Test Flashcards

1
Q

. Why would an excess of albumin in the blood cause problems?

A

Albumin is a plasma protein that would increase the osmotic potential of the blood. More albumin in the plasma would draw more water from the tissues and increase blood volume.

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2
Q

Why is hemoglobin packed into red blood cells rather than suspended in blood plasma?

A

The amount of hemoglobin need to transport sufficient oxygen to the tissues would dramatically increase the viscosity of the blood if it were suspended in plasma. This would require tremendous pumping force to circulate the blood and blood pressure would rise.

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3
Q

Why is it a bad idea for someone with O+ blood to receive AB- blood?

A

An O+ recipient contains anti-A and anti-B antibodies in his/her plasma. An AB- donor contains both A and B antigens on his/her erythrocytes. Thus, the recipient’s antibodies would attack the donor’s antigens and trigger a transfusion reaction leading to major clumping of the donor’s blood.

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4
Q

You locate a formed element on a microscope slide with an “s-shaped” nucleus that is barely visible because of the dark blue granules. Identify the formed element.

A

Basophil

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5
Q

Which formed element is the primary defender against cancer cells?

A

Lymphocyte

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6
Q

How does a platelet plug form?

A

Damage to a blood vessel will expose collagen fibers in the vessel wall. Circulating platelets will stick to these collagen fibers as they pass through the vessel. The platelets that have adhered to the vessel wall will release chemicals that attract additional platelets. This positive feedback loop will eventually create a sticky mass that allows the damaged vessel to begin healing.

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7
Q
  1. What impact would the inability to form prothrombinase have on an individual?
A

Without prothrombinase, prothrombin cannot be converted into thrombin and the clotting cascade comes to a halt before fibrin gets formed.

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8
Q

What type of anemia could occur as a result of a snakebite?

A

Hemolytic anemia.

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9
Q

What type of anemia might occur among those who follow a vegan diet? Why?

A

Pernicious anemia. Meat-free diets are low in vitamin B-12, which is essential in the formation of erythrocytes.

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10
Q

What is the difference between a thrombus and an embolus?

A

A thrombus is a clot that becomes large enough to block a blood vessel. If a piece of that clot breaks free, it becomes an embolus that travels through the bloodstream.

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11
Q
  1. Which heart valve regulates blood flow into the lungs?
A

Pulmonary semilunar valve

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12
Q

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs?

A

Left Atrium

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13
Q

Factors of blood transportation

A

Carries oxygen from lungs to cells and carbon dioxide from cells to lungs. 2.)Nutrients from gastrointestinal tract to cells and metabolic heat and wastes away from cells. 3.)hormones from endocrine glands to target cells.

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14
Q

Factors of blood protection

A

Clotting mechanism protects body against loss of blood. 2.)Phagocytic white blood cells engulf and destroy invading microorganisms and toxins. 3.) antibodies neutralize and/or destroy pathogens. 3.) inflammation limits the spread of an infection.

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15
Q

Factors of blood regulation

A

Blood buffers maintain constant pH levels. 2.) blood flow maintains normal body temp. 3.) blood volume maintains water balance.

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16
Q

Plasma

A

55% of blood. Straw colored fluid consisting of 92% water and 8% solutes. Blood serum remains after clotting proteins are removed from blood plasma.

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17
Q

Albumins

A

(60%) Plasma protein contributes to viscosity and osmolarity. Blood flow, BP, and water balance

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18
Q

Globulins

A

(36%) Plasma protein that transports lipids, fat-soluble vitamins, minerals, hormones, iron and lipids.

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19
Q

Immunoglobulins

A

antibodies that combat pathogens

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20
Q

Fibrinogen

A

(4%) Plasma protein that becomes fibrin which is the main component of a blood clot.

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21
Q

Plasma’s dissolved solutes include:

A

Nitrogenous wastes(urea)/ Nutrients(glucose,amino acids, fats, cholesterol)/ CO2 & O2/ electrolytes(sodium ions, chloride and bicarbonate ions)

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22
Q

Blood is what % of one’s total weight? How many liters does the average female and male have?

A

8% of total. Average female has 4 to 5 liters. Average male has 5 to 6 liters.

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23
Q

What % of total blood consists of formed elements and what are they?

A

45%. Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, and Thrombocytes(platelets)

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24
Q

Is blood more viscous than water? Why?

