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test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What bacterial structure is responsible for seperating the daughter DNA molecules after replication?

A

Cytoplasmic Membrane

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2
Q

Which of the following types of microbes might be found in the Dead Sea?

A

Halophiles

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3
Q

Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?

A

Chlamydia

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4
Q

Which of the following characteristics is the basis for distinguishing classes of proteobacteria?

A

Ribosomal RNA sequences

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5
Q

Which of the following groups of bacteria is named for its resemblance to fungi?

A

Actinomyces

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6
Q

Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion of pathogens?

A

Lactobacillus

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7
Q

Which of the following bacterial genera produce(s) endospores?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

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8
Q

Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because

A

They have no cell walls

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9
Q

Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with clostridia?

A

Diphtheria

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10
Q

Low G + C Gram-positive bacteria are

A

in the phylum Firmicutes and include Clostridia and Mycoplasma

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11
Q

Heterocysts are associated with

A

Cyanobacteria

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12
Q

The largest known group of archea is the

A

Methanogens

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13
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Mycoplasmas is false?

A

They stain Gram-Positive

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14
Q

Bergey’s Manual contains

A

Classification schemes for prokaryotes

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15
Q

Endospores

A

Can be produced when nutrients are scarce

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16
Q

The fusion of two gametes produces a

A

Zygote

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17
Q

Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate?

A

A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells

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18
Q

The first eukaryote to have its entire genome sequenced was the fungus

A

Saccharomyces

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19
Q

Lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi and which of the following?

A

Cyanobacteria or green algae

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20
Q

The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus

A

Protection and recognition

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21
Q

During the intracellular state, a virus exists as

A

a Nucleid Acid

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22
Q

Viruses are primarily classified according to their

A

Type of nucleic acid

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23
Q

Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure?

24
Q

Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophage?

25
``` Put the following stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages: I. Synthesis II. Assembly III. Attachment IV. Release V. Entry ```
III, V, I, II, IV
26
The phenomenon of transduction is associated with which of the stages of a bacteriophage infection cycle?
Assembly
27
The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA?
+ssRNA viruses
28
Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following
Retroviruses
29
Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage back to a lytic phate?
UV light and X rays
30
Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?
The genetic material of the bacteriophage can be passed on to future generations of cells.
31
Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle?
digestion of host DNA
32
The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle?
Entry and Release
33
Host specificity of a virus is due to
interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules
34
How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda phage prophage?
The HIV provirus is intergrated permanently into the host cell's DNA
35
How are prions different from all other known infections agents?
They lack nucleid acid
36
Viroids infect
Plants
37
Plaque assays are used for
estimating the number of phages in a culture
38
A protozoan and its resident bacteria invade the body of a worm. The bacteria release toxins and exoenzymes that immobilize and digest the worm, and the protozoan and bacteria absorb the nutrients produced. The relationship between the protozoan and the bacteria would best be described as
Mutualism
39
A nosocomial disease is a disease acquired
in a heath care facility
40
Among the virulence factors produced by the Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body?
Hyaluronidase
41
Which of the following is an example of exotoxin?
Neurotoxins
42
Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathoges?
Treatment of cancer patient with radiation
43
The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases. This means
there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000
44
Which of the following types epidemiology applies Koch's postulates to study a disease
Experimental epidemiology
45
Formites are
inaanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens.
46
Viruses are shed slowly and steadily
Persistent Infection
47
Viruses remain dormant in a cell
Latency
48
Virus replication results in the death of the cell
Lytic replication
49
Virus infection results in cancer
Oncogenesis
50
A mechanism of release for enveloped viruses
Budding
51
A genetic determination used in classifying the different taxa of Gram-positive bacteria is the ______ ratio.
G + C
52
The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called _______.
Nitrogen Fixation
53
Ticks, lice and mosquitoes often serve as _____ by carrying and transmitting pathogenic microbes.
Vector
54
Viral capsids are composed of subunits called ______.
Capsid
55
The study of the cause of disease is known as _____.
Epidemiology
56
_______ is an endotoxin that stimulates the body to release chemicals that cause fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, and blood coagulation.
Lipid A

Microbiology (5 decks)

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