Final 16,17,20 Flashcards

1
Q

___ __ refers to defenses that are present at birth, which are always present and available to provide rapid responses to protect us against disease

A

InNate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___ ___ is based on a specific response to a specific microbe once a microbe has breached to the Innate immunity defenses

A

Adaptive immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This system respond rapidly to invaders by detecting them and then attempting to eliminate them

A

Innate immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

It has recently been learned that the responses of the inmate system are activated by protein receptors in the plasma membrane’s of defense cells; among these activators are _____

A

TLR (toll like receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TLR attached to the various components commonly found on pathogens that are called _____

A

PAMP (pathogen associated molecular patterns)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ also attached two components of fungi and parasites

A

TLR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Two of the defense of cells involved innate immunity are called ___ and ___ ___

A

Macro phages and dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

___ are proteins that regulate the intensity and duration of immune responses

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The intact skin consist of the __, and inner, proportion composed of connective tissue, And the ___ and outer, thinner portion consisting of several layers of epithelial cells arranged and continuous sheets

A

Dermis/epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The top layer of epidermal cells contains the protein ___

A

Keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

___ __ line the body cavities that open to the exterior; these include the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tract

A

Mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The first line of defense consist of

A

Skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Perspiration contains ____, an enzyme that breaks down the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria. This enzyme is also found in saliva, tears, nasal secretions, and tissue fluids

A

Lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

___ ___ is a mixture of hydrochloric acid, and zymes, and mucus, with and the city of pH 1.2 to 3

A

Gastric juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The normal microbiota, by __ ___, can often preevent colonization by pathogens. Live bacterial cultures, also known as ___ are sometimes added, which are intended to exert a beneficial effect

A

Competitive exclusion/probiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Blood consist of fluid called

A

Plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cells and cell fragments suspended and plasma are also known as

A

Formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Of the formed elements, those that concern us at presents are the ___, or white blood cells

A

Leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Google sites are divided into two main categories based on their appearance under a light microscope: ____ and ___

A

Granulocytes/agranulocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_____ all of their names the presence of large granules in there cytoplasm that can be seen under a light microscope after staining

A

Granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

These cells are differentiated into three types of cells on the basis of how the granules stain: neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils

A

Granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The granules of ___ stain paled lilac with a mixture of acidic and basic dyes

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Neutrophils are commonly called ___ or polymorphs

A

PMN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

____ have the ability to leave the blood, enter an infected tissue, and destroy microbes and foreign particles

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

___ stained blue purple with the basic die methylene blue

A

Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Basophils really substances such as ___, that are important in inflammation and allergic responses

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

_____ stained red or orange with the acidic dye eosin

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

_____ are somewhat Phagocytic and also have the ability to leave the blood. Their major function is to produce toxic proteins against certain parasites, such as helminths

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Monocytes, dendritic cells, and lymphocytes, are three different types of _____

A

Agranulocyte’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

____ are not actively Phagocytic until they leave circulating blood, enter blood tissues, amateur into macro phages

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

___ ___ are also believed to be derived from monocytes. They have long extensions that resembled the dendrites of nerve cells, thus their names

A

Dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The function of ___ cells is to destroy microbes by Phagocytosis and to initiate adaptive immunity response

A

Dendritic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

___ include natural killer cells, T cells, and B cells

A

Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

These cells are found in blood and in the spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow

A

Natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

___ cells have the ability to kill a large variety of infected body cells and tumor cells. They attack anybody sells that display abnormal or unusual plasma membrane proteins

A

Natural killer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Some granules containing protein called ____, which inserts into the plasma membrane of the target sell and creates channels into the membrane

A

Perforin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Perforin results in extracellular fluid flowing into target cells and the cell bursts, a process called ____

A

Cytolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

_____ are protein digesting enzymes that and use the target sell to undergo apoptosis or self-destruction

A

Granzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Our vulnerability or lack of resistance is known as

A

Susceptibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

___ __ which are the sites of activation of T cells and B cells, which destroying microbes by immune response

A

Lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

______ or attachment between the cell membrane of the Phagocyte and the organism

A

Adherence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The attraction of micro organisms to chemicals is known as

A

Chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

_____ is the coding of a micro organism with plasma proteins such as anti-bodies and complement-promotes phagocytosis

A

Opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Following adherence, projections of the cell membrane of the phagocyte (pseudopods) and golf the micro organism and then fold in word, forming a sack around it called a ____ or ___ ___

