Chap 4-6 Flashcards
0
Q
Prokaryotes or eukaryotes.
Paired chromosomes, and nuclear membrane. Histones. Organelles. Polysaccharide cell walls. Miotic spindle.
A
Eukaryote
1
Q
Prokaryote or eukaryote:
One circular chromosome, not in a membrane. No histones. No organelles. Bacteria-peptidoglycan cell walls. Archaea- pseudomurein cell walls. Binary fission.
A
Prokaryote
2
Q
These cells come from the Greek words for pre-nucleus.
A
Prokaryote
3
Q
These cells comes from the Greek words for true nucleus.
A
Eukaryotes
4
Q
True or false. Prokaryotes and eukaryotes cells are similar in their chemical composition and chemical reactions.
A
True
5
Q
True or false. Bacteria are Uni cellular, and most of them multiply by binary fission
A
True
6
Q
True or false. Bacterial species are differentiated by morphology, chemical composition, nutritional requirements, bio chemical activities, and source of energy.
A
True
7
Q
Most bacteria are ____ to ___ micrometers In diameter and ___ to ___ micrometers in length
A
0.2- 2.0 and 2-8
8
Q
The three basic bacterial shapes are ______, _____, and ______
A
Coccus (spherical)
Bacillus (rods)
Spiral (twisted)
9
Q
True or false. Pleomorphic bacteria can assume several shapes.
A
True
10
Q
The structure is a Gelatinous polysaccharide and/or polypeptide covering.
A
Glycocalyx
11
Q
True or false. Most bacteria or monomorphic
A
True
12
Q
Diplococci and diplobacilli when speaking of cellular arraignment, refers to….
A
Pairs
13
Q
Staphylococci when referring to cellular arrangement refers to…
A
Clusters
14
Q
Streptococci and streptobaclli when speaking of cellular arrangements, Refers to…
A
Chains
15
Q
This structure is located outside of the cell wall, and is usually sticky.
A
Glycocalyx
16
Q
This layer with in the glycocalyx is unorganized and loose.
A
Slime layer
17
Q
True or false. The extracellular polysaccharide found with in the glycocalyx allows for cells to attach
A
True
18
Q
True or false. Capsules promote Phagocytosis
A
False. Capsules may protect pathogens from phagocytosis
19
Q
Capsules _____ adherence to surfaces, Preevent desiccation, and may provide nutrients.
A
Enable
20
Q
The structures are relatively long filamentous appendages consisting of a filament, hook, and basal body
A
Flagella
21
Q
_______ flagella rotate to push the cell
A
Prokaryotic
22
Q
True or false. Motile bacteria exhibit taxis
A
True
23
Q
Positive taxis is movement toward an ____
A
Attractant
24
Negative taxis is movement away from a ____
Repellent
25
True or false. Flagellar (Z) protein is an antigen
False. H protein
Ex. E. Coli ( 0157:H7)
26
Axial filaments are also called_____
Endoflagella
27
Spiral cells that moves by means of axial filaments are called
Spirochetes
28
Axial filaments are similar to flagella, except that they....
Wrap around the cell
29
______ help cells adhere to surfaces
Fimbriae
30
_____ are involved in switching motility and DNA transfer
Pili
31
The cell wall surrounds the ____ ____ and protects the cells from changes in water pressure
Plasma membrane
32
The structure prevents osmotic lysis
The cell wall
33
The structure is made of peptidoglycan in bacterial
The cell wall
34
The structure consist of peptidoglycan, a polymer consisting of nag and nam and sure chains of amino acids
The bacterial cell wall
35
_____ interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis
Penicillin
36
____ ___ cell walls consist of many layers of peptidoglycan and also contain teichoic acids
Gram positive
37
____ ____ bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide-lipoprotein-phospholipid outer membrane surrounding a thin peptidoglycan layer
Gram-negative
38
the ___ ____ protects the cell from Phagocytosis, and from penicillin, lysozyme, and other chemicals
Outer membrane
39
_____ are proteins that permits small molecules to pass through channels, specific channel proteins allow other molecules to move through the outer membrane.
