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Micro > Chap 4-6 > Flashcards

Chap 4-6 Flashcards

0
Q

Prokaryotes or eukaryotes.

Paired chromosomes, and nuclear membrane. Histones. Organelles. Polysaccharide cell walls. Miotic spindle.

A

Eukaryote

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1
Q

Prokaryote or eukaryote:

One circular chromosome, not in a membrane. No histones. No organelles. Bacteria-peptidoglycan cell walls. Archaea- pseudomurein cell walls. Binary fission.

A

Prokaryote

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2
Q

These cells come from the Greek words for pre-nucleus.

A

Prokaryote

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3
Q

These cells comes from the Greek words for true nucleus.

A

Eukaryotes

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4
Q

True or false. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes cells are similar in their chemical composition and chemical reactions.

A

True

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5
Q

True or false. Bacteria are Uni cellular, and most of them multiply by binary fission

A

True

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6
Q

True or false. Bacterial species are differentiated by morphology, chemical composition, nutritional requirements, bio chemical activities, and source of energy.

A

True

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7
Q

Most bacteria are ____ to ___ micrometers In diameter and ___ to ___ micrometers in length

A

0.2- 2.0 and 2-8

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8
Q

The three basic bacterial shapes are ______, _____, and ______

A

Coccus (spherical)
Bacillus (rods)
Spiral (twisted)

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9
Q

True or false. Pleomorphic bacteria can assume several shapes.

A

True

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10
Q

The structure is a Gelatinous polysaccharide and/or polypeptide covering.

A

Glycocalyx

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11
Q

True or false. Most bacteria or monomorphic

A

True

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12
Q

Diplococci and diplobacilli when speaking of cellular arraignment, refers to….

A

Pairs

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13
Q

Staphylococci when referring to cellular arrangement refers to…

A

Clusters

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14
Q

Streptococci and streptobaclli when speaking of cellular arrangements, Refers to…

A

Chains

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15
Q

This structure is located outside of the cell wall, and is usually sticky.

A

Glycocalyx

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16
Q

This layer with in the glycocalyx is unorganized and loose.

A

Slime layer

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17
Q

True or false. The extracellular polysaccharide found with in the glycocalyx allows for cells to attach

A

True

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18
Q

True or false. Capsules promote Phagocytosis

A

False. Capsules may protect pathogens from phagocytosis

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19
Q

Capsules _____ adherence to surfaces, Preevent desiccation, and may provide nutrients.

A

Enable

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20
Q

The structures are relatively long filamentous appendages consisting of a filament, hook, and basal body

A

Flagella

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21
Q

_______ flagella rotate to push the cell

A

Prokaryotic

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22
Q

True or false. Motile bacteria exhibit taxis

A

True

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23
Q

Positive taxis is movement toward an ____

A

Attractant

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24
Q

Negative taxis is movement away from a ____

A

Repellent

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25
Q

True or false. Flagellar (Z) protein is an antigen

A

False. H protein

Ex. E. Coli ( 0157:H7)

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26
Q

Axial filaments are also called_____

A

Endoflagella

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27
Q

Spiral cells that moves by means of axial filaments are called

A

Spirochetes

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28
Q

Axial filaments are similar to flagella, except that they….

A

Wrap around the cell

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29
Q

______ help cells adhere to surfaces

A

Fimbriae

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30
Q

_____ are involved in switching motility and DNA transfer

A

Pili

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31
Q

The cell wall surrounds the ____ ____ and protects the cells from changes in water pressure

A

Plasma membrane

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32
Q

The structure prevents osmotic lysis

A

The cell wall

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33
Q

The structure is made of peptidoglycan in bacterial

A

The cell wall

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34
Q

The structure consist of peptidoglycan, a polymer consisting of nag and nam and sure chains of amino acids

A

The bacterial cell wall

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35
Q

_____ interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis

A

Penicillin

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36
Q

____ ___ cell walls consist of many layers of peptidoglycan and also contain teichoic acids

A

Gram positive

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37
Q

____ ____ bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide-lipoprotein-phospholipid outer membrane surrounding a thin peptidoglycan layer

A

Gram-negative

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38
Q

the ___ ____ protects the cell from Phagocytosis, and from penicillin, lysozyme, and other chemicals

A

Outer membrane

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39
Q

_____ are proteins that permits small molecules to pass through channels, specific channel proteins allow other molecules to move through the outer membrane.