A

It is 4.5 to 5.5 more viscous due to formed elements and plasma proteins. This affects its flow through blood vessels.

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25
Q

What is blood’s pH?

A

Blood is slightly alkaline(basic) with a range between 7.35 and 7.45

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26
Q

How is blood osmolarity determined and why is it important?

A

Determined by # of RBC’s, sodium ions, and proteins. Its important in maintaining fluid balance with the tissues.

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27
Q

BCOP?

A

proteins establish Blood Colloid Osmotic Pressure

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28
Q

Blood osmolarity too high?

A

too much water absorbed results in blood volume and blood pressure rising.

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29
Q

Blood osmolarity too low?

A

too much water remaining in tissues causes edema.

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30
Q

Erythrocyte structure?

A

Biconcave disks that lack nuclei and organelles. Plasma membrane is permeable and flexible allowing cells to change shape as they squeeze through capillaries.

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31
Q

what do RBCs carry out? and what cant they?

A

anaerobic respiration(no O2). Cant carry out protein synthesis and mitosis.

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32
Q

what does Hemoglobin do?

A

gives blood its red color an transports gases. 1/3 of weight of RBC. Each molecule consists of 4 protein globin chains .

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33
Q

non protein heme group?

A

contains iron ion that can transport one molecule of O2

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34
Q

Each erythrocyte contains ___ million hemoglobin molecules and can transport up to ___ billion O2 molecules.

A

280 and 1

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35
Q

Oxyhemoglobin

A

when O2 is bound to hemoglobin

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36
Q

Deoxyhemoglobin

A

Hemoglobin lacking O2

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37
Q

What is Hematocrit?

A

% of whole blood volume that comes from erythrocytes.

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38
Q

Average hematocrit for males and females? Why is it different?

A

Female(37-48%) Male(42-52%). Lower hematocrit in females is due to androgen( testosterone) levels, higher % body fat, and menstruation.

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39
Q

What do erythrocytes arise from in bone marrow that undergo erythropoiesis?

A

hemocytoblasts

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40
Q

Kidneys and liver release ___ to stimulate___ to differentiate and become mature over __ days?

A

hormone erythropoiten/ proerythroblasts/ 15

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41
Q

What does the erythrocyte process require?

A

dietary iron, transfer & binding proteins, vitamin B12, and folic acid.

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42
Q

Reduction in blood O2 levels causes…

A

Kidneys to increase the output of Erythropoiten(EPO) to stimulate production of more RBCs

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43
Q

Life span of erythrocyte and why

A

120 days because of wear and tear on its plasma membrane.

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44
Q

How are old erythrocytes removed?

A

from circulation by liver and spleen

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45
Q

___ releases the hemoglobin and separates it into __and __ groups

A

hemolysis/globins/heme

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46
Q

Globins are broken down into ___? Iron is removed from the heme group to___?

A

amino acids which get recycled./ be reused. rest of heme group is converted into waste biliruben.

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47
Q

What determines a human’s blood type?

A

The presence or absence of proteins on the surface of an erythrocyte determined by the alleles. EX: individuals with genotype AA or Ai produce only antigen A and have type A blood.

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48
Q

Most common blood type among whites and least common

A

Type O=most common/ Type AB=least

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49
Q

Agglutinins

A

naturally occurring antibodies that will react with A or B antigens and cause clumping among RBCs

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50
Q

what antibodies will individuals with antigen A have? With type B? individuals without antigens? Individuals with both?

A

Type A antigens will have anti-B antibodies/ Type B will have anti-A antibodies/ without antigens (type O) will have anti-A and anti-B./ with both(type AB) will have none

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51
Q

Donor antibodies are usually what?

A

too dilute to cause clumping in the recipient.

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52
Q

Universal recipients and why

A

Type AB because they have no antibodies in their plasma.

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53
Q

Universal donors and why

A

Type O because it doesn’t have A or B antigens

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54
Q

When was the Rh group first identified?

A

in the blood of a Rhesus monkey

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55
Q

What does Rh+ mean

A

individuals who have D antigens on their RBC’s. Only appear if sensitized.

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56
Q

Are anti-D antibodies naturally present in blood plasma?

A

No, they will only appear if an Rh- individual who has been sensitized or exposed to D antigens.