Porins
40
O polysaccharides function as
Antigens
41
Lipid A is an ____
Endotoxin
42
Lipoteichoic acid links to
Plasma membrane
43
Gram-positive cell walls may regulate movement of_____
Cations
44
The crystal violet-iodine complex combines with__________
Peptidoglycan
45
In a gram-positive stain, alcohol dehydrates_______ thus causing Crystal violet iodine crystals to not leave the cell
Peptidoglycan
46
In a gram negative stain alcohol dissolves the outer membrane and leaves holes in the _____ causing the crystal violet iodine crystals to wash out
Peptidoglycan
47
This bacterial genus naturally lacks a cell wall
Mycoplasma
48
______ have pseudomurein; they lack peptidoglycan
Archaea
49
_____ ____ cell walls have a layer of mycolic acid outside a thin peptoglycan layer
Acid fast
50
In the presence of lysozyme, ____ ___cell walls are destroyed, and the remaining cellular contents are referred to as protoplast.
Gram positive
51
_____ is a wallless cell
Protoplast
52
In the presence of lysozyme, ____ ___cell walls are not completely destroyed, and the remaining cellular contents are referred to as spheroplast
Gram negative
53
True or false. Protoplasts and Spheroplast are susceptible to osmotic lysis
True
54
___ ___ are gram-positive or gram-negative bacteria that you not make a cell wall
L forms
55
True or false antibiotics such as penicillin interfere with cell wall synthesis, by inhibiting peptide bridges in peptidoglycan
True
56
____ are reserved deposits found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Inclusions
57
Metachromatic granules or volutin are ____ reserves
Phosphate
58
Polysaccharide granules are ____ reserves
Energy
59
Lipid inclusions are _____ reserves
Energy
60
Sulfur granules are _____ reserves
Energy
61
Ribulose 1, 5-diphosphate carboxylase for CO2 fixation referred to this type of inclusion
Carboxysomes
62
These inclusions consist of protein covered cylinders
Gas vacuoles
63
This inclusion includes iron oxide which destroys H2O2
Magnetosomes
64
_____ are resting structures formed by small bacteria; they allow survival during adverse environmental conditions
Endospores
65
The process of endospore formation
Sporulation
66
The return of an endospore to its vegetative state is called
Germination
67
Which of the following is not a distinguishing characteristic of prokaryotic cells
They lack a plasma membrane
68
Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-positive bacteria in his place in distilled water and penicillin
The cell will undergo osmotic lysis
69
Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-negative bacteria is placed in distilled water and penicillin
Water will move into the cell
70
Which statement best describes what happens when a gram-positive bacteria is placed in an aqueous solution of lysozyme and 10% sucrose
No change real results; the solution is iso tonic
71
Which of the following statements best describes what happens to a cell exposed to Polymyxins that destroyed phospholipids
The cell will undergo osmotic lysis
72
Which of the following is false about Fimbriae
They may be used for motility
73
Which of the following pairs is mismatched
Pili- reproduction
74
You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can assume the cell has
Ribosomes
75
The antibiotic Amphothericin B disrupts plasma membrane's by combining with sterols; it will affect all of the following cells except
Gram negative bacteria cells
76
The sum of the chemical reactions in an organism is____
Metabolism
77
_____ provides energy and building blocks for anabolism
Catabolism
78
Uses energy and building blocks to build large molecules
Anabolism
79
A ____ ____ is a sequence of enzymatically catalyzed chemical reactions in a cell
Metabolic pathway
80
True or false. Metabolic pathways are determined by enzymes
True
81
True or false. Enzymes are encoded by Genes
True
82
Enzyme components-
_____ _____ specific for a chemical reaction; not used up in that reaction
Biological catalysts
83
The protein component of an enzyme
Apoenzyme
84
The nonprotein portion of an enzyme
Cofactor
85
True or false. a cofactor can be a metal ion such as iron, copper, magnesium, zinc, calcium, or cobalts
True
86
An enzymes organic cofactor is also known as
Coenzyme
87
What is a holoenzyme
Apoenzyme plus cofactor
88
NAD+, NADP+, FAD, and Coenzyme A are
Coenzymes
89
Refers to the chemical reactions that results in the breakdown of more complex organic molecules into simpler substances
Catabolism
90
This reaction usually releases energy
Catabolism
91
This is a chemical reaction in which simpler substances are combined to form more complex molecules. This reaction usually requires energy