A

Porins

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40
Q

O polysaccharides function as

A

Antigens

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41
Q

Lipid A is an ____

A

Endotoxin

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42
Q

Lipoteichoic acid links to

A

Plasma membrane

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43
Q

Gram-positive cell walls may regulate movement of_____

A

Cations

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44
Q

The crystal violet-iodine complex combines with__________

A

Peptidoglycan

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45
Q

In a gram-positive stain, alcohol dehydrates_______ thus causing Crystal violet iodine crystals to not leave the cell

A

Peptidoglycan

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46
Q

In a gram negative stain alcohol dissolves the outer membrane and leaves holes in the _____ causing the crystal violet iodine crystals to wash out

A

Peptidoglycan

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47
Q

This bacterial genus naturally lacks a cell wall

A

Mycoplasma

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48
Q

______ have pseudomurein; they lack peptidoglycan

A

Archaea

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49
Q

_____ ____ cell walls have a layer of mycolic acid outside a thin peptoglycan layer

A

Acid fast

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50
Q

In the presence of lysozyme, ____ ___cell walls are destroyed, and the remaining cellular contents are referred to as protoplast.

A

Gram positive

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51
Q

_____ is a wallless cell

A

Protoplast

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52
Q

In the presence of lysozyme, ____ ___cell walls are not completely destroyed, and the remaining cellular contents are referred to as spheroplast

A

Gram negative

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53
Q

True or false. Protoplasts and Spheroplast are susceptible to osmotic lysis

A

True

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54
Q

___ ___ are gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria that you not make a cell wall

A

L forms

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55
Q

True or false antibiotics such as penicillin interfere with cell wall synthesis, by inhibiting peptide bridges in peptidoglycan

A

True

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56
Q

____ are reserved deposits found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

A

Inclusions

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57
Q

Metachromatic granules or volutin are ____ reserves

A

Phosphate

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58
Q

Polysaccharide granules are ____ reserves

A

Energy

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59
Q

Lipid inclusions are _____ reserves

A

Energy

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60
Q

Sulfur granules are _____ reserves

A

Energy

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61
Q

Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate carboxylase for CO2 fixation referred to this type of inclusion

A

Carboxysomes

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62
Q

These inclusions consist of protein covered cylinders

A

Gas vacuoles

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63
Q

This inclusion includes iron oxide which destroys H2O2

A

Magnetosomes

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64
Q

_____ are resting structures formed by small bacteria; they allow survival during adverse environmental conditions

A

Endospores

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65
Q

The process of endospore formation

A

Sporulation

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66
Q

The return of an endospore to its vegetative state is called

A

Germination

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67
Q

Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells

A

They lack a plasma membrane

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68
Q

Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-positive bacteria in his place in distilled water and penicillin

A

The cell will undergo osmotic lysis

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69
Q

Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-negative bacteria is placed in distilled water and penicillin

A

Water will move into the cell

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70
Q

Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-positive bacteria is placed in an aqueous solution of lysozyme and 10% sucrose

A

No change real results; the solution is iso tonic

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71
Q

Which of the following statements best describes what happens to a cell exposed to Polymyxins that destroyed phospholipids

A

The cell will undergo osmotic lysis

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72
Q

Which of the following is false about Fimbriae

A

They may be used for motility

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73
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched

A

Pili- reproduction

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74
Q

You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can assume the cell has

A

Ribosomes

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75
Q

The antibiotic Amphothericin B disrupts plasma membrane’s by combining with sterols; it will affect all of the following cells except