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57
Q

Neutrophil

A

(60-70%) of WBC count. cytoplasm appears light purple and Granules stain pink to red. nucleus may exhibit 2-5 lobes.phagocytize bacteria and release antimicrobial substances

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58
Q

Eosinophil

A

(2-4%) of WBC. granules stain bright red to orange. nucleus exhibits 2 distinct lobes. release enzymes to combat inflammation during allergic reactions. protect against parasitic worms

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59
Q

polymorphonuclear leukocytes

A

many shaped nuclei

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60
Q

Basophil

A

less than 1%. granules stain dark blue to purple. nucleus is bilobed or “s” shaped and often obscured by cytoplasmic granules. secretes histamine to increase blood flow. secretes heparin to reduce blood clotting.

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61
Q

what do agranular leukocytes lack

A

cytoplasmic granules

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62
Q

lymphocytes

A

(25-30%) nucleus is dark violet and surrounded by thin ring of blue-stained cytoplasm. destroy cancer cells, cells infected with viruses, and foreign cells. secrete antibodies during immune responses.

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63
Q

monocytes

A

(3-8%) nucleus is kidney shaped and cytoplasm is blue-gray. differentiate into macrophages that leave the blood to phagocytize pathogens, dead neutrophils, and tissue debris. activate the immune response.

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64
Q

leukopoiesis

A

production of white blood cells which is stimulated by various chemical messengers such as interleukins or colony-stimulating factors.

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65
Q

myeloblasts

A

differentiate into different types of granulocytes. stored in red bone marrow

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66
Q

monoblasts

A

differentiate into monocytes. stored in red bone marrow

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67
Q

lymphoblasts

A

differentiate into lymphocytes. mature in thymus gland

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68
Q

how many WBCs are there there per micro liter of blood

A

5000-10000

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69
Q

differential WBC count

A

compares % of each type of leukocyte to total WBC count. monitors blood disorders or effects of drugs.

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70
Q

platelet

A

membrane-enclosed cytoplasmic fragments of larger cells that lack nuclei. Produced by thrombopoiesis. Megakaryoblasts grow larger until cytoplasm breaks into fragments. circulate freely in blood for 10 days

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71
Q

platelet functions

A

secrete chemicals to stop bleeding and promote blood clotting. phagocytize bacteria. attract neutrophils and monocytes to site of inflammation

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72
Q

normal platelet count

A

130,000-400,000

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73
Q

hemostasis

A

stoppage of bleeding in damaged blood vessels

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74
Q

vascular spasm

A

triggered by chemicals released from local pain receptors that cause smooth muscle in walls of blood vessels to contract and constrict the vessels for a few minutes until other hemostatic mechanism begins

75
Q

platelet plug

A

damage to a blood vessel exposes collagen fibers in the wall of the vessel so circulating platelets can adhere to the fibers and form plug.

76
Q

platelets release chemicals causing

A

additional platelets to form a sticky mass that acti ates positive feedback loop to prevent blood loss from small vessels.

77
Q

coagulation

A

conversion of blood from a liquid to a sticky gel.

78
Q

clotting cascade

A

converts clotting factors into enzymes in a sequence to act as amplifying mechanism to ensure clotting

79
Q

extrinsic pathway

A

initiated by clotting factors released from a damaged blood vessel or tissues around it. tissue thromboplastin combines with a clotting factor in the presence of calcium ions to activate factor X.

80
Q

intrinsic pathway

A

initiated by substances in blood plasma that cause aggregated platelets to release PF3. Activate a cascade of reactions that activate factor X. slower than extrinsic

81
Q

common pathway

A

begins when factor X combines with other factors and calcium ions produce the enzyme prothrombinase. prothrombinase catalyzes conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. thrombin converts soluble fibrinogen to fibrin.

82
Q

normal blood clotting requires

A

vitamin K to synthesize several clotting factors in the liver

83
Q

clot retraction

A

within 30 mins of clot formation it tightens fibrin threads and pulls edges of damaged vessel together so permanent repair can occur.

84
Q

fibrinolysis

A

dissolves clot following repair of blood vessel

85
Q

plasminogen

A

(t-PA) converts plasminogen into plasmin. plasmin digests fibrin threads and breaks up blood clot. this can help people after strokes

86
Q

prostacyclin

A

produced by endothelial cells in undamaged vessels to prevent platelets from adhering to walls of vessel.