A

Phagesome or Phagocytic vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

With in the cell, enzyme containing phagoomes and lysosomes of the cell fuse to form a larger structure, the ___ with in which the bacteria are usually quickly killed

A

Phagolysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Enzymes in ____ include lysozyme, various hydrolytic enzymes, and Myeloperoxidases. Their action is a process called

A

Lysosomes / oxidative burst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

So microbes evade adherence by phagocytes with structures such as M proteins or capsules. They produce ___ and other complexes that killed the phagocyte

A

Leukocidins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

___ is a host response to tissue damage, characterized by redness, pain, heat, swelling, and perhaps loss of function

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

___ ___ ___ are converted to active forms by inflammation and induce localized and systemic responses

A

Acute phase proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

___ is often in response to the action of cytokines, which are small proteins release from human cells regulate immune response

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

___ is the first stage of information; it involves an increase in blood vessel diameters, and therefore much more bloodflow, and the injured area

A

Vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

____ ___ allows defense substances in the blood to pass through the walls of the blood vessels

A

InCreased permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

____ is also responsible for the redness, heat, edema, and pain of inflammation

A

Vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

___ cause vasodilation and also increased permeability and attract phagocytes

A

Kinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Supporting connective tissue

A

Stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The functioning part of tissue is known as

A

Parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The final stage of inflammation is

A

Tissue repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The resulting release of endotoxins causes release of a cytokine called

A

Interleukin 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

___ refers to a very rapid fall in temperature

A

Crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The ____ controls body temperature bus the setting can be altered by ingestion of gram-negative bacteria my phagocytes

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

___ consist of a group of over 30 different proteins found in blood serum

A

Complements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

__ __ is the liquid portion of blood that remains after it is drawn and clotting proteins form a clot with the formed elements

A

Blood serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Complement participates in ____ of foreign cells, inflammation, and phagocytosis

A

Lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The complement proteins act in an order and sequence, or ____; one protein activates another

A

Cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

In the ___ pathway, activity is initiated when antibody molecules bind to the antigen-a bacterial cell, for example.

A

Classical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In the ____ pathway, which does not involve antibodies, complement proteins, and proteins called factor B, D, and P, combined with certain microbial polysaccharides

A

Alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

This pathway especially affects the Lipopolysaccharide cell wall portions of gram-negative bacteria

A

Alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In the ___ pathway, macro phages stimulate the lever to release lectins. These enhance opsonization by binding to sell carbohydrates

A

Lectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The result of complement activation:

Cytolysis: complement proteins then binds to two adjacent antibodies and initiates a sequence known as the ___ __ __

A

Membrane attack complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The results of complement activation:

Circular lesions called ____ channels are formed and cause the eventual lysis of the cell, to which the anti-bodies are attached

A

Transmembrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The result of complement activation:

_____ also can develop from complement. Other complement proteins combined with mast cells and trigger the release of histamine, which increases blood vessel permeability

A

Inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The result of a complement activation:

____, or immune adherence, promotes attachment of a phagocytes to the microbe. Complement involvement results with interaction with special receptors of the phagocytes

A

Opsonization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

True or false. Interferon alpha and interferon beta cells are produced by virus infected host cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

True or false. Interferon gamma cells are produced by lymphocytes and kill bacteria

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

True or false. Interferon cell types alpha, beta, and gamma are proteins

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

_____ tends to interfere with viral multiplication by inducing the uninfected sell to manufacture mRNA for synthesis of antiviral proteins

A

Interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Oligoadenylate synthetase degrades

A

Viral mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Protein kinase inhibits

A

Protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Transferrin is found in

A

Blood and tissue fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Lactoferrin is found in

A

Milk, saliva, and mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

____ is located in the liver, spleen, and red bone marrow

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Free iron is scarce in the human body because most of it is bound to molecules such as transferrin, lactoferrin, ferritin, and hemoglobin, collectively called

A

Iron binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Pathogenic bacteria obtain iron by secreting proteins called

A

Siderophores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Penicillins, cephalosporins, bacitracin, and vancomycin work by breaking down the peptidoglycan ___ __ of bacteria

A

Cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Chloramphenicol, gentamicin, erythromycin, tetracyclines and streptomycin interfere with protein synthesis by reacting with the _____ of bacteria

A

Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

___ and ____ act by interfering with the nucleic acid synthesis of microbial cells

A

Rifampin and quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

____ are enzymes that Cleave the B lactam ring of penicillins, causing resistance

A

Penicillinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A large number of ___ ___ penicillins have been developed to overcome the disadvantages of natural penicillins

