Test 3 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the measurement at the level of the stomach, left portal vein, and left umbilical vein?
A. Head circumference
B. Abdominal circumference
A
B
2
Q
What is the absence of both eyes?
A
Anophthalmos
3
Q
What refers to the shape of the cerebellum when a spinal defect is present?
A. Banana sign
B. Lemon sign
A
A
4
Q
What is fetal transverse cranial diameter at the level of the thalamus and Cavum septum pellucidum?
A. bpd
B. Head circumference
A
A
5
Q
The fetal head is relatively wide in transverse diameter and shortened in the anteroposterior diameter?
A. Dolichocephaly
B. Brachycephaly
C. Anencephaly
D. Microphthalmos
A
B
6
Q
What is the term for associated with spinal defects?
A
Chiari malformations
7
Q
The fetal head is relatively narrow in the transverse plane and elongated in the anteroposterior plane
A. Dolichocephaly
B. Brachycephaly
A
A
8
Q
What is the measurement of femoral diaphysis called?
A
Femur length
9
Q
What condition in which the orbits are spaced far apart?
A. Hypertelorism
B. Hypotelorism
A
A
10
Q
What is the condition in which the orbits are close together?
A. Hypotelorism
B. Hypertelorism
A
A
11
Q
What occurs with spina bifida; frontal bones collapse inward
A. Banana sign
B. Lemon sign
A
B
12
Q
What does microphthalmos mean?
A. Small eyes
B. Big eyes
A
A
13
Q
What is the sum of the four quadrants of amniotic fluid
A
AFI; amniotic fluid index
14
Q
What is the assessment of fetus to determine fetal well-being
A
BPP; biophysical profile
15
Q
What is the incorporation of all fetal growth parameters
A
EFW; estimated fetal weight
16
Q
What is the decreased rate of fetal growth which may be symmetric or asymmetric
A
IUGR; intrauterine growth restriction
17
Q
What is LGA
A
Large for gestational age
18
Q
What is the birth weight greater than 4000 g or above the 90th percentile
A
Macrosomia
19
Q
What does SGA mean
A
Small for gestational age
20
Q
What test uses doptone to record the fetal heart rate and its reactivity to stress of uterine contraction
A
NST; nonstress test
21
Q
What is the rare anomaly in monochorionic twins in which one twin develops without a heart and often without an upper half of the body
A. Anasarca
B. Dizygotic
C. Acardiac anomaly
D. Eclampsia
A
C
22
Q
What is severe generalized massive edema often seen with fetal hydrops
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Hydrops fetalis
C. Anasarca
D. Monozygotic
A
C
23
Q
What is the lack of development of the caudal spine and cord that may occur in the fetus of a diabetic mother
A. Caudal regression syndrome
B. Hydrops fetalis
C. Acardiac anomaly
D. Eclampsia
A
A
24
Q
What is fetal death that occurs after the fetus has reached a certain growth that is too large to reasorb in the uterus
A. Fetus papyraceous
B. Eclampsia
C. Monozygotic
A
A
25
What are twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova
A. Dizygotic
B. Monozygotic
A
26
What is a coma and seizures in the second and third trimester patient Secondary to PIH
A. eclampsia
B. Pre-eclampsia
C. PIH
D. Polyhydramnios
A
27
What is fluid occurring in at least two of the following areas; pleural effusion, pericardial effusion, ascites or skin edema
A. Hydrop fetalis
B. Monozygotic
C. Oligohydramnios
A
28
What are twins that arise from a single fertilized egg which divides to produce two identical twins
A. Monozygotic
B. Dizygotic
A
29
What does too little amniotic fluid mean
A. Oligohydramnios
B. Polyhydramnios
Oligohydramnios
30
What does too much amniotic fluid mean
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Oligohydramnios
A
31
What is the complication of pregnancy characterized by increasing hypertension, edema, and proteinuria
A. Eclampsia
B. Pre-eclampsia
B
32
What does PIH mean?
Pregnancy induced hypertension
33
What is protein created by the fetus which can be studied in amniotic fluid and maternal serum.
A. alpha-feta protein
B. amniocentesis
C. Hypertelorism
D. hCG
A
34
What is a transabdominal removal of amniotic fluid from the amniotic cavity using ultrasound. Fluid stuides are performed.
A. amniocentesis
B. cystic hygroma
C. IUGR
D. protein
A
35
What is the dilation of jugular lymph sacs becausee of improper drainage of the lymphatic system into veneous system?
