescence

212
Q

A continual source of the pathogen, such as an animal or in that animate object, is a

A

Reservoir of infection

213
Q

Many people Harbor pathogens and transmit them to others, directly or indirectly these people may be diseased or obvious transmitters, the others, called _____ do not exhibit symptoms. these are ____ reservoirs

A

Carriers/human

214
Q

Diseases that occur primarily in the wild into domestic animals but can be transmitted to humans are called_____. Transmission may be direct contact with infected animals; contamination of food and water; insect victors; contact with contaminated Hides, fur, or feathers; or consumption of infected animal products

A

Zoonoses

215
Q

Examples of _____ reservoirs for infectious disease is our soil, which harbors the agent of botulism, and water contaminated by human or animal feces, which transmits gastro intestinal pathogens

A

Nonliving

216
Q

Infections may be spread more or less directly from one host to another by

A

Direct contact transmission

217
Q

Kissing, handshaking, bites, or sexual intercourse are examples of

A

Direct contact transmission

218
Q

This type of contact transmission occurs when agents of disease are spread within very short distances (less than a meter) while contained in droplets of saliva or mucus from coughing or sneezing

A

Droplet infection

219
Q

This type of contact transmission involves a nonliving object, such as a drinking cup or towel called a ____

A

Indirect contact transmission/fomite

220
Q

In animate reservoir such as food, water, or blood may transmit diseases to large numbers of individuals. This mode of transmission is known as

A

Vehicle transmission

221
Q

Diseases spread by agents of infection traveling on droplets or dust for a distance of more than a meter are considered to occur by

A

Airborne transmission

222
Q

Spores produced by fungi also can be transmitted by the airborne____

A

Route

223
Q

Anthropods are the most important group of disease ___- animals That carry pathogens from one host to another

A

Vectors

224
Q

In this type of transmission, insects, such as flies, Carries pathogens on their bodies to food that is later swallowed by the host

A

Mechanical transmission

225
Q

With this form of transmission, the anthropod pass the pathogen and a bite, or it may pass the pathogen and it’s feces, which later enters the wounds caused by the anthropods bite

A

Biological transmission

226
Q

____ ___ ___ are the routes by which a pathogen leaves the body, often to be transmitted to others. Examples are mouth, nose, gentrourinary tract, blood and feces

A

Portals of exit

227
Q

This type of infection does not show any evidence of being present or incubating at the time of admission to a hospital; it is acquired as a result of a hospital stay

A

Nosocomial infection

228
Q

True or false. Most of the microbes that cause nosocomial infections do not cause disease in helping people, but are pathogenic only for individuals whose defenses have been weekend by illness or therapy

A

True

229
Q

True or false. A compromised host is one who’s resistance to infection is impaired by disease, therapy or burns.

A

True

230
Q

True or false.Broken skin or mucous membranes, and suppressed immune system, are two principal conditions that can compromise the host

A

True

231
Q

True or false. The principal routes of transmission of nosocomial infections are direct contact transmission from patient to patient or hospital staff to patients and indirect contact transmission through fomite’s in the hospital’s ventilation system

A

True

232
Q

____ ___ ____ are ones that are new or changing, showing an increase in incidents in the recent past or a potential for increased in the near future

A

Emerging infectious disease

233
Q

The science that deals with the transmission of disease is in the human population, and where and when they occur, is called

A

Epidemiology

234
Q

This person determines not only the etiology of the disease, but also data such as geographical distribution, and age, gender, and so on, of persons affected

A

Epidemiologists

235
Q

This type of epidemiology looks for common factors among the affected persons that might have preceded the disease outbreak

A

Analytical epidemiology

236
Q

This type of epidemiology consist of persons affected by the disease providing information on age, sex, and personal habits

A

Descriptive epidemiology

237
Q

This type of epidemiology test they hypothesis, such as assumed effectiveness of a drug

A

Experimental epidemiology

238
Q

Relative incidence of a disease is called

A

Morbidity

239
Q

Deaths from a disease is called

A

Mortality

240
Q

Propionibacterium, staphylococcus, Corynbacterium, micrococcus, Candida, Malassezia our principal components found in what region of the body

A

Skin

241
Q

Staphylococcus epidermis, S. Aureus, diphtheroids, Propionibacterium, streptococci, micrococcus our principal components of what region of the body

