Chap 1-3 Flashcards

0
Q

ATom’s interact to form

A

Molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

This is the smallest unit of matter that enters into chemical reactions

A

Atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Atoms are composed of

A

Electrons protons and neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Negatively charged particles

A

Electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Positively charged particles

A

Protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Uncharged particles

A

Neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Each chemical element has a different number of

A

Protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Isotopes of an element or Atoms with different numbers of

A

Neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The number of missing or extra electrons in the shell is known as the

A

Valance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Molecules hold together because the valance electrons of the combining Atoms form attractive forces called

A

Chemical bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The number of protons and electrons is equal in an atom with this type of bond

A

Ionic bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Charged Adams that have gained or lost electrons

A

Ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This type of bond is a compound that contains different kinds of Adams

A

Chemical bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

These type of bonds are attractions between ions of opposite charge

A

Ionic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

These type of bonds formed when two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons

A

Covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This type of bond forms when a hydrogen Adam that is covalently bonded to an oxygen or nitrogen Adam is attracted to another nitrogen or oxygen Adam and another molecule

A

Hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This type of reaction occurs when Adams ions or molecules combined to form new larger molecules

A

Synthesis reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This reaction is the synthesis of molecules in the cell

A

Anabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

These types of reactions are part synthesis and part decomposition

A

Exchange reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This type of reaction involves the making or breaking of bonds between Adams

A

Chemical reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A change in ____ ____occurs during a chemical reaction

A

Chemical energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Reactions that absorb energy

A

Endergonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Reactions that release energy

A

Exergonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This type of reaction occurs when a molecule is split into smaller molecules ions or Adams

A

Decomposition reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The decomposition reactions in a cell

A

Catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

These types of reactions can readily go in either direction and each direction may need special conditions

A

Reversible reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

These compounds always contain carbon and hydrogen

A

Organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

These compounds typically lack of carbon

A

In organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Polar substances dissociates forming

A

Solutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

These are substances that dissociate into one or more hydrogen

A

Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

These are substances that dissociates into one or more OH-

A

Bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

These are substances that dissociate into cations and anions, neither of which is H+ or OH-

A

Salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The chain of carbon Adams in an organic molecule is the

A

Carbon skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Small organic molecules can combine into large

A

Macro molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

______ are polymers consisting of many small repeating molecules

A

Macromolecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The smaller molecules found in organic compounds are called

A

Monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

These are formed when two monosaccharides are joined in a dehydration synthesis

A

Disaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

These carbohydrates can be broken down by hydrolysis

A

Disaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

These are simple sugars with 3 to 7 carbon Atoms

A

Monosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

This carbohydrate consist of 2 to 20 monosaccharides

A

Oligosaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

These carbohydrates consist of tens of hundreds of monosaccharides joined through dehydration synthesis

A

Polysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Starch, glycogen, dextran, and cellulose are polymers of _____ that are covalently bonded differently

A

Glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

_____ is a polymer of two sugars repeating many times

A

chitin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Contains glycerol and fatty acids formed by dehydration synthesis

A

Fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This simple lipid has no double bonds

A

Saturated fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The simple lipid has one or more double bonds in the fatty acids

A

Unsaturated fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In this simple lipid the H atom is found on the opposite side of the double bond

A

Trans fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

primarily consist of cell membranes
consist of C,H,O
Are nonpolar and insoluble in water

A

Lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

These lipids contain C, H, and O +P, N, or S

A

Complex lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

With these lipids the membranes are made of phospholipids

A

Complex lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Four carbon rings with an -OH group attached to one ring; part of membranes

A

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

____ are Essential in cell structure and function

A

Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

______ are proteins that speed chemical reactions

A

Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

______ _____ move chemicals across membranes

A

Transporter proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Proteins consist of subunits called

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

______ bonds between amino acids are formed by dehydration synthesis

A

Peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The primary structure of protein is a

A

Polypeptide chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

These amino acids exists in either of two stereoisomers

A

D or L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

L forms of amino acids are most often found in

A

Nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The structure of protein occurs when the amino acid chain folds and coils in a regular helix or pleats

A

Secondary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The structure of protein occurs when the helix fold in regularly, forming disulfide bridges,hydrogen bonds, and ionic bonds between amino acids in the chain

A

Tertiary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The structure protein consist of two or more polypeptides

A

Quaternary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

These proteins consist of amino acids and other organic molecules such as glycoproteins, nucleoproteins, and lipoproteins

A

Conjugated proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The structure exist as a double helix; A hydrogen bonds with T, C hydrogen bonds with G

