Final exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the principal nitrogenous wastes produced in the body?

A

Urea; uric acid; creatinine.

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2
Q
  1. Where are the renal pyramids located?
A

Within the renal medulla.

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3
Q
  1. Compare and contrast the two limbs of the nephron loop (of Henle).
A

The descending limb is a thin segment containing simple squamous epithelium, which makes it very permeable to water. The ascending limb is a thick segment containing simple cuboidal epithelium and symporters that are involved in active transport of salts.

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4
Q
  1. Trace the flow of blood from an afferent arteriole until it drains into a venule.
A

Afferent arteriole to glomerular capillaries to efferent arteriole to peritubular capillaries/vasa recta to venule.

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5
Q
  1. How is the net filtration pressure established?
A

Net filtration pressure (NFP) is determined by glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure (GBHP) minus the sum of capsular hydrostatic pressure (CHP) and blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP).

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6
Q
  1. How would your kidneys respond to an increase in systemic blood pressure?
A

Signals to the smooth muscle fibers in the afferent arteriole will result in constriction of the afferent arteriole. This will reduce blood flow into the glomerular capillaries, causing a reduction in glomerular filtration.

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7
Q
  1. List two (2) effects of angiotensin II on the urinary system.
A

Constricts both afferent and efferent arterioles; stimulates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone to promote sodium retention and water reabsorption; stimulates pituitary gland to release ADH to make collecting ducts more permeable to water reabsorption.

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8
Q
  1. In which portion(s) of the nephron would sodium ions draw water back into the blood?
A

Proximal convoluted tublue and distal convoluted tubule.

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9
Q
  1. In which portion(s) of the nephron would sodium ions, potassium ions, and chloride ions be actively transported into the interstitial space?
A

Ascending limb of the nephron loop (of Henle).

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10
Q
  1. How would your body respond to elevated blood pressure caused by an increase in blood volume?
A

Heart would release atrial natriuretic peptide. ANP increases GFR and suppresses release of aldosterone and ADH.

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11
Q
  1. What will happen to urine production if ADH secretion is blocked? EXPLAIN.
A

Urine production will increase. Without ADH, aquaporins cannot be inserted into the collecting ducts. They become less permeable to water reabsorption from the urine.

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12
Q
  1. What is the countercurrent multiplier?
A

A mechanism established by the nephron loop (of Henle) that creates an osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla that will help the collecting ducts reabsorb water from the urine, provided ADH is present.

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13
Q
  1. Why would a strict vegetarian tend to produce alkaline urine?
A

Vegetarians consume very little, if any, animal protein. Thus, they don’t have to process the amino acids that would contribute hydrogen ions to the blood. The kidneys wouldn’t have to excrete as many hydrogen ions in the urine, so urine is alkaline.

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14
Q
  1. Why does drinking beer make you have to urinate?
A

Beer contains ethyl alcohol, which is a diuretic. Alcohol inhibits the release of ADH. Therefore, the collecting ducts are less permeable to water reabsorption and more urine is produced.

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15
Q
  1. Explain the process of micturition.
A

As the urinary bladder fills with urine, stretch receptors in its wall send signals to the spinal cord and to a micturition center in the pons. Spinal cord sends parasympathetic motor signals back to the bladder to stimulate the detrusor muscle to contract and the internal urethral sphincter to relax. Signals are also sent to the cerebral cortex that would allow voluntary relaxation of the external urethral sphincter. The bladder can now be emptied.

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16
Q
  1. Why are females more prone to bladder infections than males?
A

Female anatomy. The female external urethral orifice is located close to the anus. E. coli bacteria can spread to the urethral opening and migrate up the short female urethra to the urinary bladder causing cystitis.

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17
Q
  1. Compare and contrast hypovolemia and dehydration.
A

Both are examples of fluid deficiency in the body. Hypovolemia occurs when both water and sodium are eliminated without adequate replacement and total body water is reduced. Dehydration occurs if the body eliminates more water than sodium, creating osmolarity imbalances.

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18
Q
  1. Why would hypernatremia lead to hypertension?
A

Too much sodium is going to promote the retention of water from tubular fluid into the blood. Increasing the blood volume will increase blood pressure.