87
Q

anticoagulants

A

antithrombin deactivates thrombin before it can convert fibrinogen to fibrin. heparin interferes with the formation of prothrombinase. aspirin interferes with enzymes that catalyze the synthesis of prostaglandins. slows clot formation

88
Q

polycythemia

A

high RBC count and hematocrit. increases blood volume, viscosity, and pressure. Reduces circulation. primary is caused by cancer in red bone marrow, creates hematocrit of 80. secondary can be caused by dehydration or hypoxemia(reduction in O2)

89
Q

Anemia

A

low number of RBC or hemoglobin. iron-deficiency is most common.

90
Q

hemorrhagic anemia

A

excessive blood loss through injury, ulcers, or heavy menstruation.

91
Q

aplastic anemia

A

red bone marrow is destroyed and erythropoesis halts

92
Q

thalassemia

A

group of hereditary anemia’s among Mediterranean people that causes a deficiency or absence of hemoglobin

93
Q

Sickle-cell

A

hereditary defect in structure of hemoglobin molecules. RBC become sickled and sticky. reducton in circulation. carriers have resistance to malaria

94
Q

hemolytic disease of newborn

A

only occurs if an Rh- woman becomes pregnant with an Rh+ fetus.

95
Q

leukopenia

A

abnormally low WBC count. lead or mercury poisoning. symptom of radiation or anti-cancer drugs

96
Q

infectious mononucleosis

A

caused by Epstein-Barr virus invading B lymphocytes. transmitted by exchanging saliva. syptoms include sore throat and swollen lymph glands.

97
Q

leukemia

A

hemopoietic cancer that produces too many leukocytes

98
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

very low platelet count that results in a tendency to bleed from the capillaries.

99
Q

hemophilia

A

group of hereditary diseases that are caused by an X-linked recessive gene that produces random bleeding and reduced clotting. lack of factor VIII or IX

100
Q

thrombus

A

clot formation that grows large enough to block a small blood vessel. if it breaks loose and travels through bloodstream it becomes an embolus

101
Q

emboli

A

common in veins in arms and legs. they tend to break loose and travel to lungs where they can cause pulmonary embolism and death from hypoxia

102
Q

coarctation of the aorta

A

involves a segment that is too low

103
Q

septal defects

A

involve holes in the interatrial or interventricular septum

104
Q

tetralogy of Fallot

A

interventricular septal defect lets O2 poor blood travel from right ventricle to left and into systemic circulation. aorta emerges from both ventricles which reduces cardiopulmonary circulation. narrowing of pulmonary valve. right ventricle is enlarged.

105
Q

congenital defects

A

present at birth. most common birth defect in US. 30,000 infants each year

106
Q

rheumatic fever

A

caused by bacterial infection that triggers the immune system to produce antibodies that can damage bicuspid and aortic valves.

107
Q

cardiac tamponade

A

occurs if pericardial cavity fills with fluid and compresses the heart

108
Q

cardiomyopathy

A

any disease that results in deterioration of the heart wall or abnormal thickening of interventricular septum

109
Q

valvular insufficiency

A

any valve disorder that may lead to a heart murmur.

110
Q

aortic steinosis

A

narrowing of aortic valve.

111
Q

mitral valve prolapse

A

occurs when portion of mitral valve is pushed back into left atrium during ventricular systole.

112
Q

myocardial infarction

A

sudden death of heart muscle and its replacement with scar tissue because of ischemia. blood supply to an area of the heart wall is interrupted. plaque is deposited along wall of coronary artery. platelets aggregate and release chemicals that trigger vasospasm. common pathway is activated. coronary artery gets blocked

113
Q

angina pectoris

A

severe pain tightness or pressure in the chest that accompanies ischemia of the myocardium. pain is constricting or squeezing. anaerobic respiration produces lactic acid. nitroglycerin is used to treat it.

114
Q

congestive heart failure

A

failure of ventricles to pump blood effectively. blood backs up in the lungs causing pulmonary edema or blood backs up in the systemic vessels causing peripheral edema.

115
Q

how long does it take for permanent damage to the heart to occur? death of myocardium

A

2-4 hours/ within 6 hours

116
Q

arrhythmia

A

abnormal or irregular heartbeat due to faulty production of electrical impulses or poor conduction of impulses through heart.

117
Q

SA node(sinoatrial)

A

establishes rhythm of ones heart rate. 70-80 beats per minute

118
Q

ectopic focus

A

random generation of action potentials outside of SA node

119
Q

AV node

A

if SA becomes damaged it takes over and establishes a nodal rhythm at a slower rate. 40-50 beats per minute.