A. IUGR
B. cystic hygroma
C. AFP
D. hypoplasia
B
36
What is abnormally wide-spaced orbits usually found in conjunction with congenital anomalies and delayed mental development?
A. Hypertelorism
B. Hypotelorism
A
37
What is the underdevelopment of a tissue, organ or body
A. hypoplasia
B. hypotelorism
A
38
What is abnormally closely spaced orbits; associated with holoprosencephaly, chromosomal, central nervous sytem disorders and cleft
A. hypertelorism
B. hypotelorism
B
39
What is the decreased rate of fetal growth, usually a fetal weight below the 10th percentile for a given gestational age
IUGR
40
What is an abnormally small chin; commonly associated with other fetal anomalies
A. micrognathia
B. macrognathia
A
41
What is an anterior abdominal wall defect in which abdominal organs are typically located within the umbilical cord?
A. triploidy
B. polydactyly
C. omphalocele
D. trisomy 13
C
42
What is the anomalies of the hands or feet in which there is an addition of a digit?
A.trisomy 18
B. polydactyly
C. omphalocele
D. micrognathia
B
43
What is also known as Edwards syndrome, second most common chromosomal trisomy. Physical features include cardiac?
A. trisomy 18
B. trsiomy 21
C. trisomy 19
D. trisomy 13
A
44
What is also known as down syndrome, most common chromosomal disorder characterized by an extra chromosome number 21.
A. trisomy 20
B. trisomy 13
C. trisomy 21
D. trisomy 18
C
45
What is also known as Patau's syndrome. Result of extra chromosome 13. Extremely severe anomalies involving the brain.
A. trisomy 18
B. trisomy 21
C. trisomy 13
D. trisomy 9
C
46
What is the result of a complete extra set of chromosomes. Often occurs as te result of an ova being fertilized by two sperm
A. triploidy
B. trisomy 18
C. trisomy 19
D. trisomy 21
A
47
What is premature detachment of the placenta from the maternal wall
A. placenta previa
B. abruptio placentae
C. battledore placenta
D. basal plate
B
48
What is the maternal surface of the placenta that lies contiguous with the deciduas basalis
A. basal plate
B. chorion villi
C. chorion plate
D. braxton hicks
A
49
What is the cord insertion into the margin of the placenta?
A. abruptio placenta
B. battledore placenta
C. pre-eclampsia
D. chorion villi
B
50
What is spontaneous painless uterine contractions described originally as a sign of pregnancy occurring throughout pregnancy?
Braxton hicks contractions
51
What is the portion of the chorion that develops into the fetal portion of the placenta?
A. Chorion frondosum
B. chorion villi
C. chorion plate
D. basal plate
A
52
What are the vascular projections from the chorion?
A. chorion plate
B. chorion villi
C. chorion frondosum
D. villi
B
53
What is part of the chorionic membrane that covers the placenta?
A. basal plate
B. placenta
C. abruptio placenta
D. chorion plate
D
54
What is part of the decidua that unites with the chorion to form the placenta?
A. decidua basalis
B. decidua capsularis
A
55
Part of the decidua that surrounds the chorionic sac?
A. decidua basalis
B. decidua capsularis
B
56
What is also known as gestational trophoblastic disease; abnormal proliferative of trophoblastic cells in the first trimester?
A. molar pregnancy
B. placenta previa
C. placenta accreta
D. placenta increta
A
57
What is growth of the chorionic villi superficially into the myometrium
A. placenta accreta
B. placenta increta
C. placenta migration
D. placenta previa
A
58
What is the growth of the chorionic cilli deep into the myometrium?
A. placenta accreta
B. placenta increta
C. placental migration
D. molar pregnancy
B
59
What is placenta completely covers the lower uterine segment?
Placenta previa
60
What is movement of the placenta as the uterine enlarges?
Placenta migration
61
What is one or more accessory lobes connected to the body of the placenta by blood vessels?
A. succenturiate placenta
B. vasa previa
C. whartons jelly
D. circummarginate placenta
A
62
What occurs when the intramembranous vessels course across the cervial os
A. vasa previa
B. whartons jelly
C. placentomegally
D. placenta
A
63
What is mucoid connective tissue that surrounds the vessels within the umbilical cord?
Whartons jelly
64
What is the placenta condition in which the chorionic plate of the placenta is smaller than the basal plate, with a flat interface?