A

Semi synthetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

So I change of natural penicillins are removed and other sidechains added to extend their spectrum or make them resistant to ____

A

Penicillinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The first semi synthetic penicillin designed to evade the action of penicillinases was ___

A

Methicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Eventually so many staphylococcal strains became resistant that the abbreviation ___ made its appearance

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What does MRSA stand for

A

Methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, carbenicillin, ticarcillin are all __ ___ of activity compared to natural penicillin

A

Broad spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Another approach to penicillinase resistance is to combine penicillins with potassium clavulanate, which is a noncompetitive inhibitor of penicillinase. An example of this combination of penicillin is called

A

Augmentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The structural nucleus and mode of action of _____ resemble those of penicillins. Cephalothin, cefamandole, cefotaxime are examples of ____

A

Cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

This antibiotic is a polypeptide antibiotic, effective primarily against gram-positive bacteria. It inhibits the synthesis of cell walls and his use only topically

A

Bacitracin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

___ is a member of the small glycopeptide group that inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis. It is used against penicillinase producing staphylococci that cause life-threatening infections.

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does VRE stand for

A

Vancomycin resistant enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Vancomycin is used in to treat ___ and has led to the selection of VRE

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

____ used in treating tuberculosis, is believed to inhibit synthesis of mycolic acid, which are part of the cell wall of Mycobacteria

A

Isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

____ is effective only against mycobacteria and is used in chemotherapeutic treatment of tuberculosis. It inhibits the incorporation of mycholic acid into the cell wall

A

Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

This broad-spectrum antibiotic affects protein synthesis. Structurally simple, it is often synthesize chemically. It is the drug of choice for typhoid fever and certain types of meningitis, For which the rest of its side effects is considered justified

A

Chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

This is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that is also effective against chlamydia is in rickettssias . They inhibit protein synthesis. They produce such side effects as tooth discoloration and liver damage.

A

Tetracyclines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

____ our names for their macrocyclic lactone ring and are especially effective against gram-positive bacteria

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

_____ inhibits protein synthesis and is used in treating infections resistant to penicillin’s, as well as legionellosis and mycoplasmal pneumonia

A

Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Azithromycin and Clarithromyosin are broad-spectrum antibiotics which fall under which category

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

_____ our new semi synthetic macrolides developed to combat microbial resistance

A

Ketolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

____ The best-known of the rifamycin familyis used in tuberculosis therapy. The drug inhibits the synthesis of mRNA

A

Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The first of the _____ group was nalidixic acid which selectively inhibits the enzyme DNA gyrase needed for DNA replication

A

Quinolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Norfloxacin and ciprofloxacin are most widely used _____

A

Flouroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

_____Act by competitive inhibition of full of acid, a precursor of nucleic acid’s

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole our structural analogues that inhibit synthesis of DNA at different stages. These drugs are examples of

A

Sulfonamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Among the nucleoside analogue, ____ is widely used for many herpes virus infections

A

Acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The resistance to antimicrobial drugs is often carried by the ____ such as resistance R factors, or transporons

A

Plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

True or false.Resistance to antimicrobial drugs arises from random mutations. These can spread horizontally by conjugation or transduction

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Bacteria is resistant to large numbers of antibiotics or called

A

Superbugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

____ also called immunogens, mostly proteins or large polysaccharides. These may be part of micro organisms were antigen such as pollen, egg whites, blood cells, or transplant to tissues or organs

A

Antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

____ usually recognize and interact with anti-genic determinants, or epitopes, on the antigen, rather than an entire antigen

A

Anti-bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

___ are low molecular weight antigens that are not anti-genic unless first attached to a carrier molecule. Once the anti-body against the hapten has formed, the hapten will react independently of the carrier

A

Haptens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

____ is a good example of a hapten

A

Penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

____ are proteins called immunoglobulins

A

Anti-bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

True Or false.Globulins are proteins of certain solubility characteristics

A

True

123
Q

The ___ is the number of such sites on the antibody

A

Valance

124
Q

True or false. Each anti-body has at least two antigen binding sites

A

True

125
Q

An anti-body has ___ protein chains-two identical light L chains and two identical heavy H chains

A

4

126
Q

Anti-body structure: at the ends of the arms of why she molecules are variable V regions, with the structure that accounts for the ability of different anti-bodies to recognize and bind with different antigens- the ___ ___ sites