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Has ribose, is single-stranded, A hydrogen bonds with U, C hydrogen bonds with G

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Has ribose, adenine, and three phosphate groups

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

_____ is made by Dehydration synthesis and is broken by hydrolysis to liberate useful energy for the cells

A

ATP

67
Q

The destruction of the tertiary level of protein structure rendering it unusable is called

A

Denaturation

68
Q

This source of infection is from within, the etiologic agent of the disease is often a member of the normal indigenous Flora

A

Endogenous infection

69
Q

This source of infection is from without, usually, from another infected host or directly from the environment

A

Exogenous infection

70
Q

A healthy human or animal host which is infected with the potential pathogen anybody region from which the pathogen can escape and be transmitted to other susceptible host

A

Healthy carrier

71
Q

The larger organism plant or animal which is parasitized

A

Host

72
Q

The entrance, growth or colonization, and multiplication of a parasite in any living host organism, regardless of the effect on the host

A

Infection

73
Q

The ability of a parasite to spread through host tissues

A

Invasiveness

74
Q

Parasitic micro organisms which are normal residents of mucosal surfaces of practically all healthy individuals

A

Normal flora

75
Q

A parasitic or Saprophytic organism which ordinarily does not cause disease, but, under appropriate conditions, may produce damage in a compromised host

A

Opportunistic pathogen

76
Q

A small organism which lives within or upon a large organism of a different species, usually at the expense of the larger organism

A

Parasite

77
Q

The ability to cause disease in a susceptible host

A

Pathogenicity

78
Q

A form of an apparent infection following a clinical case in which the pathogen is not completely eliminated, but remains in the tissues after the host recovers. The host may be infectious

A

Persisting latent infection

79
Q

The degree of disease producing power of a pathogen. A quantitative measure of pathogenicity

A

Virulence

80
Q

The study of bacteria

A

Bacteriology

81
Q

The study of fungi

A

Mycology

82
Q

The study of algae

A

Phycology

83
Q

The study of protozoa

A

Protozoology

84
Q

The study of viruses; RNA or DNA never both

A

Virology

85
Q

Prokaryotes that do not have a membrane, enclosed nuclei

A

Bacteria

86
Q

Eucaryotes that have cell walls, are non-motile, and are unable to photosynthesize

A

Fungi

87
Q

Photosynthetic Eucaryotes

A

Algae

88
Q

Uni cellular and eukaryotes that are motile, are unable to photosynthesize, and generally lack cell walls

A

Protozoa

89
Q

Acellular submicroscopic particles that consist primarily of a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat

A

Viruses

90
Q

What is the size of bacteria

A

0.1 to 2 µm

91
Q

What is the size of Archaea

A

0.1-2 µm

92
Q

What are the size of algae

A

100 µm

93
Q

What are the size of fungi

A

100 µm

94
Q

What are the size of protozoa

A

0.1-1 mm

95
Q

What are the size of viruses

A

1.5-300 nanometers

96
Q

____ established the system of scientific nomenclature

A

Linnaeus

97
Q

Refers to a rapidly growing cell

A

Germ

98
Q

Describes the clustered spherical cells, describes the gold colored colonies

A

Staphylococcus aureus

99
Q

Who made the first observations and describe live micro organisms

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

100
Q

___ ___ reported that living things are composed of little boxes, or cells

A

Robert Hook

101
Q

Theory that all living things are composed of cells and come from pre-existing cells

A

Cell theory

102
Q

___ ____ said cells arise from pre-existing cells

A

Rudolph Virchow

103
Q

The hypothesis that living organisms arise from nonliving matter; a vital force forms life

A

Spontaneous generation

104
Q

The hypothesis that living organisms arise from pre-existing life

A

Biogenesis

105
Q

_____ show that microbes are responsible for fermentation

A

Pasteur

106
Q

The conversion of sugar to alcohol to make beer and wine

A

Fermentation

107
Q

____ ____ demonstrated that life did not arise spontaneously from nonliving matter

A

Louis Pasteur

108
Q

Demonstrated that these spoilage bacteria could be killed by heat that was not hot enough to evaporate the alcohol and wine

A

Pasteur

109
Q

The application of a high heat for a short time

A

Pasteurization

110
Q

___ ___ used a chemical disinfectant to prevent surgical wound infections

A

Joseph Lister

111
Q

He performed surgery under anti-septic conditions using phenol. Proved that microbes caused surgical wound infections