A.Circummarginate placenta
B. Cirumvallate placenta
A
65
What is the placental condition in which the chorionic plate of the placenta is smaller than the basal plate; margin is raised with a roll edged
A. circummarginate placenta
B. circumvallate placenta
B
66
what is enlarged placenta with thickness measuring > 5 mm
placentomegaly
67
Which one of the following sonographic signs refers to the shape of the cerebellum when a spinal defect is present?
A. banana
B. strawberry
C. sandwhich
D. lemon
A
68
The biparietal diameter (BPD) is the measurement of the fetal head at the level of which of the following structures?
A. peduncles and septum pellucidum
B. thalamus and cavum septum pellucidum (CSP)
C. frontal horns and third ventricle
D. thalamus and fourth ventricle
B
69
The condition that shows the fetal head elongated in the transverse diameter and shortened in the anteroposterior diameter is known as which one of the following?
A. elongichocephaly
B. miniephaly
C. dolichocephaly
D. brachycephaly
D
70
The plane used for a coronal head circumference (CHC) should include which of the following structures?
A. third ventricle and brainstem
B. CSP and falx cerebri
C. atrium of the lateral ventricle and thalamus
D. thalamus and brainstem
D
71
Which one of the following biometric measurements is more useful as a growth parameter?
A. Head circumference
B. Abdominal circumference
C. CRL
D. BPD
B
72
Which one of the following measurements is devised to determine the normality of the fetal head shape?
A. BPD
B. Head circumference:abdominal circumference ratio
C. abdominal circumference
D. cephalic index
D
73
The fetal orbits should be measured:
A. at the same level as the BPD
B. in a plane slightly cephalic to the BPD
C. in a place slightly caudal to the BPD
D. in the occipitoanterior position
C
74
Which one of the following statements about the femur length measurement is true?
A. it includes only the femoral diaphysis
B. it should include the femoral head
C. it should include the distal femoral epiphysis
D. it is taken from the pointed end to the pointed end
A
75
Gestational age can best be predicted from which one of the following?
A. orbital diameter
B. interocular distance
C. binocular distance
D. intraocular distance
C
76
A condition in which the fetus is not growing at a normal rate is which one of the following?
A. age-range analysis
B. microcephaly
C. growth-adjusted sonar age
D. IUGR
D
77
The development of conjoined twins occurs when the divison of the egg occurs _____ days after conception.
A. 25
B. 3
C. 8
D. 13
D
78
Twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova are known as which one of the following?
A. diamniotic
B. dizygotic
C. monozygotic
D. monochorionic
B
79
Secondary to pregnancy-induced hypertension, the occurrence of a coma or seizures in the patient during the second and third trimesters represents which one of the following?
A. eclampsia
B. hydrops
C. alloimmune thrombocytopenia
D. erythroblastosis fetalis
A
80
Which one of the following complications of pregnancy is characterized by increasing hypertension, proteinuria, and edema?
A. thrombocytopenia
B. diabetes
C. fetal hydrops
D. preeclampsia
D
81
Which one of the following terms describes a group of conditions in which hydrops is present in the fetus but is not a result of fetomaternal blood group incompatibility?
A. nonimmune hydrops (NIH)
B. immune hydrops
C. hyperemesis gravidarum
D. toxemia
A
82
What sonographic finding(s) confirms the presence of a diamniotic pregnancy?
A. two fetal poles
B. two yolk sacs
C. two placentas
D. membrane that separates the fetuses
D
83
Sonographic findings of fetal hydrops in an isoimmunized pregnancy include all of the following except:
A. pericardial effusion
B. polyhydramnios
C. pleural effusion
D. thinning placenta
D
84
Maternal obesity has been associated with an increased incidence of which one of the following abnormalities?
A. neural tube defects
B. biliary atresia
C. plycystic kidney disease
D. hydrocephalus
A
85
Which one of the following statements about twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is true?
A. the arterial blood of one twin is pumped into the venous system of the other twin
B. the venous blood of one twin is pumped into the arterial system of the other twin
C. this syndrome is a common complication of multiple gestations
D. twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome occurs between the fetal umbilical cords
A
86
In twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome, which one of the following statements is true?