A

Antigen binding

127
Q

The stem of the anti-body monomer and lower parts of the Y arms are called

A

Constant regions

128
Q

The stem of the Y shaped monomer is the

A

FC region

129
Q

True or false. The antibody molecule can attach to a Host cell by the FC region. Complement can bind to the FC region

A

True

130
Q

___ anti-bodies account for 80% of all anti-bodies and Serum

A

IgG

131
Q

These immunoglobulins are monomers and readily cross blood vessel walls to enter tissue fluids

A

IgG

132
Q

True or false. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta to confer immunity to the fetus

A

True

133
Q

____ anti-bodies protect against circulating bacteria and viruses, neutralize bacterial toxins, trigger the complement system, and buying to antigens to enhance action of Phagocytic cells

A

IgG

134
Q

____ is so long live that it’s presence me in the K immunity against disease condition in the more distant past

A

IgG

135
Q

___ anti-bodies constitute 5 to 10% of anti-bodies in serum

A

IgM

136
Q

True or false. IgM antibodies are the first to appear in response to an Antigen, but their concentration declines rapidly

A

True

137
Q

___ has a Pentamer structure of 5Y shaped monomers held together by A J (joining)chain

A

IgM

138
Q

The presence of ___ and high concentrations in a patient makes it likely that the anti-body are associated with the disease pathogen

A

IgM

139
Q

True or false. IgM anti-bodies generally do not enter surrounding tissue

A

True

140
Q

___ is the predominant anti-body in the ABO blood group antigen reactions

A

IgM

141
Q

___ anti-bodies accounts for about 10 to 15% of the antibodies in serum

A

IgA

142
Q

IgA circulates in serum as a monomer, serum IGA. IGA May be joined by AJ chain into dimers of 2Y shaped monomers called ___ ___

A

Secretory IgA

143
Q

The main function of IgA is preventing ___ oh viruses and certain bacteria to mucosal surfaces

A

Attachment

144
Q

___ anti-bodies are only about 0.2% of the total serum antibodies

A

IgD

145
Q

____ are monomers and are found in blood and lymph cells and on B cell surfaces

A

IgD

146
Q

____ antibodies are monomers slightly larger than IgG and constitutes only 0.002% of the total Serum anti bodies. The blind by their FC stem site to mast cells and basophils

A

IgE

147
Q

When an antigen reacts with ___ antibodies, the mast cell or basal cell releases histamine and other chemical mediators involved in allergic reaction. These inflammatory reactions can be protective, attracting IgG and Phagocytic cells

A

IgE

148
Q

Antibodies are produced by special group of lymphocytes called ____, which developed from stem cell precursors. The process that leads to the production of antibodies start when B cells are exposed to free, or extracellular antigens

A

B cells

149
Q

Each ___ carries immunoglobulins on its surface, mostly IgM and IgD- all of which are specific for the recognition of the same epitope

A

B cell

150
Q

When the B cells immunoglobulins binds to the epitope for which they become specific, the B cell is ___

A

Activated

151
Q

And activated B cell undergoes ___ ___ or proliferation

A

Clonal expansion

152
Q

B cells usually require the assistance of ___ __ __

A

T helper cell

153
Q

And antigen that requires T-helper cells for antibody production is known as a

A

T-dependent antigen

154
Q

True or false. T-dependant antigens or mainly proteins

A

True

155
Q

The antigen contacts the surface immunoglobulins on the B cell and his enzymatically process with in the B cell-fragments of it are combined with membrane proteins called the __ ___ ___

A

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

156
Q

This is a collection of genes that encode molecules by genetically diverse glycoproteins found on plasma membrane on nucleated cells

A

Major histocompatibility complex

157
Q

In humans the major histocompatibility complex is called

A

Human leukocyte antigen

158
Q

The ___ identifies the host and prevents the immune system from making antibodies that would be harmful. The complex of the anti-genic fragments and the NHC are then displayed on the B cell service for identification by the TCR of the THelper cells

A

MHC

159
Q

When antigen presenting cells are found on the surface of the B cells, the T-helper cells become activated by this contact, and begin producing ___ that cause the activation of the B cells

A

Cytokines

160
Q

And activated be so proliferates and spell large clone of cells, some of which differentiate into anti-body producing ___ ___

A

Plasma cells

161
Q

Other clones of the activated B cells become long-lived memory cells this is called

A

Clonal selection

162
Q

The cells that my produce antibodies harmful to the host or eliminated at the immature lymphocyte stage by __ __