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19
Q
  1. How would the respiratory system respond to lower blood pH?
A

Hyperventilation. By removing carbon dioxide more rapidly, hydrogen ions will bind with bicarbonate ions to replace the carbon dioxide and pH will rise to normal levels.

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20
Q
  1. How would the kidneys respond to metabolic acidosis?
A

Kidneys will remove excess hydrogen ions from the blood and excrete them in the urine.

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21
Q

The kidneys control blood composition and volume by

A

removing wastes and regulating water levels.

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22
Q

Kidneys regulate osmolarity of body fluids by

A

controlling solutes and water levels.

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23
Q

kidneys regulate blood pH

A

by excreting hydrogen ions

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24
Q

kidneys regulate BP by

A

activating renin-angiotensin pathway

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25
Q

kidneys control oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

A

by secreting erythropoietin

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26
Q

kidneys contribute to metabolism by

A

synthesizing glucose during periods of starvation

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27
Q

nitrogenous wastes

A

metabolic wastes that result from breakdown of proteins

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28
Q

how does ammonia form

A

amino groups removed from amino acids combine with hydrogen ions

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29
Q

ammonia gets converted into

A

less toxic urea by the liver which uses less water

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30
Q

the breakdown of nucleic acids forms

A

uric acid

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31
Q

creatinine results from

A

use of creatine phosphate during muscle metabolism

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32
Q

amount of nitrogenous waste in blood is

A

blood urea nitrogen (BUN) with levels at 10-20 mg/ml

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33
Q

elevated BUN

A

azotemia which indicates renal insufficiency

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34
Q

elevated BUN leads to

A

uremia, which causes diarrhea, vomiting, dyspnea, cardiac arrhythmia, convulsions, coma, death

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35
Q

sudoriferous glands in skin eliminate excess

A

heat and excrete water, with small amounts of urea

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36
Q

kidneys extend from what parts of the spine

A

T-12 to L-3

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37
Q

how much does an adult kidney weigh

A

about 150 grams. right is slightly lower than left

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38
Q

which surface of the kidney is convex

A

lateral surface

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39
Q

fatty adipose capsule cushions kidney

A

from trauma and holds it in place

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40
Q

fibrous renal fascia anchors

A

kidney to abdominal wall

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41
Q

renal parenchyma

A

glandular tissue that forms urine

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42
Q

minor calyx collects

A

urine. two or three together then transport it to major calyx

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43
Q

each kidney contains over 1 million

A

nephrons that carry out kidney functions

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44
Q

descending limb of henle

A

permeable to water

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45
Q

ascending limb of henle

A

involved in salt transport

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46
Q

collecting duct

A

transfers urine into papillary duct

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47
Q

glomerular filtrate

A

water and substances that are dissolved in blood plasma are forced out of glomerular capillaries and into glomerular capsule

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48
Q

Endothelial cells in glomerular capillaries join po

docytes to form

A

a filtration membrane that filters
water and small solutes, but not plasma proteins or
formed elements

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49
Q

glomerular endothelial cells have large fenestratio

A

which solutes pass through

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50
Q

pedicels

A

are foot-like extensions from podocytes that wrap around glomerular capillaries to form filtration slits that block negative ions

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51
Q

proteinuria(excess protein) and hematuria(RBCs in urine)

A

Kidney infection or kidney trauma can damage the fi
ltration membrane and allow plasma proteins
and/or formed elements to enter the filtrate

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52
Q

Glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure (GBHP) is the

A

main force responsible for moving water and
solutes out of blood plasma through the filtration
membrane.

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53
Q

Capsular hydrostatic pressure (CHP) opposes

A

additio
nal filtration because there is a high rate of
filtration and because fluid is already present in
the renal tubule.

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54
Q

Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) also opposes

filtration

A

because of the plasma proteins that

are present in blood plasma.

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55
Q

Net filtration pressure promotes filtration

A

OUT of the glomerular capillaries

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56
Q

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) refers to

A

the amount of filtrate that is formed per minute in all of the renal corpuscles of both kidneys.