A

Gram negative bacteria cells

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76
Q

The sum of the chemical reactions in an organism is____

A

Metabolism

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77
Q

_____ provides energy and building blocks for anabolism

A

Catabolism

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78
Q

Uses energy and building blocks to build large molecules

A

Anabolism

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79
Q

A ____ ____ is a sequence of enzymatically catalyzed chemical reactions in a cell

A

Metabolic pathway

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80
Q

True or false. Metabolic pathways are determined by enzymes

A

True

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81
Q

True or false. Enzymes are encoded by Genes

A

True

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82
Q

Enzyme components-

_____ _____ specific for a chemical reaction; not used up in that reaction

A

Biological catalysts

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83
Q

The protein component of an enzyme

A

Apoenzyme

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84
Q

The nonprotein portion of an enzyme

A

Cofactor

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85
Q

True or false. a cofactor can be a metal ion such as iron, copper, magnesium, zinc, calcium, or cobalts

A

True

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86
Q

An enzymes organic cofactor is also known as

A

Coenzyme

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87
Q

What is a holoenzyme

A

Apoenzyme plus cofactor

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88
Q

NAD+, NADP+, FAD, and Coenzyme A are

A

Coenzymes

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89
Q

Refers to the chemical reactions that results in the breakdown of more complex organic molecules into simpler substances

A

Catabolism

90
Q

This reaction usually releases energy

A

Catabolism

91
Q

This is a chemical reaction in which simpler substances are combined to form more complex molecules. This reaction usually requires energy

A

Anabolism

92
Q

______ are generally globular proteins with characteristic three-dimensional shapes

A

Enzymes

93
Q

At high temperatures, enzymes undergo _____ and lose their catalytic properties; and low temperatures, the reaction rate decreases

A

Denaturation

94
Q

The pH at which enzymatic activity is maximal is known as the ____ ___

A

Optimum pH

95
Q

True or false. Enzymatic activity increases as substrate concentration increases until the enzymes are saturated

A

True

96
Q

Competitive inhibitors compete with the normal _____for the active site of the enzyme

A

Substrate

97
Q

True or false. Noncompetitive inhibitors act on other parts of the Apoenzyme or on the cofactor and decrease the enzymes ability to combine with the normal substrate

A

True

98
Q

This occurs when the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzymes activity near the start of the pathway

A

Feedback inhibition

99
Q

Reaction in which electrons are removed

A

Oxidation

100
Q

Reaction in which electrons are gained

A

Reduction

101
Q

This reaction is an oxidation reaction paired With a reduction reaction

A

Redox reaction

102
Q

True or false. In biological systems, the electrons are often associated with hydrogen Atoms

A

True

103
Q

Biological oxidations are often______

A

Dehydrogenations

104
Q

Energy released during certain metabolic reactions can be tracked it to form ____from ____and phosphate

A

ATP from ADP

105
Q

Addition of a phosphate to a molecule is called_____

A

Phosphorylation

106
Q

During ____ level phosphorylation, A high-energy phosphate from an intermediate and catabolism is added to ADP

A

Substrate

107
Q

During ____ phosphorylation, energy is released as electrons are passed to a series of electron acceptor’s and finally to O2 or other inorganic compounds

A

Oxidative

108
Q

During _____, energy from light is trapped by chlorophyll, and electrons are passed through a series of electron acceptor’s. The electron transfer releases energy used for the synthesis of ATP

A

Photophosphorylation

109
Q

The most common pathway for the oxidation of glucose is

A

Glycolysis

110
Q

Pyruvic acid is the end product of

A

Glycolysis

111
Q

True or false. To ATP and two NADH molecules are produced from one glucose molecule

A

True

112
Q

With use of glycolysis, the ___ _____ pathway is used to metabolize five carbon sugar’s; one ATP and 12 NADPH molecules are produced from one glucose molecule