A

Clonal deletion

163
Q

Antigens that stimulate the B cells directly without the help of T cells are called

A

T-independent antigens

164
Q

These antigens are characterized by repeating subunits such as found in polysaccharides are lightbulb polysaccharides; bacterial capsules, for example

A

T-independent antigens

165
Q

These antigens generally provoke a relatively weak immune response, primarily of IgM, and no memory cells

A

T-Independent antigens

166
Q

True or false. When an anti-body encounters and antigen for which it is specific, and antigen antibody complex forms

A

True

167
Q

The strength of the bond in an antigen antibody complex is called

A

Affinity

168
Q

The capability of recognizing and antigens epitope and distinguishing it from another is the

A

Specificity

169
Q

In ____ The antibodies cause antigens to come together; these clients are more easily ingested by phagocytes

A

Agglutination

170
Q

___ is more effective at agglutination because it has more binding sites

A

IgM

171
Q

In ___ The anti-bodies inactivate viruses or toxins by blocking their attachment to host cells

A

Neutralization

172
Q

In ___ The antigen is coated with anti-bodies that enhance its ingestion and lyses by Phagocytic cells

A

Opsonization

173
Q

Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity resembles ___ in that the target organism becomes coated with anti-bodies-however, destruction is done by immune system cells that remain external to the target cell

A

Opsonization

174
Q

Antibodies me trigger activation of the __ ___. Sometimes this attracts Phagocytes and other defense of immune system cells to the infected area and other times it leads to lysis of the microbial pathogen

A

Complement system

175
Q

_____ and cellular immunity are directed against intracellular antigens, which are not exposed to circulating antibodies. There are also important in the recognition and destruction of cells that are non-self, especially cancer cells

A

T cells

176
Q

Like B cells, each T-cell is specific for only a certain antigen. Rather than a coating of immunoglobulin that provides the specificity for B cells, a T-cell has _____

A

Tcrs

177
Q

The stem cell precursors of a T-cell reach maturity in the

A

Thymus

178
Q

Most T cells are eliminated in the thymus, in a process called ___ ___ which is analogous to clonal deletion and B cells

A

Thymic selection

179
Q

After Thymic selection, T cells then migrate to lymphoid tissues where they are most likely to encounter ____

A

Antigens

180
Q

Most pathogens that the cellular immune system combats into the gastrointestinal tract or Lungs, where they encounter a barrier of ___ ___

A

Epithelial cells

181
Q

Pathogens normally pass the barrier of filial cells in the gastrointestinal tract by way of ___ ___

A

M cells

182
Q

M cells are located over ___ ___ which are secondary lymphoid organs located on the intestinal wall

A

Peyers patches

183
Q

T cytotoxic cells can differentiate into an effector cell called a

A

CTL (cytotoxic T lymphocyte)

184
Q

T cells are also classified by glycoproteins on their surface called

A

CD (clusters of differentiation)

185
Q

The clusters of differentiation (CD) of greatest interest are

A

CD4 and CD8

186
Q

These T-helper cells buying to MHC class to molecules on the cells and APC

A

CD4

187
Q

These T cytotoxic cells bind to MHC class 1 molecules

A

CD8

188
Q

___ cells presents T dependants antigens to be cells. They also help other T cells response to antigens

A

CD4

189
Q

____ sells mostly activate cells related to cellular immunity, especially delayed type hypersensitivity. They also enhance the activity of compliments and Opsonization and inflammation

A

TH1

190
Q

___ cells are especially important in allergic reactions such as hypersensitivity and defense against Helminthic infections

A

TH2

191
Q

T-helper cells differentiate into two major subpopulations __ and __

A

TH1 and TH2

192
Q

A third subset is the ____T cells, which are names for their production of large quantities of cytokine I L 17

A

TH17

193
Q

____ cells are effective against certain infections not affected by TH1 and TH2 cells

A

TH17

194
Q

___ cells stimulate B cells to produce plasma cells and are also involved in class switching

A

TFH

195
Q

T regulatory cells were formally called

A

Suppressor cells

196
Q

____ cells are a subset of CD4 T-helper cells and carry an additional CD 25 molecule

A

T reg

197
Q

____ cells combat autoimmunity by suppressing T cells that escape deletion in the thymus without the necessary education to avoid reacting against the body’s cells. They also protects against intestinal bacteria required for digestion

A

T reg

198
Q

___ cells are precursors to cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL)

A

CD8

199
Q

Only the ___ that can attack a target cell are considered to be nonself. The target cells can be self cells that have been altered by infection by a pathogen, especially a virus