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57
Q

GFR for males and females

A

125 mL/mn for men, produces 180L of filtrate and 105 for women produces 150L of filtrate

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58
Q

GFR is directly proportional to

A

NFP, so changes in GBHP, CHP, or BCOP will affect GFR

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59
Q

if the GFR is too high, filtrate will flow through

A

renal tubules too quickly for them to reabsorb water and solutes.urinary output rises and creates a risk for becoming dehydrated

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60
Q

If the GFR is too low, filtrate will flow through

A

renal tubules too slowly and wastes will get reabsorbed. creates a risk for developing azotemia

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61
Q

Renal autoregulation describes the ability of the kidneys to maintain constant

A

renal blood flow and glomerular filtration despite changes in arterial blood pressure

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62
Q

myogenic mechanism occurs when

A

when arterial blood pressure changes affects smooth muscle in walls of afferent arterioles.

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63
Q

when blood pressure rises

A

smooth muscle fibers contract and constrict afferent arteriole which decreases blood flow into glomerulus to reduce GFR

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64
Q

glomerular filtrate is only 3% what

A

filtrate

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65
Q

when blood pressure drops, smooth muscle fibers

A

relax and dilate afferent arteriole which increases blood flow into glomerulus to raise GFR

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66
Q

tubuloglomerular feedback involves

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus

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67
Q

when GFR is elevated, filtrate

A

flows through renal tubule too fast

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68
Q

when GFR falls, flow of blood

A

from afferent arteriole into glomerulus is increased

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69
Q

macula densa cells release vasoconstrictor that reduces

A

flow of blood from afferent arteriole into glomerulus to reduce GFR

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70
Q

autoregulation does not completely block changes in

A

GFR, allows for fluctuation within narrow limits

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71
Q

autoregulation cannot compensate for extreme variations in

A

BP, but it will prevent large changes in water and solute excretion

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72
Q

Neural regulation uses sympathetic nerve fibers to

send signals to

A

afferent arterioles that constrict them and decrease the flow of blood into the glomerular capillaries in order to reduce GFR and maintain systemic blood pressure

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73
Q

when is neural regulation most likely to occur

A

during extreme stress or emergency situations

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74
Q

The renin-angiotensin mechanism is activated by

A

a drop in BP

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75
Q

juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin which triggers

A

conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensinogen II

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76
Q

angiotensin II constricts both afferent and efferent arteriole to reduce

A

GFR

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77
Q

angiotensin II stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone

A

to promote water and sodium retention

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78
Q

angiotensin II stimulates pituitary gland to secrete ADH

A

to increase water absorption

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79
Q

Tubular reabsorption returns

A

filtered water and filtered solutes back to the bloodstream

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80
Q

interstitial fluid pressure helps

A

drive water back into peritubular capillaries

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81
Q

blood hydrostatic pressure is relatively low in the

A

peritubular capillaries which reduces resistance to reabsorption

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82
Q

plasma proteins are not filtered which raises

A

blood colloid osmotic pressure in peritubular capillaries

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83
Q

total plasma volume filters through the renal tubules every

A

22 minutes, draining all in 30

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84
Q

transcellular route allows substances to pass from

A

filtrate across epithelial cells of tubule into interstial fluid

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85
Q

paracellular route allows substances to

A

“leak” out of filtrate through “tight” junctions between epithelial cells.

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86
Q

Substances that get reabsorbed from the filtrate are

A

taken into the peritubular capillaries

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87
Q

blood retains its plasma proteins, so water gets

A

drawn into capillaries by osmosis

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88
Q

solvent drag occurs when

A

dissolved solutes enter capillaries by following water

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89
Q

primary active transport uses ATP energy to

A

pump substances into capillaries

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90
Q

secondary active transport uses energy

A

from ionic electrochemical gradient to pump substances into the capillaries

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91
Q

symporters can move two or more substances

A

across a membrane in same direction

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92
Q

antiporters can move two or more substances

A

across a membrane in opposite directions

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93
Q

most significant transport substance our of filtrate

A

glucose which has highest tmax

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94
Q
Transport maximum (T
max) describes the reabsorption limit of a
A

renal tubule due to the number of

transport proteins that are available.

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95
Q

each particular solute has its own Tmax when

A

all its transporters are occupied

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96
Q

tubular secretion removes substances from

A

the peritubular capillaries and adds them to the filtrate. puts wastes into urine

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97
Q

Most tubular reabsorption occurs in the

A

proximal convoluted tubule.

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98
Q

Sodium reabsorption creates

A

an osmotic gradient and an electrical gradient to drive the reabsorption of water and other solutes.

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99
Q

sodium ions are reabsorbed by

A

symporters and antiporters.

