Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

2A project team is performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives. Which of the following is not potentially a project team?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project management staff who perform budgeting and reporting.

Project staff who create project deliverables.

Customer representatives who provide requirements

Stakeholder group

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Stakeholder group is the larger group of people and organisations and not all are part of the project team

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2
Q

12An important feature in Agile is to maintain a prioritized list of backlog. Which of the following is NOT a prioritization technique?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Monte Carlo simulation

Kano model

MoSCoW analysis

100 Points Method

A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to understand the impact of risk and uncertainty in prediction and forecasting models.

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3
Q

20Agile has certain ceremonies like daily standup, sprint review, and sprint retrospective. Which of the following is not true about the ceremonies?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Daily standups are status meetings.

Sprint planning is a collaborative event for planning the project release.

Both A and B are wrong

Both A and B are correct

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Sprint planning plans the work for the current sprint, not an entire project. Daily standups are not status meetings. The are required for a team to reaffirm commitment to its objectives, coordinate work among team members, and surface potential blockers.

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4
Q

39Which of the following is NOT a tool/technique for verifying scope?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Definition of Done

Definition of Ready

Acceptance Criteria

Team review comments

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

DOD, DOR, and Acceptance criteria are tools and techniques for verifying the scope.

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5
Q

43A charter for a simple project without much dependency is approved, and the team is working on Iterative scheduling. Which of the following is NOT true about Iterative scheduling?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

The method uses progressive elaboration

Iterative scheduling works best for complex projects with dependency

Stories that provide the highest value are prioritized

Stories are prioritized based on how long they take

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Iterative scheduling with a backlog does not work well with activities that have complex dependency relationships.

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6
Q

47An Agile team is preparing for its retrospective. Which of the following is NOT correct about retrospectives?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

A retrospective is a review of what went well

A retrospective is a review of what could have been done better

A retrospective assesses team collaboration.

The product owner is not included as this is for the agile team

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

A retrospective meeting consists of the agile team, product owner, and key stakeholders

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7
Q

53Value stream mapping is used to:
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Develop earned value management

Develop expected monetary value

Analyze flow of information

Compute overall value of the project

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Value stream mapping is used to document, analyze, and improve the flow of information or materials required to provide a product or service for a customer.

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8
Q

55Impediments and blockers can be identified at various stages by the team. Which of the following is NOT true about impediments?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Can be uncovered during daily standups.

Can be represented using sticky notes on a whiteboard

Can be tracked using sophisticated software

Cannot be a result of project risks

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Impediments may be due to or as a result of project risks or issues.

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9
Q

62Some of the senior team members in a project are classifying compliance. The team comes up with a list of categories, which includes environmental risk, Workplace safety, corrupt practices, social responsibility, quality, and process risks. The architect does not agree that social responsibility and process risks are categories for compliance. The test lead believes that process risks is a correct category but social responsibility does not have any meaning and cannot be considered a compliance category. The development manager states both social responsibility and process risks can be part of the compliance category classification. Who is correct about compliance categories classification?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Architect

Development Manager

Test Lead

None of the above

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

There are many different types of compliance categories that may be necessary for a particular industry and solution scope. This may include social responsibility and process risks.

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10
Q

66Which of the following is done by QA?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Review the deliverable so that it meets functional and nonfunctional requirements

Suggest potential improvements

Make recommendations to address any noncompliance

All of the above

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

As the project team produces deliverables, quality assurance (QA) will review the deliverable, verify that it meets functional and nonfunctional requirements, and often identify and suggest potential improvements. QA will validate whether the deliverables align with compliance requirements and provide feedback on any variances.

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11
Q

68Quality audits are used to verify compliance and are generally conducted by an external team. Audits are generally used to: (Choose all options that are correct)
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER(S)

Share good practices from other projects in the organisation or industry

Highlight contributions to lessons learned

Identify critical path

None of the above

A

Correct Option:A, B

EXPLANATION

Quality audits are used to verify compliance with organizational policies, processes, and procedures. They are generally used to identify good practices being used, share good practices from other projects, proactively offer improvements to improve productivity, and highlight contributions to lessons learned.

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12
Q

70A project management plan can contain many subsidiary plans. Which of the following is not correct about Benefits Management Plan?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

It describes how the benefits of a project will be derived.