A

Pentose phosphate

113
Q

During____, organic molecules are oxidized. Energy is generated from the electron transport chain

A

Respiration

114
Q

In aerobic respiration, 02 functions as the final electron ____

A

Acceptor

115
Q

In anaerobic respiration, the final electronic acceptor is usually an inorganic molecule other than ____

A

O2

116
Q

Without the use of glycolysis, the ___ ___ pathway produces NADP H and ATP from one glucose molecule

A

Entner Doudoroff

117
Q

Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid produces ___ CO2 molecule and __ acetyl group

A

1/1

118
Q

____ carbon acetyl groups are oxidized in the Krebs cycle. Electrons are picked up by NAD+ and FAD for the electron transport chain

A

2

119
Q

True or false. The electron transport chain consist of carriers including favaproteins, cytochromes, and ubquinones

A

True

120
Q

Electrons are brought to the electron transport chain by

A

NADH

121
Q

In ____ prokaryotes, 38 ATP molecules can be produced from complete oxidation of a glucose molecule in glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

A

Aerobic

122
Q

True or false. The total ATP yield is less than in aerobic respiration because only part of the Krebs cycle operates under anaerobic conditions

A

True

123
Q

_____ releases energy from sugars or other organic molecules by oxidation

A

Fermentation

124
Q

True or false O2 is a requirement for fermentation

A

False

125
Q

Any spoilage of food by micro organisms is known as

A

Fermentation

126
Q

Any process that produces alcoholic beverages or acidic dairy products

A

Fermentation

127
Q

Any large-scale microbial process occurring with or without air

A

Fermentation

128
Q

True or false fermentation uses the Krebs cycle or ETC

A

False

129
Q

True or false fermentation uses an organic molecule as the final electronic acceptor

A

True

130
Q

____ fermentation produces ethanol plus CO2

A

Alcohol

131
Q

Sunlight is converted to chemical energy and oxidation reduction reactions carried on by

A

Phototrophs

132
Q

_____ can use energy from chemicals

A

Chemotrophs

133
Q

_____ obtain energy by photophosphorylation and fix carbon from CO2 via the Calvin Benson cycle to synthesize organic compounds

A

Photoautotrophs

134
Q

______ are oxygenic phototrophs. Green bacteria and purple bacteria are anoxygenic phototrophs

A

Cyanobacteria

135
Q

_______ use lights as an energy source and an organic compound for their carbon source and electron donor

A

Photoheterotrophs

136
Q

______ use inorganic compounds as their energy source and carbon dioxide as the carbon source

A

Chemo autotrophs

137
Q

______ use complex organic molecules as a carbon and energy sources

A

Chemo heterotrophs

138
Q

Metabolic pathways that had both catabolic and anabolic functions

A

Amphibolic pathways

139
Q

All amino acids can be synthesized either directly or indirectly from intermediates of carbohydrate metabolism, particularly from the _____ cycle

A

Krebs

140
Q

Which of the following reactions produce is the most molecules of ATP during aerobic metabolism

A

Acetyl CoA –> CO2 + H2O

141
Q

Which of the following processes does not generate ATP

A

The Calvin Benson cycle

142
Q

Which of the following compounds has the greatest amount of energy for cell

A

Glucose

143
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of the Krebs cycle

A

A series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced from the oxidation of pyruvate acid

144
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of respiration

A

A sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as a final electron acceptor

145
Q

What are psychrophils

A

Cold loving microbes

146
Q

What are Mesophiles

A

Moderate temperature loving microbes

147
Q

What are thermophiles

A

Heat loving microbes

148
Q

Define minimum growth temperature

A

Minimum growth temperature is the lowest temperature at which a species will grow

149
Q

Define optimum growth temperature

A

Optimum growth temperature is the temperature at which it grows best

150
Q

Define the maximum growth temperature

A

Maximum growth temperature is the highest temperature at which growth is possible