A. the recipient twin may demonstrate polyhyddramnios
B. an ateriovenous shunting within the placenta is demonstrated
C. both twins are at risk of dying
D. all of the above statements are true
D
87
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) may include all of the following advantages except:
A. it is performed in the first trimester
B. early results allow more options for parents
C. the results are available within 1 week
D. the results are available within 48 hours
D
88
Amniocentesis may be used for all of the following except:
A. documentation of lung maturity
B. prediciton of cardiac abnormalities
C. analysis of fetal chromosomes
D. prediction of Rh isoimmunization
B
89
Reasons to perform an amniocentesis include all of the following except:
A. multiple gestations
B. abnormal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level
C. maternal age
D. previous child with chromosomal abnormality
A
90
AFP is found in all of the following fetal structures except the:
A. spine
B. brain
C. kidneys
D. liver and gastrointestinal tract
B
91
High levels of AFP indicate all of the following except:
A. gastroschisis
B. down syndrome
C. open spina bifida
D. anencephaly
B
92
An abnormality in the number of chromosomes is called which one of the following?
A. multifactorial
B. mosaicism
C. x-linked disorder
D. aneuploidy
D
93
An early noninvasive means of assessing the risk of aneuploidy is which one of the following?
A. fetal position
B. biophysical profile
C. facial analysis
D. nuchal translucency
D
94
The sonographic findings of increased nuchal thickening, shortened femurs, cardiac anomalies, and pyelectasis may be seen in which one of the following?
A. trisomy 18
B. trisomy 13
C. trisomy 21
D. turner syndrome
C
95
The sonographic finidings of cranial anomalies, choroid plexus, facial abnormalities, and rocker bottom feet may be seen in which one of the following?
A. turner syndrome
B. trisomy 21
C. trisomy 18
D. trisomy 13
C
96
Holoprosencephaly and proboscis are most likely to be found in fetus with which one of the following?
A. trisomy 18
B. turner syndrome
C. trisomy 21
D. trisomy 13
D
97
The placenta performs all of the following functions except:
A. nutrition
B. excretion
C. absorption
D. hormone production
C
98
The velamentous placenta refers to a(n):
A. membranous insertion of the cord
B. insertion of the umbilical cord at the margin of the placenta
C. arteriovenous anastomosis of the vessels within the placenta
D. insertion of the umbilical cord neaar the edge of the placenta
A
99
Fusion of the amnion and chorion usually occurs by _____ weeks of gestation
A. 16
B. 12
C. 10
D. 14
A
100
A marginal or an eccentric insertion of the umbilical cord into the placenta is which one of the following?
A. velamentous placenta
B. vasa previa
C. placenta accreta
D. battledore placenta
D
101
The primary cause of placentomegaly is which one of the following abnormalities?
A. intrauterine infection
B. fetal malformations
C. maternal diabetes
D. battledore placenta
C
102
Complications of placenta previa include all of the following except:
A. premature delivery
B. succenturiate placenta
C. postpartum hemorrhage
D. maternal hemorrhage
B
103
The presence of one or more accessory lobes connected to the body of the placenta by blood vessels is a _____ placenta.
A. succenturiate
B. circummarginate
C. circumvallate
D. battledore
A
104
Which one of the following statements about a placental abruption is false?
A. bleeding in the decidua basalis occurs with separation
B. the bleed may lead to a chorioangioma
C. preterm labor may result
D. placental abruption may be a retroplacental or marginal abruption
B
105
A marginal placenta previa demonstrates which one of the following?
A. the placenta touches but does not cross the internal cervical os
B. the placenta is in the right lateral position
C. the placenta partially covers the internal cervical os
D. the edge of the placenta is near the interal cervical os
A
106
The attachment of the placental membranes to the fetal surface of the placenta describes which one of the following?
A. succenturiate placenta
B. placenta accreta
C. battledore placenta
D. circummarginate placenta
D
107
What is the normal measurement for the yolk sac in early pregnancy?
A. < 9 mm
B. 13 mm
C. 7 mm
D. < 6 mm
D
108
When do you measure Nuchal Translucency?
A. 12-20 weeks 7 days
B. 3-5 weeks 6 days
C. 7 weeks
D. 11-13 weeks 6 days
D
109
What is the normal measurement for nuchal translucency?
A. 6 mm or less
B. 7mm
C. 3 mm or less
D. 4 mm
C
110
What is the equation for cephalic index?
CI = BFD/OFD x 100
111
What is the single most sensitive indicator of IUGR?
A. HC
B. AC
C. FL
D. BPD
B
112
Which one of the following abnormalities might demonstrate a small placenta?
A. maternal anemia
B. aneuploidy
C. maternal diabetes
D. Rh sensitivity
B
113
Fusion of the amnion and chorion usually occcurs by _______ weeks of gestation.
A. 12
B. 16
C. 14
D. 20
B
114
Severe blood loss may occur with placenta _______.
A. percreta
B. accreta
C. increta
D. excreta
A