It describes how the benefits are measured.

It is a subsidiary component of the project management plan.

It describes when the benefits will be realized, usually by project phase.

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Benefits Management plan is a business document and is not a subsidiary component of the project management plan.

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13
Q

76TQM is an approach to improve business results. Which of the following is NOT true about TQM implementation by quality theorists?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Juran trilogy breaks quality management into quality planning control and improvement.

Taguchi method emphasizes that quality should be designed into the product.

Deming cycle is focused on one-time fix for quality to meet customer needs.

Six sigma emphasizes responding to customer needs by systematically removing defects.

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Deming cycle focuses on continuous process improvement in which quality must be continuously improved to meet customer needs.

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14
Q

78Which of the following statements is NOT true about a product life cycle?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

It starts with conception of a new product and ends with its withdrawal.

A product can spawn a single project in its life.

The five stages of each product lifecycle are product development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline.

It focuses on managing the properties of a product from a company’s business point of view.

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

A product can spawn a single project in its life. Product lifecycle management (PLM) is the process of managing the entire lifecycle of a product from its conception, through design and manufacture, to service and disposal. PLM integrates people, data, processes, and business systems to provide a product information backbone for companies. The five stages of each product lifecycle are product development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline. A product can spawn or require many projects over its life.

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15
Q

85Jenny is a Project Manager and is currently in the initiating process group. She understands that it is critical for project success to identify stakeholders early in the project. Therefore, she is in the Identify Stakeholders process. Of the following, which INPUT may not be required?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project documents

Project Charter

Expert Judgment

Enterprise environmental factors

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

Expert judgment is a tool and technique for the Identify Stakeholders process and is not an input

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16
Q

86One phase is planned at any given time, and the planning for the next is carried out as work progresses on the current phase and deliverables. Which of the following correctly defines the above text?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Overlapping relationship

Sequential relationship

Multi-phase relationship

Iterative relationship

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

An iterative relationship is where one phase is planned at any given time, and the planning for the next is carried out as work progresses on the current phase or deliverable.

17
Q

90Which of the following is NOT a function of the project management office?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Monitoring compliance with project management standards policies, procedures, and templates via project audits

Coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight

Managing shared resources across all projects administered by PMO

Identifying and developing the organization’s methodology, administrative practices, and rules

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The PMO’s role is to identify and develop the project management methodology, best practices, and standards.

18
Q

93Two members of a team are disagreeing about the right electric parameters for testing a newly designed chipset. Who is in the best position to help resolve this issue?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project Manager

Project Sponsor

Functional Manager

Customer

A

Correct Option:C

EXPLANATION

The issue requires functional expertise, so the Functional Managers will be in the best position to assist in this matter.

19
Q

104As a Project Manager, you are estimating the duration of your project activities using PERT technique (Program Evaluation and Review technique). For a particular project activity, your optimistic estimate is 41 days, pessimistic estimate is 89 days, and most Likely estimate is 60 days. What would be the expected duration and range of estimate for this activity?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

  1. 67 +/- 8.00
  2. 27 +/-8.00
  3. 67 +/-3.00
  4. 27 +/-3.00
A

Correct Option:A

EXPLANATION

PERT allows the estimator to include three estimates: optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely, given by the equation Expected Duration = [P + 4(ML) + O]/6. Range is +/- standard deviation = (P-O)/6, where P is the pessimistic estimate, ML is the most likely estimate, and O is the optimistic estimate. Using this method, the correct answers comes out to be 61.67 days and range (+/-Standard Deviation) is 8.00.

20
Q

107A Project Manager understands the information needs of important stakeholders and documents how they would be met. Which document is being prepared?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Stakeholder register

Stakeholder management plan

Human resources management plan

Communications management plan

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

Communications management plan contains details of how the communication needs of the project’s stakeholders will be met.

21
Q

110Which of the following are the MOST important to derive the total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements of the project?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Management Reserve and Contingency Reserve

Cost Baseline and Management Reserve

Funding Limit Reconciliation

Project Budget and Contingency Reserve

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

The total funds required in the project are those included in cost baseline, plus management reserve if any. Remember, the cost baseline includes contingency reserves because the cost baseline will include projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities.