120
Q

heart block

A

failure of the cardiac conduction system to transmit signals along the right and left bundle branches which results in missed heart beats or reduced rate. total heart block damages AV node and reduces ventricular contraction to 20-4o BPM

121
Q

bradycardia

A

resting heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute

122
Q

atrioventricular block

A

prolonged or missing conduction of nerve signals between atria and ventricles

123
Q

atrial flutter

A

ectopic foci in the atria cause atrial rhythm to reach 240-360 BPM

124
Q

tachycardia

A

resting heart rate over 100 BPM

125
Q

premature ventricular contractions

A

occur when action potentials are initiated independent of the SA node and cause occasional abnormal heart beats

126
Q

Why does extrasystole occur

A

the impulse is generated more quickly from the SA node and heart has longer time for ventricular filling. can be triggered if the heart is irritated by certain drugs or lack of sleep EX: caffeine or nicotine

127
Q

ventricular fibrillation

A

life-threatening condition caused by nerve signals arriving at different parts of the myocardium at different times. blood isn’t pumped so it doesn’t flow to the myocardium and a heart attack occurs. strong and brief electric defibrillation depolarizes the entire heart so the SA node can resume its normal rhythm

128
Q

where is the heart located?

A

in the thoracic cavity beneath the sternum in the mediastinum between the lungs with its apex pointed down and toward left hip

129
Q

how big is the heart

A

size of a closed fist. 250 to 350 grams depending on body size.

130
Q

pericardium

A

sac that surrounds the heart. parietal forms sac and consist of tough fibrous layer of dense irregular connective tissue. visceral covers surface of heart and anchors heart in mediastinum and prevents overstretching.

131
Q

pericardial cavity

A

between visceral and parietal layers. filled with pericardial fluid. lubricates membrane and reduces friction

132
Q

pericarditis

A

inflamed pericardium due to infection. membranes may stick together and interfere with pumping ability

133
Q

outer epicardium

A

(visceral pericardium) is a thin serous membrane composed of mesothelium and areolar connective tissue

134
Q

middle myocardium

A

thick layer of cardiac muscle bound together with collagen and elastic fibers.

135
Q

inner endocardium

A

thin layer of endothelium and connective tissue. lines chambers of the heart, covers valves, and is continuous with inner ling of large blood vessels associated with heart

136
Q

two superior heart chambers(atria)

A

receive blood from veins. each has a small flap-like auricle that increases its capacity to hold blood. they have thin walls and are separated from each other by an interatrial septum

137
Q

two inferior heart chambers(ventricles)

A

pump blood into arteries. they have thick walls and are separated by a muscular interventricular septum.

138
Q

Heart valves

A

passively control the direction of blood flow through the heart. consist of 2-3 cusps.

139
Q

AV valves(atrioventricular)

A

are composed of dense connective tissue and they separate an atrium from its corresponding ventricle. anchored to walls of ventricle by chordae tendineae that attach to papillary muscles

140
Q

Right AV valve

A

is tricuspid valve (3 cusps)

141
Q

left Av valve

A

is bicuspid(mitral) 2 cusps

142
Q

Semilunar valves

A

found at base of each large artery that emerges from the heart. pulmonary semilunar valve opens into pulmonary trunk. aortic semilunar valve opens into the aorta. they consist of three cusps of dense connective tissue that are attached directly to wall of artery

143
Q

What is the pathway of blood

A

Blood enters the right atrium from the superior and inferior venae cavae and the coronary sinus.From right atrium, it goes through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle. From the right ventricle, it goes through the pulmonary semi lunar valves to the pulmonary trunk
From the pulmonary trunk it moves into the right and left pulmonary arteries to the lungs.From the lungs, oxygenated blood is returned to the heart through the
pulmonary veins.From the pulmonary veins, blood flows
into the left atrium.From the left atrium, blood flows through the bicuspid (mitral) valve into the left ventricle. From the left ventricle it goes through the aortic semilunar valves into the ascending aorta.Blood is distributed to the rest of the body(systemic circulation)from the aorta

144
Q

when left ventricle is full

A

bicuspid is forced shut

145
Q

cardiac muscle must receive what?

A

a constant supply of blood

146
Q

what does the ascending aorta give rise to?