A

Eyes

242
Q

Staphylococcus aureus, S. Epidermidis, and aerobic diphtheroids are principal components of what region of the body

A

Nose

243
Q

S. Epidermidis, S. Aureus, diphtheroids, streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria, and Haemorphilus our principal components of what region of the body

A

Throat

244
Q

Streptococcus, Lactobacillus, Staphylococcus, fusobacterium, Candida, Neisseria our principal components of what region of the body

A

Mouth

245
Q

E. coli, bacterioid’s, lactobacillus, and Enterococcus, Bifidobacterium, enterobacter, Klebsiella, and candida our principal components of what region of the body

A

Large intestine

246
Q

Staphylococcus, micrococcus, Enterococcus, Lactobacillus, bacteroids, aerobic diphtheroids, and proteus our principal components of what region of the body

A

Urethra

247
Q

Lactobacilli, streptococcus, Clostridium, Candida albicans, and Trichomonas vaginalis our principal components of what region of the body

A

Vagina

248
Q

This type of arthropod vector can transfer a pathogen of typhoid fever and baciliary dysentery from the feces of infected people to food

A

Houseflies

249
Q

The disease processes of malaria, yellow fever, dengue, and arthropod borne encephalitis are caused by what type of arthropod vector

A

Mosquitoes

250
Q

African trypanosomiasis is caused by what type of arthropod vector

A

Tsetse fly

251
Q

Chargas disease is caused by what type of arthropod vector

A

Kissing bug

252
Q

Ehrlichiosis, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and lime disease are caused by what type of arthropod vector

A

Tick

253
Q

Epidemic typhus is caused by what type of arthropod vector

A

Louse

254
Q

Endemic Marine typhus and plague are caused by what type of arthropod vector

A

Rat flea

255
Q

Relapsing fever is caused by what type of arthropod Vector

A

Soft tick

256
Q

Urinary tract infections, pneumonia , surgical wound infections, C diff or diarrhea, sepsis, and bacteremia are examples of what type of infections

A

Nosocomial infections

257
Q

_____ is the ability to cause disease but overcoming the defenses of a host; however, first the pathogen must enter the host body

A

Pathogenicity

258
Q

____ is the degree of pathogenicity

A

Virulence

259
Q

The avenue by which a micro gains access to the body is a

A

Portal of entry

260
Q

The _____ ___ ___ for pathogens are mucous membranes, skin, and direct deposition beneath the skin or membranes (parenteral route)

A

Portals of entry

261
Q

To gain access to the body, pathogens can penetrate ___ ___ lining the conjunctiva of the eyes and the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and Genitourinary tract

A

Mucous membranes

262
Q

Diseases contracted by this portal of entry are the common cold, pneumonia, tuberculosis, influenza, and measles

A

Mucous membranes

263
Q

Micro organisms contracted from food, water, or fingers enter the body by the gastrointestinal tract through this portal of entry

A

Mucous membranes

264
Q

Although many are destroyed by stomach acids and intestinal enzymes, diseases such as poliomyelitis, hepatitis a, typhoid fever, amoebic dysentery, Shingellosis, and Cholera are transmitted through which portal of entry

A

Mucous membranes

265
Q

Examples of pathogens that enter through the mucous membranes of the ____ ___ are HIV, aids, genital warts, chlamydia, syphilis, herpes and gonorrhea

A

Genitourinary tract

266
Q

With few exceptions, such as hookworm, micro organisms cannot penetrate unbroken ____

A

Skin

267
Q

Some fungi, however, grow on the ____ of the skin, and other microorganisms gain access by penetrating openings such as hair follicles and sweat ducts

A

Keratin

268
Q

When the skin and mucous membranes are punctured or injured (traumatized) Micro organisms can gain access to the body tissues. This route is referred to as the _____ route

A

Parenteral route

269
Q

Whether or not disease results after entry of micro organisms depends on many factors. The organism must enter by a _____ ___

A

Preferred route

270
Q

Salmonella typhi, for example, must enter the Gastrointestinal tract to cause typhoid fever, rather than being robbed onto the skin. This is an example of ___ ___

A

PReferred route

271
Q

Clostridium tetani must penetrate the skin to cause tetanus, and Corynbacterium diphtheria must enter the respiratory tract to cause diphtheria. These are examples of

A

Preferred portal of entry

272
Q

Almost all pathogens have some means of attaching themselves to host tissues at their portal of entry. For most pathogens, this attachment ____ is a necessary step in pathogenicity