22
Q

111As a Project Manager for the project in the planning stage, you have derived the cost estimate by estimating the cost of individual work packages. It is summarized to higher levels for reporting and tracking. What would be the range of estimate from the actual?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

  • 50 percent to +100 percent
  • 50 percent to +50 percent
  • 10 percent to +25 percent
  • 5 percent to +10 percent
A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

This is the definitive range derived during the latter part of the project when project information is available in sufficient detail. The estimate could become more refined to a range of -5 percent to +10 percent from the actual. This estimate is usually derived using the bottom-up estimation technique.

23
Q

113John, a project manager, wants to capture the details of activities, including their inputs, outputs, and interfaces with other processes, to enhance the value of the process. Which of the following documents would be MOST helpful?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Project Management Plan

Quality Management Plan

Process Improvement Plan

Product Management Plan

A

Correct Option:B

EXPLANATION

Quality management plan would be most helpful as it considers the continuous improvement procedure.

24
Q

126You are a Project Manager taking over a project midway. It is in the execution phase. You would like to know more about project deliverables, work required to complete those deliverables, project constraints, assumptions, etc. Which of the following documents would be MOST useful?
SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Requirements Documentation

Activity List

Project Scope Statement

A

Correct Option:D

EXPLANATION

The Project Manager should refer to the project scope statement as it captures all the details related to the project scope, including product acceptance criteria, scope description, project deliverables, constraints, assumptions, etc. Options A and Option C define project scope at the smaller work package and activity level respectively. Option B, Requirements Documentation, captures requirements of the project related to quality, functional and non-functional aspects, support, etc. This is incorrect.