Anabolism
92
______ are generally globular proteins with characteristic three-dimensional shapes
Enzymes
93
At high temperatures, enzymes undergo _____ and lose their catalytic properties; and low temperatures, the reaction rate decreases
Denaturation
94
The pH at which enzymatic activity is maximal is known as the ____ ___
Optimum pH
95
True or false. Enzymatic activity increases as substrate concentration increases until the enzymes are saturated
True
96
Competitive inhibitors compete with the normal _____for the active site of the enzyme
Substrate
97
True or false. Noncompetitive inhibitors act on other parts of the Apoenzyme or on the cofactor and decrease the enzymes ability to combine with the normal substrate
True
98
This occurs when the end product of a metabolic pathway inhibits an enzymes activity near the start of the pathway
Feedback inhibition
99
Reaction in which electrons are removed
Oxidation
100
Reaction in which electrons are gained
Reduction
101
This reaction is an oxidation reaction paired With a reduction reaction
Redox reaction
102
True or false. In biological systems, the electrons are often associated with hydrogen Atoms
True
103
Biological oxidations are often______
Dehydrogenations
104
Energy released during certain metabolic reactions can be tracked it to form ____from ____and phosphate
ATP from ADP
105
Addition of a phosphate to a molecule is called_____
Phosphorylation
106
During ____ level phosphorylation, A high-energy phosphate from an intermediate and catabolism is added to ADP
Substrate
107
During ____ phosphorylation, energy is released as electrons are passed to a series of electron acceptor's and finally to O2 or other inorganic compounds
Oxidative
108
During _____, energy from light is trapped by chlorophyll, and electrons are passed through a series of electron acceptor's. The electron transfer releases energy used for the synthesis of ATP
Photophosphorylation
109
The most common pathway for the oxidation of glucose is
Glycolysis
110
Pyruvic acid is the end product of
Glycolysis
111
True or false. To ATP and two NADH molecules are produced from one glucose molecule
True
112
With use of glycolysis, the ___ _____ pathway is used to metabolize five carbon sugar's; one ATP and 12 NADPH molecules are produced from one glucose molecule
Pentose phosphate
113
During____, organic molecules are oxidized. Energy is generated from the electron transport chain
Respiration
114
In aerobic respiration, 02 functions as the final electron ____
Acceptor
115
In anaerobic respiration, the final electronic acceptor is usually an inorganic molecule other than ____
O2
116
Without the use of glycolysis, the ___ ___ pathway produces NADP H and ATP from one glucose molecule
Entner Doudoroff
117
Decarboxylation of pyruvic acid produces ___ CO2 molecule and __ acetyl group
1/1
118
____ carbon acetyl groups are oxidized in the Krebs cycle. Electrons are picked up by NAD+ and FAD for the electron transport chain
2
119
True or false. The electron transport chain consist of carriers including favaproteins, cytochromes, and ubquinones
True
120
Electrons are brought to the electron transport chain by
NADH
121
In ____ prokaryotes, 38 ATP molecules can be produced from complete oxidation of a glucose molecule in glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain
Aerobic
122
True or false. The total ATP yield is less than in aerobic respiration because only part of the Krebs cycle operates under anaerobic conditions
True
123
_____ releases energy from sugars or other organic molecules by oxidation
Fermentation
124
True or false O2 is a requirement for fermentation
False
125
Any spoilage of food by micro organisms is known as
Fermentation
126
Any process that produces alcoholic beverages or acidic dairy products
Fermentation
127
Any large-scale microbial process occurring with or without air
Fermentation
128
True or false fermentation uses the Krebs cycle or ETC
False
129
True or false fermentation uses an organic molecule as the final electronic acceptor
True
130
____ fermentation produces ethanol plus CO2
Alcohol
131
Sunlight is converted to chemical energy and oxidation reduction reactions carried on by
Phototrophs
132
_____ can use energy from chemicals
Chemotrophs
133
_____ obtain energy by photophosphorylation and fix carbon from CO2 via the Calvin Benson cycle to synthesize organic compounds
Photoautotrophs
134
______ are oxygenic phototrophs. Green bacteria and purple bacteria are anoxygenic phototrophs
Cyanobacteria
135
_______ use lights as an energy source and an organic compound for their carbon source and electron donor
Photoheterotrophs