A

Adherence

273
Q

The attachment between pathogen and host makes use of surface ____ and complementary surface ____

A

Adhesins/ receptors

274
Q

How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: For many pathogens, set such as streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae, _____ confer a resistance to phagocytosis

A

Capsules

275
Q

How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: streptococcus, for example, contains a protein called _____ ___ on the fuzzy layer of fibrils on the cell surface that helps it resist phagocytosis and improve adherence

A

M proteins

276
Q

How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: the waxy lipid that makes up the ___ ___ of Mycobacterium tuberculosis also increases virulence by resisting digestion of phagocytosis and can even multiply inside phagocytes

A

Cell wall

277
Q

How bacterial pathogens penetrate host defenses: neisseria gonorrhoeae attached to host cells by means of ____ and an outer membrane protein called ___

A

Fimbriae/ opa

278
Q

____ ____ (exoenzymes) have the ability to open cells, dissolved material between cells, and form or dissolve blood clots

A

Extracellular enzymes

279
Q

_____ produced by some members of the genius Staphylococcus are enzymes that coagulate blood

A

Coagulase

280
Q

Bacterial ____ are enzymes that break down fibrin and dissolve clots form by the blood to isolate infections

A

Kinases

281
Q

_____ (fibrinolysin) produced by the enzyme streptococci, and ____, produced by staphylococci are best known bacterial enzymes

A

Streptokinase/staphylokinase

282
Q

_____ is an enzyme secreted by certain bacteria that digest hyaluronic acid

A

Hyaluronidase

283
Q

_____ is a compound of mucopolysaccharide that holds together certain body cells, much like mortar holds together Bricks, especially in connective tissue

A

Hyaluronidase

284
Q

Both of the organisms that produce gas gangrene and a number of streptococci produce this enzyme, which may promote spread of the infections to adjoining tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

285
Q

____ produced by several species of clostridium, breaks down the college and framework of the muscle tissue

A

Collagenase

286
Q

As a defense against adherence of pathogens to mucosal surfaces, the body produces a class of antibodies called

A

IgA antibodies

287
Q

Some pathogens have the ability to produce enzymes called ____ ___that can destroy these antibodies

A

IgA proteases

288
Q

A major factor in the body’s defenses is the specific resistance of the immune system that recognizes antigens by producing antibodies against them, as in the IGA antibodies. Some organisms can continually change their antigenic structure, by means of ___ ___ and invade the immune system

A

Antigenic variation

289
Q

Microbes sometimes attached to host cells by adhesions. This activates factors in the host cell _____ that results in entrance into the cell by the microbe

A

Cytoskeleton

290
Q

A major components of the cytoskeleton is a protein called

A

Actin

291
Q

Some pathogens such as salmonellae produce surface proteins called __ that rearrange nearby actin filament of the cytoskeleton. This causes the pathogen to be engulfed by the cell

A

Invasins

292
Q

Once inside the host cell, some bacteria can use actin to propel themselves from one host cell to another. Actual movement from one cell to another involves a glycoprotein called

A

Cadherin

293
Q

These proteins remove iron from iron transport proteins by binding it more tightly. Iron can also be released from cells of the host when the cell is killed by toxins produced by the pathogen

A

Siderophores

294
Q

____ is required for the growth of pathogens; however, there is little free iron in the host body. It is tightly bound to iron transport proteins such as lactoferrin, transferrin, and ferritin, as well as ____

A

Iron / hemoglobin

295
Q

Once pathogens attached to host cells, they can cause ___ ___ as the pathogens use the host cell for nutrients and produced waste products. Most damage by bacteria, however, is done by toxins

A

Direct damage

296
Q

Poisonous substances produced by certain micro organisms

A

Toxins

297
Q

Proteins secreted by the bacterium, mostly gram-positive, into the surrounding medium or released following lysis

A

Exotoxins

298
Q

This type of toxin is highly specific in their effects on the body tissues and are among the most lethal substances known

A

Exotoxins

299
Q

The body can produce antibodies called ___ that provide immunity to exotoxins

A

Antitoxins

300
Q

Exotoxins can be inactivated, called ___ and used to stimulate anti-toxins in the body against diseases such as diphtheria and tetanus