A

CTL

200
Q

The ___ cell recognizes endogenous antigens on the target cells surface that are in combination with an MHC class one molecule

A

CD8

201
Q

In its attack a CTL attaches to the target sell and releases __. This protein forms a pore that contributes to the death of the cell

A

Perforin

202
Q

___, protease that induce apoptosis are now able to enter through the pore

A

Granzymes

203
Q

____ is also called programmed cell death and results and sell disintegration that attracts phagocytes that digest the remains

A

Apoptosis

204
Q

One benefit of ___ is that it clears the cells of pathogens and prevents the spread of infectious viruses and two other cells. It also limits uncontrolled growth that will be harmful in the long run

A

Apoptosis

205
Q

In ___ ___,the APCs are not B cells, but Dentrich cells and macro phages

A

Cellular immunity

206
Q

___ cells are characterized by long extensions called dendrites. They are plentiful in the lymph nodes, spleen, and skin but not the brain

A

Dendritic

207
Q

___ our importance for inmate immunity and reading the body of cellular debris

A

Macro phages

208
Q

Macrophages Phagocytic capabilities are increased when stimulated by ingestion of anti-genic material to become ___ ___

A

Activated macro phages

209
Q

When activated their appearance changes, becoming larger and ruffled-they are then important factors in the control of cancer cells and intracellular pathogens

A

Activated macrophages

210
Q

Certain granular leukocytes called ___ ___ cells can attack relatively large parasites

A

Natural killer

211
Q

___ ___ cells Target cells to determine whether it expresses MHC class one self antigens. If it does not, they kill the target sell by mechanism similar to that of a CTL. Tumor cells are also targets

A

Natural killer

212
Q

True or false. In addition to attacks by NK cells, relatively large parasites can be targeted by anti-body dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

A

True

213
Q

The immune response requires complex interactions between different cells, which are mediated by chemical messengers called

A

Cytokines

214
Q

When cytokines communicate between leukocytes, they are termed

A

Interleukins

215
Q

A family of cytokines that induces migration of leukocytes into areas of infection is called

A

Chemokines

216
Q

The family of cytokines called ___ protect cells from viral infections

A

Interferons

217
Q

A family of cytokines, ___ cytokines , control pathways by which stem cells develop into red or white blood cells

A

Hematopoietic

218
Q

Cytokines me stimulate cells to produce more cytokines. When this feedback loop gets out-of-control a cytokines ___ may damage tissues, an important factor in certain diseases

A

Storm

219
Q

The intensity of the antibody mediated he moral response is reflected by the relative amounts of antibody in the Serum, the ___ __

A

Antibody titer

220
Q

After contact with the antigen there is a slow rise and antibody titer; first IgM class antibodies, then IgG antibodies, which is the ___ response

A

Primary

221
Q

A second exposure to the antigen results in a ___ response. This is more rapid and of greater magnitude in the primary response.

A

Secondary

222
Q

Activated B cells become long-lived ___ cells, which even years later will differentiate into anti-body producing plasma cells when stimulated by the same antigen

A

Memory

223
Q

____ immunity refers to the protection and animal develops again certain specific microbes or foreign substances

A

Adaptive

224
Q

True or false. Naturally acquired active immunity develops when a person is exposed to antigens, becomes ill, and then recovers

A

True

225
Q

Naturally acquired ___ immunity involves the natural transfer of antibodies from my mother to her infant by transplacental transfer to the fetus or by the first secretions of breast milk

A

Passive

226
Q

True or false. Artificially acquired active in unity is a result of vaccination by introduction of vaccines into the body, which are antigens such as killed our living microorganisms or in activated toxins

A

True

227
Q

Artificially acquired passive immunity involves the injection of ____ into the body. These antibodies come from an animal or person already immune to the disease

A

Anti-bodies

228
Q

___ is a generic term for blood derived fluids containing anti-bodies

A

Antiserum

229
Q

____ is the study of reactions between antibodies and antigens

A

Serology

230
Q

Most anti-bodies and blood serum are in the globe you’ll are proteins of the gamma fraction when separated by electrophoresis-therefore the serum containing antibodies for passive immunity is called ___ ___. Half-life of such injected antibodies is typically about three weeks

A

Gamma globulin

231
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease are abrupt onset of massive diarrhea, vomiting, and muscle cramps