151
Q

Most bacteria grow best at a pH value between

A

6.5 and 7.5

152
Q

In a hypertonic solution, microbes undergo

A

Plasmolysis

153
Q

______ can tolerate high salt concentrations

A

Halophiles

154
Q

The ____ requirements for microbial growth our carbon, nitrogen, sulfur, phosphorus, trace elements, oxygen, and organic growth factor

A

Chemical

155
Q

The ____ requirements for microbial growth our temperature, pH, and osmotic pressure

A

Physical

156
Q

True or false. All organisms require a carbon source

A

True

157
Q

True or false chemoheterotroph’s use an organic molecule, and autotroph’s typically use carbon dioxide

A

True

158
Q

____ is needed for protein and nucleic acid synthesis.

A

Nitrogen

159
Q

Nitrogen can be obtained from the ______ of proteins or from NH4 or NO3; a few bacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation

A

Decomposition

160
Q

_____ is the structural backbone of living matter

A

Carbon

161
Q

Microbes adhere to surfaces and accumulate as _____on solid surfaces in contact with water

A

Biofilms

162
Q

____ form on teeth, contact lenses, and catheters

A

Biofilms

163
Q

True or false microbes in biofilms or less resistant to antibiotics then our free swimming microbes

A

False. They are more resistant

164
Q

What is a culture medium

A

A culture medium is any material prepared for the growth of bacteria in a laboratory

165
Q

Microbes I grow and multiply in or on a culture medium are known as a _____

A

Culture

166
Q

_____ is a common solidifying agent for a culture medium

A

Agar

167
Q

True or false. The chemically defined medium is one in which the exact chemical composition is known

A

True

168
Q

A _______ medium is one in which the exact chemical composition very slightly from batch to batch

A

Complex

169
Q

True or false. Reducing media chemically removes molecular oxygen that might interfere with the growth of anaerobes

A

True

170
Q

True or false. Some parasitic and fastidious bacteria must be cultured and living animals or in cell cultures

A

True

171
Q

Procedures and equipment to minimize exposure to pathogenic microorganisms are designated as biosafety levels ___ thru ____

A

1 thru 4

172
Q

By ____unwanted organisms with salts, dies, or other chemicals, selective media allow growth of only the desired microbes

A

Inhibiting

173
Q

____ media are used to distinguish different organisms

A

Differential

174
Q

This culture is used to encourage the growth of a particular micro organism in a mixed culture

A

Enrichment culture

175
Q

A ____ is a visible mass of microbial cells that theoretically arose from one cell

A

Colony

176
Q

Pure cultures are usually obtained by the ____ plate method

A

Streak

177
Q

The normal reproductive method of bacteria is ___ ___, in which a single cell divides into two identical cells

A

Binary fission

178
Q

True or false. Some bacteria reproduce by budding, aerial spore formation, or fragmentation

A

True

179
Q

The time required for his cell to divide or a population to double is known as

A

Generation time

180
Q

Microbes could be preserved for long periods of time by deep freezing or

A

Lyophilization

181
Q

A ____ plate count reflects the number of viable microbes and assumes that each bacteria grows into a single colony; plate counts are reported as number of colony forming units (CFU)

A

Heterotrophic

182
Q

True or false. A plate count may be done by either the pour plate method or the spread plate method

A

True

183
Q

In ____, bacteria are retained on the surface of the membrane filter and then transferred to a culture medium to grow and subsequently be counted

A

Filtration

184
Q

In this type of direct measurement, the microbes in a measure volume of a bacterial suspension or counted with the use of a specially designed slide

A

Direct microscopic count

185
Q

An organism that grows best at about 15°C and does not grow above 20°C; a cold loving microbe

A

Psychrophils

186
Q

An organism that grows between 10°C and 50°C; a moderate temperature loving microbe

A

Mesophiles

187
Q

An organism whose optimum growth temperature is between 50°C and 60°C; a heat loving microbe