A

Toxoids

301
Q

___ toxins are named because they consist of two parts. Most exotoxins are of this type

A

A-B

302
Q

After release of the toxins from the pathogen, diphtheria toxins for example, the __ part binds to the host cell, and the A-B toxin is transported into the cell by endocytosis. There the component separates and the ___ part inhibits protein synthesis

A

B/ A

303
Q

___ ___ toxins cause lysis of host cells by disrupting their plasma membrane. Examples are Cell lysing exotoxins of Staphylococcus aureus. These toxins also contribute to virulence by killing host cells, especially phagocytes and macro phages of the body’s defense system

A

Membrane disrupting

304
Q

Membrane disrupting toxins that kill the body’s defense system are called

A

Leukocidins (white cell killers)

305
Q

If the target of membrane disrupting toxins are red blood cells they are called

A

Hemolysins

306
Q

True or false. Hemolysins kill both red blood cells and white blood cells and many other body cells

A

True

307
Q

____Are antigens that provoke a very intense immune response. They stimulate the proliferation of immune system cells called T cells, an important factor and body specific immune defenses

A

Super antigens

308
Q

Proteins that stimulates or inhibits many cell functions are known as

A

Cytokines

309
Q

____ released by superantigens stimulation can cause many symptoms of disease and even death. Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is an example

A

Cytokines

310
Q

____ toxin, an AB toxin is produced by corynebacterium diphtheriae when it is infected by a lysogenic phage carrying the tox gene

A

Diphtheria toxin

311
Q

____ toxin is produced by streptococcus pyogenes and produces the red skin rash characteristic of scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic toxin

312
Q

This is a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis when ingested

A

Botulinum toxin

313
Q

This is an A-B neurotoxin that blocks the relaxation pathway of muscle control, producing spasmodic contraction

A

Tetanus toxin

314
Q

This is an A-B toxin that causes release of large amounts of fluids and electrolytes. The result is a severe diarrhea

A

Vibrio enterotoxin

315
Q

_____ are not secreted by bacteria but are part of the outer portion of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria

A

Endotoxins

316
Q

True or false. Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide portion called lipid A

A

True

317
Q

_____ are released upon death and lysis of the bacteria, as well as during bacterial multiplication

A

Endotoxins

318
Q

This type of toxin activates a blood clot in proteins the block capillaries and thereby cause the death of tissues. It also stimulates macro phages to release damaging amounts of cytokines

A

Endotoxins

319
Q

Visible damage to host cell is known as

A

Cytopathic effects

320
Q

____ effects kill the cell

A

Cytocidal

321
Q

___ effects are damaging but not lethal

A

Noncytocidal

322
Q

True or false. In bacteria, replication begins at an origin of replication, and in some cases to replication fork move in opposite directions

A

True

323
Q

In ___ A strand of messenger RNA is synthesized from the genetic information in DNA

A

Transcription

324
Q

Protein synthesis is called ____ because it translates the language of nucleic acid into the language of proteins

A

Translation

325
Q

Each new double-stranded DNA molecule has one original strand and one new strand, the process is called

A

Semi conservative replication

326
Q

In eukaryotic genes, ____ are regions of DNA that are expressed, and ___ are the intervening regions of DNA that you not encode proteins

A

Exons/ introns

327
Q

True or false transition and translation are almost simultaneous in bacteria

A

True

328
Q

If DNA has a base sequence of ATGCAT then the mRNA will have

A

UACGUA

329
Q

The region where our name polymerase binds to DNA and transcription begins is known as the

A

Promoter site

330
Q

The site where the RNA polymerase and newly formed mRNA are released from the DNA, signaling the end point for transcription of the gene

A

Terminator site

331
Q

The language of mRNA is in ___, groups of three nucleotides such as AUG

A

Codons

332
Q

The sites of translation are ____ that move along mRNA

A

Ribosomes

333
Q

The cell conserves energy by making only those proteins needed at the time. If a gene produces a product at a fixed rate, it is

A

Constitutive

334
Q

And ___ is a substance whose presence results in the formation, or increase in the amount, of an enzyme. Such enzymes are called ___ ___; this genetically controlled response is termed enzyme ____

A

Inducer / enzyme induction / induction

335
Q

Genetic regulation that decreases enzyme synthesis is enzyme ____

A

Repression

336
Q

Protein synthesis and bacteria is controlled by a system called the ___ ___

A

Operon model

337
Q

The operator and promoter sites plus the structural genes are the ___

A

Operon

338
Q

A regulatory Gene called the ___ encodes a repressor proteins the switches inducible and repressible operons off and on

A

I gene

339
Q

The lac operon is an ____ operon

A

Inducible

340
Q

In ____ operon: the absence of lactulose, the repressor binds to the operator site, thus preventing transcription. Lactulose is present, the repressor binds to an metabolite of lactulose instead of to the operator, and lactulose digesting enzymes are transcribed.