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100
Q

sodium is driving force behind reabsorption

A

of stuff in PCT

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101
Q

80% of all active transport is used to reabsorb

A

sodium ions which are most abundant cations

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102
Q

Chloride ions get reabsorbed because

A

they follow sodium ions due to electrical attraction

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103
Q

water reabsorption raises chloride concentration in

A

tubular fluid and creates a chloride gradient

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104
Q

Bicarbonate ions seem to be reabsorbed from

A

the filtrate, but they really aren’t

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105
Q

urine is usually free of bicarbonate ions

A

because they don’t cross membrane of PCT

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106
Q

bicarbonate ions combine with hydrogen ions present

in tubular fluid to form

A

carbonic acid which dissolves into water and CO2

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107
Q

carbon dioxide enters tubule cells and combines with

A

water to again form carbonic acid which dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions

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108
Q

bicarbonate ions are pumped into

A

blood

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109
Q

hydrogen ions are pumped back into

A

tubular fluid

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110
Q

Glucose is co-transported with

A

sodium ions because glucose isnt absorbed fast enough by symporters

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111
Q

Nitrogenous wastes are reabsorbed int

A

the capillaries.

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112
Q

40% to 60% of urea formed gets reabsorbe

A

along with water and all uric acid but no creatinine

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113
Q

obligatory water reabsorption

A

Water gets reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries/takes place in PCT

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114
Q

about 2/3 of this water is reabsorbed through

A

aquaporins also in PCT

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115
Q

reabsorption of sodium ions and chloride ions and other solutes makes tissue fluid

A

hypertonic to tubular fluid

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116
Q

osmolarity of tubular fluid remains

A

constant

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117
Q

Tubular secretion in the PCT extracts

A

urea, uric acid, ammonia, and other wastes from the blood and transfers them into the tubular fluid

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118
Q

bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions are secreted into

A

tubular fluid to regulate pH of body fluid

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119
Q

The primary function of the nephron loop (of Henle) is to create

A

a gradient for urine concentration and water conservation

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120
Q

tubular fluid in the nephron loop is quite different from glomerular filtrate and blood plasma

A

because glucose and other solutes have been reabsorbed

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121
Q

The descending limb of the nephron loop will reabsorb

A

about 15% of the water present in the glomerular filtrate

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122
Q

The thick ascending limb of the nephron loop has symporters that will reabsorb

A

one sodium ion, one potassium ion, and two chloride ions from the tubular fluid/ limb is impermeable to water

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123
Q

Principal cells in the collecting duct reabsorb

A

reabsorb sodium ions and secrete potassium ions.

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124
Q

Intercalated cells in the collecting duct reabsorb

A

potassium ions and bicarbonate ions, but secrete hydrogen ions

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125
Q

“proton pumps” are effective

A

at secreting hydrogen ions

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126
Q

Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex when

A

blood levels of sodium fall or when blood levels

of potassium rise, causing the DCT and the collecting duct to reabsorb more sodium ions and secrete more potassium ions.

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127
Q

aldosterone targets principal cells, causing them to

A

open so very little sodium leaves in urine

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128
Q

urine can be 1000 times more

A

acidic than blood thereby maintaining pH of body fluids

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129
Q

The increase in blood pressure that results from increased blood volume triggers the release of

A

of atrial natriuretic peptide from the heart

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130
Q

chloride ions and water follow sodium ions which

A

reduces urine volume, salt balance is maintained

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131
Q

atrial natriuretic peptide does what

A

increases glomerular filtration rate, suppresses release of ADH by pituitary gland, suppresses release of aldosterone by counteracting effects of angiotensin II, inhibits reabsorption of sodium ions

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132
Q

Antidiuretic hormone makes the collecting ducts more permeable to

A

water, thereby increasing the reabsorption of water into the tissue fluid and the bloodstream

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133
Q

ADH inserts aquaporins into

A

membranes of principal cells in collecting ducts

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134
Q

Despite daily fluctuations in fluid intake, total fluid volume in one’s body remains

A

stable

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135
Q

the osmolarity of the tubular fluid increases as it flows

A

down the descending limb of nephron loop, then decreases as it flows up the ascending limb of the nephron loop, and decreases even more as it flows through the DCT and the collecting duct

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136
Q

Urine can be as much as four times more dilute than

A

blood plasma or glomerular filtrate

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137
Q

principal cells in collecting ducts are impermeable to water when

A

ADH levels are low

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138
Q

When water intake is low or when water loss is high the kidneys produce

A

small volumes of highly concentrated urine because ADH has a strong influence on the collecting ducts

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139
Q

osmolarity of interstitial fluid increases four-fold from

A

renal cortex to renal medulla

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140
Q

medullary portion of collecting duct is more permeable to

A

water than to NaCl

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141
Q

Concentrated urine is formed because the

A

nephron loop creates a countercurrent multiplier to

maintain an osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid of the renal medulla.