25
129You are managing a large project team that has some new members joining. You would like to take the entire team through the project schedule and update them on where the project stands with respect to the original plan. Which of the following charts would be most helpful for this purpose? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Gantt Chart Milestone Chart Work Breakdown structure Schedule Baseline
Correct Option:A EXPLANATION A Gantt chart is a bar chart that shows the activities of a project, when each must take place, and how long each will take. As the project progresses, bars are shaded to show which activities have been completed. People assigned to each task also can be represented. This is the most effective tool to show the people assigned to the project where they are with respect to the original plan.
26
134You are managing a critical project with frequent changes in requirements. You are in the testing phase of the project, and the customer has requested an additional new feature. You have assessed the impact of the change on the triple constraints with your team. What should be your NEXT step? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Raise a change request form and send it for approval to the change control board Look for alternative options, including schedule compression techniques like crashing and fast tracking Analyze the impact of the change on project quality objectives and quality planning Update the project management plans and other project documents, including project baselines
Correct Option:C EXPLANATION Analyze the impact of the change on project quality objectives and quality planning. It is important to analyze the impact of the change not only on the triple constraints but also on quality. The Project Manager needs to determine whether the quality objectives and quality planning need to be modified to address the changes. Option B is already addressed as part of assessing the impact on the triple constraints.
27
140A Project Manager is working on shortlisting, interviewing, and selecting candidates for the open positions within a project as per the job descriptions. Which process group is being worked on here? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Planning Initiating Controlling Executing
Correct Option:D EXPLANATION The process being worked on is Acquire Project Team, which is part of the Executing process group.
28
147A key stakeholder expresses concern over lack of project visibility and progress and says that project status reports lack information relevant to the stakeholder's department. How should the Project Manager respond? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Review the Project Communication Management Plan to determine the stakeholders' needs Take another look at the Manage Communications process to identify the gaps Raise a change request to address the stakeholder's feedback Take another look at the monitor Communications process to understand the problem
Correct Option:A EXPLANATION The communication management plan determines the project stakeholders' information needs and defines the communication approach. It is the document that would help resolve the stakeholder's issues. Since the stakeholder is receiving timely performance reports, options (b) and (c) are not correct.
29
150As a Project Manager, you need to estimate the regression testing for your product. You would like to do 5 full testing cycles. Each cycle is estimated to take 4 days. What is your estimated duration for the testing activity? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER 25 days 18 to 22 days 18 days 22 to 24 days
Correct Option:B EXPLANATION The estimated duration for 5 testing cycles of 4 days each is 20 days. The correct estimation range is 18 to 22 days.
30
162A Project Manager wants to monitor the performance of a process. She sets up thresholds for this purpose, and any observation beyond the threshold would trigger a root cause analysis and corrective/preventive actions. This is an example of: SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Specification limits Control limits Pareto charts Tolerances
Correct Option:B EXPLANATION Tolerances or specification limits are customer-specified limitations. These limits are meant for the purpose of controlling the process. Hence, they are control limits.
31
166Your project is in the final stages of testing, and the team is interacting with the customer on a daily basis to update the customer about the project status and incorporate feedback. Which of the following would be the most critical process to be followed in this scenario? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Control Quality Control Scope Manage Communications Monitor Risks
Correct Option:B EXPLANATION In this case, frequent changes are expected to be made by the team based on customer feedback. When a change is presented, a part of considering the change involves additional planning. The Project Manager and the team must examine how the change affects the project work and knowledge areas. Thus, Control scope ensures that the project scope is protected from unnecessary changes and all eligible changes are made using the scope change control system. Option A, Control Quality, is more focused on ensuring conformance to documented standards and is not the correct choice.
32
167John, a Project Manager, is proactively managing change through the control scope process. Which of the following should he be MOST worried about? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Value-Added Changes Errors and Omissions Risk Response Verbal communication from key stakeholders
Correct Option:D EXPLANATION Undocumented changes should never be allowed by the Project Manager. He or she should ensure that whenever a change is requested, the impact on features and functions of the product (including that on the triple constraints) is documented with a change request. Only then should the change continue through integrated change control. Option A, value-added changes, describes changes in the scope that would provide benefits such as cost reduction. Option B, errors and omissions, could be both in project scope, which is the work required to complete the project, and the product scope, which refers to the features and functions of the deliverables. Option C, risk response, involves changes in the scope required to mitigate an identified risk. Option D, verbal undocumented changes, poses maximum potential threat to a project.
33
169As a Project Manager and member of the PMO (Project Management Office), you want to present a snapshot of the status of various projects that the organization is working on to the senior management. Which of the following charts would be most suitable for the purpose? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Milestone chart Gantt Chart Precedence diagram Control chart
Correct Option:A EXPLANATION A milestone chart depicts key events along a timescale. It is used for top-level reporting so that management does not become bogged down in the details of the projects. A milestone chart can contain various colors or markings that indicate status. It can also contain other information related to the project(s), like customers, responsibility, duration, phase of the milestone, etc.
34
171You are managing an infrastructure project that is nearing completion when a major stakeholder points out a flaw in the design that could make the entire structure weak. He suggests that you construct two support pillars that would provide the necessary support. You are worried that this change could impact the schedule and cost of the project significantly. What is your BEST response to the stakeholder? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Refuse his suggestion as the project is already nearing completion and it's not possible to make any changes at this stage Do a root cause analysis with the team to determine how this design flaw could have been missed and if there could be more potential problems with the design Proceed with the change and communicate the impact on project schedule and cost to the customer Use a schedule compression technique as part of integrated change control to investigate and minimize the adverse impact of the change
Correct Option:D EXPLANATION Schedule compression technique is useful not only during project planning to see if the desired completion date can be met but also during integrated change control to look at the schedule impacts of changes to time, cost, scope, or risk. Option B seems to be in good faith but doesn't address the immediate problem. Option C should be done once all the alternatives are explored to minimize the adverse effect of the change on the project schedule and other constraints.
35
174A project team with a CPI of 0.78 is looking for options to reduce cost. Which of the following would be the BEST option to do so? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER Reduce a test cycle in the system testing phase Reduce scope by cutting down non-essential features Add more resources to expedite the schedule Revisit estimates, eliminate risks, and then re-estimate
Correct Option:D EXPLANATION Option C wouldn't reduce cost. Option A and B would have a negative effect as they compromise on quality or scope. Of all the available options, D is the one with minimum negative effect.
36
178In a normal distribution, what is the probability of finding the actual value between 1 standard deviation distance from the mean? SELECT THE CORRECT ANSWER 0. 95 0. 9973 0. 5 0. 68
Correct Option:D EXPLANATION The answer is based on the property of the normal distribution where 68% of data falls within 1 SD, 95 % of data falls within 2SD and 99% data falls within 3 SD.