A

left and right coronary arteries which branch to supply blood to myocardium

147
Q

how does blood return to the cardiopulmonary circulation?

A

20% empties into the right ventricle while remaining blood passes through cardiac veins to coronary sinus and into right atrium

148
Q

Purkinje fibers

A

large diameter myofibers conduct the nerve signal from the bundle branches into the ventricular myocardium

149
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

short, thick fibers with nucleus. sarcoplasmic reticulum contains big T-tubules to admit more calcium ions. joined by intercalated discs. desmosomes hold muscle fibers together. contains more myoglobin and mitochondria than skeletal muscle . uses aerobic respiration. autorhythmic and can depolarize automatically

150
Q

cardiac action potential spreads from…

A

SA node throughout both atria by gap junction.

151
Q

atrioventricular bundle(bundle of His)

A

tract of conducting fibers that is only electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles.

152
Q

pacemaker potential

A

slow inflow of calcium ions and minimal outflow of potassium ions. threshold of -40mV coltage regulated calcium ion channels open and ions rush in triggering action potential.

153
Q

how long does it take a nerve signal to reach the AV node

A

50 milliseconds where it is delayed for the ventricles to fill

154
Q

electrocardiogram (EKG,ECG)

A

graphic recording of the electrical changes that accompany a heartbeat

155
Q

P wave

A

small upward wave produced by depolarization of the atria following random initiation of action potential in SA node

156
Q

QRS complex

A

produced when the AV node fires and ventricles depolarize as the impulse travels through purkinje fibers.

157
Q

when does ventricular contraction occur

A

during the S-T segment when ventricular myocytes are in plateau phase

158
Q

T wave

A

produced when ventricles re-polarize before relaxing

159
Q

how much does each cardiac cycle produce

A

pumps out 70 mL of blood

160
Q

atrial systole

A

both atria contract

161
Q

ventricular diastole

A

both ventricles relax

162
Q

ventricular systole

A

both ventricles contract

163
Q

atrial diastole

A

both atria relax

164
Q

lubb sound of heartbeat

A

occurs when AV valves are closing as ventricular systole begins

165
Q

dupp sound of heartbeat

A

occurs when semilunar valves snap shut at beginning of ventricular diastole

166
Q

End diastolic volume (EDV)

A

is 130mL but only 30% is due to atrial systole

167
Q

isovolumetric contraction

A

occurs when ventricles start to contract but dont eject any blood because all 4 valves are closed

168
Q

ventricular ejection

A

occurs when ventricular pressure increases enough to open semilunar valve and force blood into aorta and pulmonary trunk

169
Q

end-systolic volume (ESV)

A

after ventricular ejection is about 60mL

170
Q

cardiac output

A

volume of blood ejected from each ventricle each minute and is calculated from stroke volume and heart rate. average cardiac output is about 5.25 liters per minute

171
Q

Stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected from each ventricle during ventricular systole.

172
Q

preload

A

degree cardiac muscle cells stretch before they contract . increasing preload increases volume of blood or speed with which blood gets to the heart

173
Q

Frank-Starling law of heat

A

greater EDV causes cardiac muscle fibers to stretch more and generate greater contractile force

174
Q

increasing contractility…

A

increases stroke volume

175
Q

positive inotropic agents

A

increase contractility by making more Ca available increases length of plateau and allows more contractile force to develop. EX: epinephrine, digitalis

176
Q

negative inotropic agents

A

reduce contractility by reducing amount of Ca being released EX: potassium, Ca channel blockers

177
Q

afterload

A

pressure needed to open semilunar valves. increasing it decreases stroke volume

178
Q

how is heart rate regulated

A

by the cintrol center in the medulla oblongata

179
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

modulates heart rate. impulses transmitted along vagus nerve to heart release acetylcholine which binds to cholinergic receptors to decrease HR

180
Q

proprioceptors

A

in muscles and joints. detect changes in physical activity

181
Q

baroreceptors

A

in aorta and carotid arteries monitor changes in BP

182
Q

chemoreceptors

A

in aorta, carotid arteries, and medulla oblongata. monitor changes in blood pH, CO2, and O2

183
Q

norepinephrine

A

allows threshold to be reached more quickly to allow pacemaker to fire rapidly and heart to beat faster. enhances Ca entry into contractile cells causing them to contract with more force

184
Q

vagal tone

A

limits number of beats SA node can generate