A

Cholera

232
Q

The positive agent for this disease is vibrio Cholerae; and alkali and salt tolerant curved gram-negative rod

A

Cholera

233
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease or diarrhea, vomiting, headache, abd pain, and fever

A

Salmonella gastroenteritis

234
Q

The causative agents of this disease are salmonella enterica, motile, gram-negative, members of the enterobacteriaceae

A

Salmonella gastroenteritis

235
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease are fever, dysentery, vomiting, headache, stiff neck, convulsions, and joint pain

A

Shingllosis

236
Q

The causative agent for this disease are for species of Shingella, gram-negative, non-motile members of the enterobacteriaceae

A

Shingellosis

237
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease process of prompting and diarrhea; sometimes dysentery

A

E. coli gastroenteritis

238
Q

The causative agent for this disease is E. coli, certain strains only

A

E. coli gastroenteritis

239
Q

The causative agent for this disease process our non-envelope, single-stranded RNA a picornavirus, H a V

A

Hepatitis A

240
Q

The causative agent for this disease process our envelopes, double-stranded DNA hepadnavirus, HBV

A

Viral hepatitis b

241
Q

Transmission for this disease involves fecal-oral contact

A

Hepatitis A and hepatitis E

242
Q

Transmission for this disease process is through blood, semen

A

Hepatitis B

243
Q

The causative agent for this disease or envelope, single-stranded RNA flavivirus, HCV

A

Hepatitis C

244
Q

Transmission of this disease is generally through blood, and possibly semen

A

Hepatitis C

245
Q

The causative agent for this virus are defective single-stranded RNA a virus, HDV

A

Hepatitis D

246
Q

Transmission of this virus is through blood and semen

A

Hepatitis D

247
Q

The causative agent for this virus are non-envelopes single-stranded are in a Calicivirus, HEV

A

Hepatitis E

248
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease or fever, severe headache, constipation, and abdominal pain; sometimes followed by intestinal rupture, internal bleeding, shock and death

A

Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers

249
Q

The causative agents for this disease are salmonella serotype Thyphi and paratyphi, gram-negative, members of enterobacteria

A

Typhoid and paratyphoid fevers

250
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease are variable mild diarrhea to pseudomembranous colitis, a potentially fatal inflammation of the colon

A

C diff

251
Q

The causative agent for this disease is Clostridium difficile, A gram-positive rod shaped endospore forming anaerobe

A

C diff

252
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease are high fever, large lymph nodes called buboes, skin hemorrhages; sometimes bloody sputum

A

The black or black plague

253
Q

The causative agent for this disease is yersinia pestis, gram-negative rod with multiple chromosome-and plasmid coated virulence factors

A

Black death or black plague

254
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease or fatigue, fever, sore throat, and enlargement of lymph nodes

A

Mono or kissing disease

255
Q

Because it is agent of this disease is Epstein-Barr virus, a DNA virus of the herpes virus family

A

Mono or kissing disease

256
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease are often only headaches and fever, severe case is characterized by high fever, jaundice, black vomit and hemorrhages into the skin

A

Yellow fever

257
Q

Transmission of this disease is brought on by mosquitoes

A

Yellow fever

258
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease are reoccurrence cycles of intense chills and fever alternating with feeling healthy

A

Malaria

259
Q

The causative agent for this disease are five species of protozoa of the genus Plasmodium

A

Malaria

260
Q

The source of transmission for malaria are

A

Mosquitoes

261
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease involve skin lesions that lack sensation, deformed face and loss of fingers or toes

A

Hansons disease or leprosy

262
Q

The causative agent for leprosy is

A

Mycobacterium Leprae

263
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease include headache, fever, stiff neck, nausea, pain, muscle spasms, followed by paralysis

A

Poliomyelitis

264
Q

The causative agent for poliovirus are

A

Polioviruses one, two, and three

265
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease are mild cold followed by headache, fever, pain, stiffnecked and back, vomiting and petechiae

A

Meningococcal meningitis

266
Q

The causative agent for meningococcal meningitis is

A

Neisseria meningitidis

267
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease or fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, sore throat, cough at on sent; later, spasms of the muscles of throat and mouth, coma, and death

A

Rabies

268
Q

The causative agent for the rabies virus is a single-stranded are in a, rhabdovirus family; this virus has an unusual ____ shape

A

Bullet

269
Q

The signs and symptoms of this infection are grey to white vaginal discharge with an unpleasant fishy odor