A

Joseph Lister

112
Q

_____ ____ proved that a bacterium causes anthrax and provided the experimental steps called Koch’s postulates

A

Robert Koch

113
Q

He inoculated a person with cowpox virus, who was then protected from smallpox

A

Edward Jenner

114
Q

He established experimental steps for directly linking a specific microbe to a specific disease

A

Robert Koch

115
Q

He speculated about a magic bullet that could destroy a pathogen without harming the host

A

Paul Ehrlich

116
Q

He developed a synthetic arsenic drunk, Salvarsan, to treat syphilis

A

Ehrlich

117
Q

He discovered the first antibiotic

A

Alexander Fleming

118
Q

He observed that the Penicillium fungus made an antibiotic, penicillin, that killed Staphylococcus aureus

A

Fleming

119
Q

Bacteria degrade organic matter and sewage

A

Bioremediation

120
Q

Bacteria degrade or detoxify pollutants such as oil and mercury

A

Bio remediation

121
Q

Microbes attached to solid surfaces and grow into masses. They will grow on rocks, pipes, teeth, and medical implants

A

Biofilms

122
Q

New diseases and diseases increasing in incidence

A

Emerging infectious diseases

123
Q

When a pathogen overcomes the hosts resistance, disease results

A

Infectious disease

124
Q

This virus is found primarily in waterfowl and poultry. Sustained human to human transmission has not occurred yet.

A

Avian influenza A

125
Q

Evian influenza A is also known as

A

H5N1 or bird flu

126
Q

Caused by west Nile virus. First diagnosed in the west Nile region of Uganda in 1937. Appeared in New York City in 1999.

A

West Nile encephalitis

127
Q

West Nile encephalitis is also known as

A

H1N1

128
Q

This disease is caused by a prion. Also further causes Creutzfeldt Jacob disease.

A

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

129
Q

A new variant in Creutzfeldt Jacob disease in humans is related to cattle that have been fed sheep offal for protein

A

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy

130
Q

Ebola virus. Causes fever, hemorrhaging, and blood clotting. First identified near Ebola River, Congo. Outbreaks every few years

A

Ebola hemorrhagic fever

131
Q

First identified in 1981, sexually transmitted infection affecting males and females. Caused by human immunodeficiency virus

A

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

132
Q

Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner’s vaccination process

A

Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity

133
Q

Classification of organisms into three domains is based on

A

Cellular organization

134
Q

Who is credited with the first observing micro organisms

A

Anton van Leeiwenhoek

135
Q

The term used to describe a disease causing microorganisms is

A

Pathogen

136
Q

Which of the following is not associated with viruses

A

Organelles

137
Q

The use of phenol as a disinfectant was first practice by

A

Lister

138
Q

The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally just disproved by

A

Louis Pasteur

139
Q

Molecular biology is the study of

A

The structure and function of macromolecules essential to life

140
Q

The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as

A

Fermentation

141
Q

Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe except

A

Mushroom

142
Q

The prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components except

A

A nucleus

143
Q

Fungal infections are studied by

A

Mycologist

144
Q

The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Kochis postulates is to

A

Obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal

145
Q

Which of the following statements about biofilms is false

A

Compared to free living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics

146
Q

Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea

A

Have diverse cell wall compositions

147
Q

Protozoan motility structures include

A

Cilia, flagella, and pseudopods

148
Q

Robert Koch identify the cause of

A

Anthrax

149
Q

In the name Staphylococcus aureus , Aureus is the

A

Specific name

150
Q

Who is credited with first observing cells

A

Robert Hook

151
Q

Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by

A

Koch

152
Q

Who was the first scientist to pursue a magic bullet that could be used to treat infectious disease is

A

Ehrlich

153
Q

In which of the following situations with Kochis postulates be utilized

A

Determination of the cause of the patient’s illness in a hospital microbiology lab

154
Q

Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following except

A

Use of genetically modified foods

155
Q

What physician is first associated with vaccination

A

Jenner

156
Q

Biogenesis refers to the

A

Development of life forms from pre-existing lifeforms

157
Q

The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by

A

Carrelis Linnaeus

158
Q

If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment

A

Using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to micro organisms

159
Q

True or false. Some viruses can contain both DNA and are in a

A

False

160
Q

True or false. Bovine spongiform encephalitis is caused by a virus

A

False

161
Q

True or false. Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first microbiologist to use a microscope to examine it environmental samples for the presence of micro organisms

A

True

162
Q

True or false. The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria present

A

False

163
Q

Which of the following is the type of bond between molecules of water in a beaker of water

A

Hydrogen bond

164
Q

What type of bond holding hydrogen and oxygen Adams in the H2O molecule

A

Covalent bond