136
______ use inorganic compounds as their energy source and carbon dioxide as the carbon source
Chemo autotrophs
137
______ use complex organic molecules as a carbon and energy sources
Chemo heterotrophs
138
Metabolic pathways that had both catabolic and anabolic functions
Amphibolic pathways
139
All amino acids can be synthesized either directly or indirectly from intermediates of carbohydrate metabolism, particularly from the _____ cycle
Krebs
140
Which of the following reactions produce is the most molecules of ATP during aerobic metabolism
Acetyl CoA --> CO2 + H2O
141
Which of the following processes does not generate ATP
The Calvin Benson cycle
142
Which of the following compounds has the greatest amount of energy for cell
Glucose
143
Which of the following is the best definition of the Krebs cycle
A series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced from the oxidation of pyruvate acid
144
Which of the following is the best definition of respiration
A sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as a final electron acceptor
145
What are psychrophils
Cold loving microbes
146
What are Mesophiles
Moderate temperature loving microbes
147
What are thermophiles
Heat loving microbes
148
Define minimum growth temperature
Minimum growth temperature is the lowest temperature at which a species will grow
149
Define optimum growth temperature
Optimum growth temperature is the temperature at which it grows best
150
Define the maximum growth temperature
Maximum growth temperature is the highest temperature at which growth is possible
151
Most bacteria grow best at a pH value between
6.5 and 7.5
152
In a hypertonic solution, microbes undergo
Plasmolysis
153
______ can tolerate high salt concentrations
Halophiles
154
The ____ requirements for microbial growth our carbon, nitrogen, sulfur, phosphorus, trace elements, oxygen, and organic growth factor
Chemical
155
The ____ requirements for microbial growth our temperature, pH, and osmotic pressure
Physical
156
True or false. All organisms require a carbon source
True
157
True or false chemoheterotroph's use an organic molecule, and autotroph's typically use carbon dioxide
True
158
____ is needed for protein and nucleic acid synthesis.
Nitrogen
159
Nitrogen can be obtained from the ______ of proteins or from NH4 or NO3; a few bacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation
Decomposition
160
_____ is the structural backbone of living matter
Carbon
161
Microbes adhere to surfaces and accumulate as _____on solid surfaces in contact with water
Biofilms
162
____ form on teeth, contact lenses, and catheters
Biofilms
163
True or false microbes in biofilms or less resistant to antibiotics then our free swimming microbes
False. They are more resistant
164
What is a culture medium
A culture medium is any material prepared for the growth of bacteria in a laboratory
165
Microbes I grow and multiply in or on a culture medium are known as a _____
Culture
166
_____ is a common solidifying agent for a culture medium
Agar
167
True or false. The chemically defined medium is one in which the exact chemical composition is known
True
168
A _______ medium is one in which the exact chemical composition very slightly from batch to batch
Complex
169
True or false. Reducing media chemically removes molecular oxygen that might interfere with the growth of anaerobes
True
170
True or false. Some parasitic and fastidious bacteria must be cultured and living animals or in cell cultures
True
171
Procedures and equipment to minimize exposure to pathogenic microorganisms are designated as biosafety levels ___ thru ____
1 thru 4
172
By ____unwanted organisms with salts, dies, or other chemicals, selective media allow growth of only the desired microbes
Inhibiting
173
____ media are used to distinguish different organisms
Differential
174
This culture is used to encourage the growth of a particular micro organism in a mixed culture
Enrichment culture
175
A ____ is a visible mass of microbial cells that theoretically arose from one cell
Colony
176
Pure cultures are usually obtained by the ____ plate method
Streak
177
The normal reproductive method of bacteria is ___ ___, in which a single cell divides into two identical cells
Binary fission
178
True or false. Some bacteria reproduce by budding, aerial spore formation, or fragmentation
True
179
The time required for his cell to divide or a population to double is known as
Generation time
180
Microbes could be preserved for long periods of time by deep freezing or
Lyophilization
181