A

Bacterial vaginosis

270
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease are blurred or double vision, weakness, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea or constipation; generalize paralysis and respiratory insufficiency

A

Botulism

271
Q

Causative agent for this disease is clostridium botulinum

A

Botulism

272
Q

The transmission of this disease is spread by endospores in soil, aquatic settlements, and dust. This disease can also be foodborne

A

Botulism

273
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease are itching, burning, thick, white vaginal discharge, redness and swelling

A

Vulvovaginal candidasis

274
Q

The causative agent for this disease is Candida albicans

A

Volvo vaginal candidiasis

275
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease or sudden onset burning on urination, frequent need to urinate; cloudy red colored urine that smells bad, fever, chills, back pain and vomiting with Pyelonephritis

A

Bacterial cystitis

276
Q

The causative agents for this disease are E. coli and occasionally Staphylococcus

A

Bacterial cystitis

277
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease include Chancre, fever, rash, stroke, nervous system deterioration; can imitate many other diseases

A

Syphilis

278
Q

The causative agent for this disease is Treponema palladium; a multi stage disease

A

Syphilis

279
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease include blisters that great, releasing plasma and pus; formation of yellowish crust; lymph node enlargement

A

Impetigo

280
Q

The causative agent’s for impetigo are

A

Streptococcus and Staphylococcus

281
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease include mild fever and cold symptoms, rash beginning on the four head and face, and large lymph nodes behind the ears

A

Rubella or German measles

282
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease begins with the bull’s-eye shaped rash. multisystem disease with enlarged lymph nodes near the bites, flulike symptoms. Early disseminated infection: heart and nervous system involvement. Late persistent infection: chronic arthritis and nervous system impairment

A

Lyme disease

283
Q

The causative agent for ___ disease is borrelia burgdorferi

A

Lyme disease

284
Q

The signs and symptoms of the syndrome include malaise, irritability, fever, sensitive that rash sandpaper texture, large blisters, peeling of skin

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

285
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease are couplet spots, rash, fever, weeping eyes, cough, nasal discharge, and sometimes diarrhea

A

Measles or rubeola

286
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease or sore throat, fever, fatigue and malaise

A

Diphtheria

287
Q

The causative agent of this disease is Corynebacterium diphtheriae, an a-b Toxin producing nonspore forming gram-positive rod

A

Diphtheria

288
Q

The common flu is an ___ virus

A

RNA

289
Q

This disease is characterized by muscle aches, headache, fever, cough, shortness of breath, chest and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and vomiting

A

Legionnaires disease

290
Q

The causative agent for this disease is Legionella pnemophilia, A gram-negative bacteria that stands poorly in clinical specimens

A

Legionnaires disease

291
Q

Legionnaires disease affects what organ system of the body

A

Pulmonary

292
Q

This type of pneumonia is cleared to rise with rust colored sputum from the greater blood

A

Pneumococcal pneumonia

293
Q

This type of pneumonia is characterized by bloody mucoid sputum

A

Klebsiella

294
Q

This form of the ammonia is caused by mycoplasma pneumonia which lacks a cell wall

A

Mycoplasmal pneumonia

295
Q

This is a multi system disease which is characterized by chronic fever, weight loss, cough, and sputum production

A

Tuberculosis

296
Q

This disease has causative agents of Mycobacterium tuberculosis; unusual cell wall with high lipid constant

A

Tuberculous

297
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease characterized by restlessness, irritability, difficulty swallowing, muscle pain and spasms in the jaw also known as lockjaw, and rigid paralysis

A

Tetanus

298
Q

The causative agent of this disease is Clostridium tetani, and anaerobic spore forming gram-positive rod

A

Tetanus

299
Q

The signs and symptoms of this disease are characterized by fever, headache, loss of appetite, followed by painful swelling of one or both parotid gland. Meningitis can occur. Painful enlargement of the testicles and men, pelvic pain in women

A

Mumps

300
Q

The causative agent of this disease is the mom’s virus, a single-stranded RNA virus

A

Mumps

301
Q

Signs and symptoms of this disease is characterized by headache, pains and muscles and joints, and fever, followed by a hemorrhagic rash that begins on the extremities

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

302
Q

This disease process is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii and is transmitted by an infected tick

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

303
Q

This is the most prevalent disease worldwide. No signs and symptoms are present until the advanced stage. A late stage: discoloration, roughness, broken tooth, throbbing pain

A

Dental caries

304
Q

The causative agent for dental caries is

A

Streptococcus mutans