A

Inducible

341
Q

In ___ operon The structural genes are transcribed until they are turned off or repressed

A

Repressible

342
Q

A change in the base sequence of DNA

A

Mutation

343
Q

The most common mutation is a ___ ___, or point mutation, in which a single base in DNA is replaced with a different one

A

Base substitution

344
Q

When a base substitution occurs it is likely to result in the incorporation of an incorrect amino acid in the synthesize proteins, a result known as a ____ mutation

A

Missense mutation

345
Q

When a missense mutation occurs, such an error may create a stop codon, which stops protein synthesis before completion, resulting in a

A

Nonsense mutation

346
Q

One or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or inserted in the DNA causing this type of mutation

A

Frameshift mutation

347
Q

Many simple mutations are ___; the change in DNA-based sequence cause is no change in the activity of the product encoded by the gene

A

Silent

348
Q

_____ radiation-such as x-rays and gamma rays, which are mutagens-damages DNA

A

Ionizing

349
Q

___ light is another mutagen that affects DNA. Certain light repair enzymes can repair ultraviolet damage a process stimulated by visible light

A

Ultraviolet

350
Q

___ radiation breaks open DNA and causes free radicals in the cytoplasm

A

Ionizing radiation

351
Q

The most important effects of direct UV light on DNA is the formation of harmful ___ ___ between certain bases

A

Covalent bonds

352
Q

The ____ ___ is based on the ability of a mutated sell to mutate again and to revert to its original form

A

Ames test

353
Q

A procedure using bacteria to identify potential carcinogens

A

Ames test

354
Q

True or false. The Ames test is based on the observation that exposure of Mutant bacteria to mutagenic substances may cause new mutations that reverse the effects of the original mutation

A

True

355
Q

The ___ ___ measures the reversion of histidine auxotroph of salmonella to histidine synthesize cells after treatment with a mutagen

A

Ames test

356
Q

The rearrangement of genes to form new combinations is known as

A

Genetic recombination

357
Q

If two chromosomes break and Are rejoined in such a way that some of the genes are reshuffled between the two chromosomes, the process is called

A

Crossing over

358
Q

This occurs when genes are passed from an organism to its offspring.

A

Vertical gene transfer

359
Q

Bacteria can also pass jeans laterally to other microbes of the same generation-known as

A

Horizontal gene transfer

360
Q

In ____ , “naked”DNA in solution is transferred from one bacterial cell to another

A

Transformation

361
Q

The process of ____ occurs naturally among very few genre of bacteria, and it usually occurs when donor and recipient are closely related and in the log phase of growth

A

Transformation

362
Q

_____ requires contact between living cells of opposite meeting types.

A

Conjugation

363
Q

Another mechanism by which genetic material is transferred from one bacterium to another is known as

A

Conjugation

364
Q

____ is mediated by one kind of plasmid, a circular piece of DNA replicates independently from the cells chromosomes

A

Conjugation

365
Q

True or false. Conjugation does not require direct cell to cell contact

A

False

366
Q

True or false. The conjugating cells must generally be opposite meeting type; donor cells must carry the plasmid, and recipient cells usually do not

A

True

367
Q

In this process, bacterial DNA is transferred from a donor sell to a recipient cell inside a virus that infects bacteria

A

Transduction

368
Q

In __ transduction, only certain bacterial genes are transferred

A

Specialized

369
Q

In ___ transduction the phage attaches to the bacterial cell wall and Engex DNA into the bacterium

A

Generalized

370
Q

A circular piece of DNA that replicates independently from the cells chromosomes, usually carry only jeans that are not essential for growth of the cell

A

Plasmids

371
Q

Small segments of DNA that can move from one region of the chromosome to another

A

Transporons

372
Q

The ___ strand in DNA replication is synthesized continuously by DNA polymerase

A

Leading

373
Q

The ____strand in DNA replication is synthesized continuously. Primase , an RNA polymerase synthesizes a short RNA primer, which is then extended by DNA polymerase

A

Lagging