A ____ plate count reflects the number of viable microbes and assumes that each bacteria grows into a single colony; plate counts are reported as number of colony forming units (CFU)
Heterotrophic
182
True or false. A plate count may be done by either the pour plate method or the spread plate method
True
183
In ____, bacteria are retained on the surface of the membrane filter and then transferred to a culture medium to grow and subsequently be counted
Filtration
184
In this type of direct measurement, the microbes in a measure volume of a bacterial suspension or counted with the use of a specially designed slide
Direct microscopic count
185
An organism that grows best at about 15°C and does not grow above 20°C; a cold loving microbe
Psychrophils
186
An organism that grows between 10°C and 50°C; a moderate temperature loving microbe
Mesophiles
187
An organism whose optimum growth temperature is between 50°C and 60°C; a heat loving microbe
Thermophiles
188
An organism that is capable of growth between about 0°C and 30°C; causes food spoilage
Psychrotroph
189
An organism whose optimum growth temperature is at least 80°C; also called extreme thermophile
Hyper thermophile
190
A Bactrim that goes below a pH of 4
Acidophiles
191
Loss of water from a cell in a hypertonic environment
Plasmolysis
192
An organism that requires high osmotic pressure such as high concentration of NaCl
Obligate halophile
193
Organisms that have adapted so well to high salt concentrations that they actually require them for growth
Extreme halophiles
194
An organism capable of growth in, but not requiring, 1 to 2% salt
Facultative halophile
195
The conversion of nitrogen into ammonia
Nitrogen fixation
196
Microbes require very small amounts of other mental elements, such as iron, copper, zinc, and Molybdenum; these are called
Trace elements
197
An organism that requires molecular oxygen to live
Obligate aerobe
198
An organism that can grow with or without molecular oxygen
Facultative anaerobes
199
What is an example of a familiar facultative anaerobes that is found in the human intestinal track?
E. coli
200
An organism that does not use molecular oxygen and his killed in the presence of oxygen
Obligate anaerobes
201
What is the most familiar example of an obligate anaerobes, which is the common cause of tetanus and botulism
Clostridium
202
An organism that does not use molecular oxygen but is not affected by its presence
Aero tolerant anaerobes
203
This lactic acid producing aerotolerant anaerobe is used in the production of many acidic fermented foods, such as pickles and cheese
Lactobacilli
204
A microbial community that usually forms of a slime layer on the surface
Biofilm
205
Microbes introduced into a culture medium to initiate growth
Inoculum
206
This type of media is made up of nutrients including extracts from yeast, meat, or plants, or digest of proteins from these and other sources
Complex media
207
Protein is a large, relatively in soluble molecules that a minority of micro organisms can utilize directly, but a partial digestion by acids are enzymes reduce protein to shorter chains of amino acids called
Peptones
208
Nutrient broth containing agar
Nutrient agar
209
A complex media made of beef extract and peptone
Nutrient broth
210
A culture medium design to suppress the growth of unwanted micro organisms and encourage the growth of desired ones
Selective medium
211
This type of selective media is used to isolate the typhoid bacterium, gram-negative salmonella typhi, from feces
Bismuth sulfite
212
Solid culture medium that makes it easier to distinguish colonies of the desired organism
Differential medium
213
Preservation of bacterial cultures at -50°C two -95°C
Deep freezing
214
During _____ A suspension of microbes is quickly frozen at temperatures ranging from -54°C to -72°C, and the water is removed by high vacuum or sublimation
Lyophilization
215
Molds and yeast grow between a pH of
5-6
216
What are the two most common forms of biofilms
Candida and Plankton
217
These microbes require high CO2 conditions
Capnophiles
218
What bacterium is growing on armadillos due to their decreased body temperature that matches the micro requirement
Mycobacterium Leprae
219
This biosafety level requires no special precautions
BSL1
220
This biosafety level requires a lab coat, gloves, eye protection
BSL 2
221
This biosafety level requires biosafety cabinets to Preevent airborne transmission
BSL 3
222
This biosafety level requires sealed, negative pressure space; exhaust air is filtered twice
BSL4
223
This medium is used to identify bacterial species that destroy red blood cells
Ex: strep
Blood agar