A

Thermophiles

188
Q

An organism that is capable of growth between about 0°C and 30°C; causes food spoilage

A

Psychrotroph

189
Q

An organism whose optimum growth temperature is at least 80°C; also called extreme thermophile

A

Hyper thermophile

190
Q

A Bactrim that goes below a pH of 4

A

Acidophiles

191
Q

Loss of water from a cell in a hypertonic environment

A

Plasmolysis

192
Q

An organism that requires high osmotic pressure such as high concentration of NaCl

A

Obligate halophile

193
Q

Organisms that have adapted so well to high salt concentrations that they actually require them for growth

A

Extreme halophiles

194
Q

An organism capable of growth in, but not requiring, 1 to 2% salt

A

Facultative halophile

195
Q

The conversion of nitrogen into ammonia

A

Nitrogen fixation

196
Q

Microbes require very small amounts of other mental elements, such as iron, copper, zinc, and Molybdenum; these are called

A

Trace elements

197
Q

An organism that requires molecular oxygen to live

A

Obligate aerobe

198
Q

An organism that can grow with or without molecular oxygen

A

Facultative anaerobes

199
Q

What is an example of a familiar facultative anaerobes that is found in the human intestinal track?

A

E. coli

200
Q

An organism that does not use molecular oxygen and his killed in the presence of oxygen

A

Obligate anaerobes

201
Q

What is the most familiar example of an obligate anaerobes, which is the common cause of tetanus and botulism

A

Clostridium

202
Q

An organism that does not use molecular oxygen but is not affected by its presence

A

Aero tolerant anaerobes

203
Q

This lactic acid producing aerotolerant anaerobe is used in the production of many acidic fermented foods, such as pickles and cheese

A

Lactobacilli

204
Q

A microbial community that usually forms of a slime layer on the surface

A

Biofilm

205
Q

Microbes introduced into a culture medium to initiate growth

A

Inoculum

206
Q

This type of media is made up of nutrients including extracts from yeast, meat, or plants, or digest of proteins from these and other sources

A

Complex media

207
Q

Protein is a large, relatively in soluble molecules that a minority of micro organisms can utilize directly, but a partial digestion by acids are enzymes reduce protein to shorter chains of amino acids called

A

Peptones

208
Q

Nutrient broth containing agar

A

Nutrient agar

209
Q

A complex media made of beef extract and peptone

A

Nutrient broth

210
Q

A culture medium design to suppress the growth of unwanted micro organisms and encourage the growth of desired ones

A

Selective medium

211
Q

This type of selective media is used to isolate the typhoid bacterium, gram-negative salmonella typhi, from feces

A

Bismuth sulfite

212
Q

Solid culture medium that makes it easier to distinguish colonies of the desired organism

A

Differential medium

213
Q

Preservation of bacterial cultures at -50°C two -95°C

A

Deep freezing

214
Q

During _____ A suspension of microbes is quickly frozen at temperatures ranging from -54°C to -72°C, and the water is removed by high vacuum or sublimation

A

Lyophilization

215
Q

Molds and yeast grow between a pH of

A

5-6

216
Q

What are the two most common forms of biofilms

A

Candida and Plankton

217
Q

These microbes require high CO2 conditions

A

Capnophiles

218
Q

What bacterium is growing on armadillos due to their decreased body temperature that matches the micro requirement

A

Mycobacterium Leprae

219
Q

This biosafety level requires no special precautions

A

BSL1

220
Q

This biosafety level requires a lab coat, gloves, eye protection

A

BSL 2

221
Q

This biosafety level requires biosafety cabinets to Preevent airborne transmission

A

BSL 3

222
Q

This biosafety level requires sealed, negative pressure space; exhaust air is filtered twice

A

BSL4

223
Q

This medium is used to identify bacterial species that destroy red blood cells

Ex: strep

A

Blood agar

Micro (4 decks)

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