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142
Q

A countercurrent exchange system develops from the

arrangement of

A

juxtamedullary nephrons and the vasa recta

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143
Q

as blood flows into medulla, water diffuses out of

the

A

vasa recta and sodium and chloride ions diffuse into vasa recta

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144
Q

as blood flows out of the medulla, sodium ions and

chloride ions diffuse out of

A

vasa recta, and water diffuses into vasa recta

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145
Q

net result is reabsorption of

A

water from tubular fluid. blood at end of vasa recta is greater than at beginning

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146
Q

The overall effect is that ADH makes the collecting

ducts more permeable to

A

water by inserting aquaporins into the membranes of the principal cells, and the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla “pulls” water out of the collecting ducts to form concentrated urine.

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147
Q

Urinalysis

A

examines the physical, chemical, and microscopic properties of urine

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148
Q

yellow color of urine is due to

A

urochrome pigment produced during breakdown of hemoglobin

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149
Q

Urine is typically clear, but it will turn cloudy as a consequence of

A

bacterial growth or from pus formation caused by a urinary tract infection

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150
Q

bacteria change urea to

A

ammonia

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151
Q

what do people form after eating asparagus

A

methylmercaptan

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152
Q

what do diabetics produce in their urine

A

ketone bodies

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153
Q

what do people produce in their urine that smells like a mouse cage

A

phenylketonuria

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154
Q

The pH of urine

A

ranges from 4.5 to 8.2, but it is usually slightly acidic

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155
Q

increase acidity of urine

A

high protein diets

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156
Q

decrease acidity of urine

A

vegetarian diets

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157
Q

Urine has a higher specific gravity than

A

water, depending on its solute concentration

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158
Q

Normal urine output is between

A

1 and 2 liters per day.

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159
Q

polyuria

A

describes excessive production of urine

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160
Q

oligouria

A

describes scanty output of urine

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161
Q

anuria

A

refers to an output of less than 100 mL per day

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162
Q

Diabetes is one of several metabolic disorders characterized by

A

polyuria

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163
Q

excess glucose in tubular fluid blocks reabsorption

of

A

water and leads to dehydration

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164
Q

diabetes mellitus and gestational diabetes result

from

A

hyperglycemia and can be diagnosed from glycosuria

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165
Q

hyposecretion of ADH prevents the collecting ducts

from reabsorbing water, causing

A

diabetes insipidus to develop

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166
Q

Diuretics are substances that increase

A

urine volume by increasing glomerular filtration and/or reducing tubular reabsorption

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167
Q

caffeine dilates

A

afferent arterioles which increases GFR

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168
Q

alcohol inhibits

A

ADH secretion reduces tubular reabsorption of water

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169
Q

Lasix inhibits

A

sodium reabsorption from nephron loop reduces reabsorption of water from collecting ducts

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170
Q

Renal clearance measures the volume of

A

blood that is cleared of a particular substance and it is expressed in mL/min.

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171
Q

solute clearance depends on

A

glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, secretion

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172
Q

a blood sample and a urine sample are collected, and concentration of urea in each is measured and compared to

A

rate of urine output

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173
Q

renal clearance is important during drug therapy cause

A

it allows drug dosage to be set to maintain therapeutic levels of that drug

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174
Q

The glomerular filtration rate can be assessed by measuring the rate of

A

urine output and the concentration of a solute that completely remains in the tubular fluid and gets cleared in the urine

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175
Q

inulin is completely filtered by

A

glomerulus and added to urine. renal clearance is equal to GFR

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176
Q

clearance value less than that of inulin means

A

substance has been reabsorbed

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177
Q

clearance value greater than that of inulin means

A

substance has been secreted into tubular fluid

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178
Q

ureter

A

is 25 cm long and transports urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder

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179
Q

arrangement of ureters at back of bladder prevents

A

backflow of urine as bladder fills

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180
Q

adventitia is

A

connective tissue that anchors ureters to surrounding tissues

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181
Q

muscularis is

A

composed of two layers of smooth muscle

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182
Q

contractions initiate

A

peristalsis to move urine through ureter toward bladder

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183
Q

mucosa has

A

transitional epithelium and underlying lamina propria

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184
Q

urinary bladder

A

hollow muscular organ on the floor of the pelvic cavity

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185
Q

trigone is a small triangular area in

A

the floor of the bladder

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186
Q

fibrous adventitia

A

continuous with adventitia of ureters

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187
Q

detrusor muscle

A

consists of three layers of smooth muscle that form internal urethral sphincter

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188
Q

mucosa of urinary bladder has

A

transitional epithelium. when bladder is relaxed, mucosa exhibits conspicuous rugae

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189
Q

The bladder is highly distensible and typically holds

A

500 mL of urine, but it can hold up to 800 mL

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190
Q

female urethra is

A

3-4 cm

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191
Q

male urethra

A

15-20 cm

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192
Q

membranous urethra passes through

A

urogenital diaphragm

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193
Q

Micturition (urination; voiding) empties

A

urinary bladder and is controlled by a spinal micturition reflex

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194
Q

for micturition to occur, detrusor muscle must

A

contract, internal urethral sphincter must relax,external urethral sphincter must open

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195
Q

stretch receptors in the wall of the urinary bladder

send nerve impulses to the sacral portion of the spinal cord when the bladder reaches

A

200-400 mL

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196
Q

Parasympathetic motor impulses from the spinal cord

stimulate

A

the detrusor muscle to contract and the internal urethral sphincter to relax

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197
Q

Urinary retention

A

prevents the urinary bladder from emptying its contents/ often a consequence of general anesthesia

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198
Q

A urinary tract infection (UTI)

A

describes an infection in any part of the urinary system, or the presence of bacteria that may produce blood or pus in the urine

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199
Q

symptoms of UTI

A

painful and/or burning urination,
urgent and/or frequent urination, low-back
pain, bed-wetting/ may also be asymptomat

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200
Q

Urethritis

A

is an inflammation of the urethra that can cause painful urination

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201
Q

Cystitis

A

is an inflammation of the urinary bladder, usually in the trigone, which is often accompanied by hematuria.

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202
Q

females are more prone to cystitis because

A

E. coli bacteria from the anus can easily spread up
short urethra into bladder/ if untreated, bacteria may spread to renal pelvis, renal cortex, and nephrons and cause pyelonephritis

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203
Q

Glomerulonephritis

A

is an inflammation of the glomeruli that makes them swollen and more permeable, which leads to hematuria and proteinuria and even renal failure/ may be autoimmune

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204
Q

polycystic kidney disease

A

renal tubules riddled with cysts can cause renal failure

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205
Q

Renal calculi

A

when excess calcium intake or insufficient water intake cause calcium or phosphates or uric acid to crystallize into insoluble stones

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206
Q

common causes of renal calculi

A

oxalic acid from beets, colas, leafy green vegetables, and tea is a common cause

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207
Q

stones from renal calculi may block

A

ureters and create excruciating pain as they pass through ureter

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208
Q

treatment for kidney stones may involve

A

stone-dissolving drugs or surgery or ultrasound lithotripsy

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209
Q

Chronic renal disease

A

if one’s GFR is below 60 mL/min for at least 3 months.

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210
Q

what happens during chronic renal disease

A

production of glomerular filtrate declines, concentration of nitrogenous wastes increases, and
the pH of the blood becomes more acidic

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211
Q

leading cause of chronic renal disease

A

diabetes, followed by hypertension

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212
Q

Renal failure

A

occurs if one’s GFR falls below 15 mL/min and must be treated with dialysis or a kidney transplant.

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213
Q

Approximately 55 to 60% of our total body weight is

due to fluids. what is male and females %

A

male-60% female-50%

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214
Q

About two-thirds of the water in the body is

A

intracellular fluid (ICF).

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215
Q

The remaining one-third of the water in the body is

A

extracellular fluid (ECF), which is distributed among interstitial fluid, blood plasma, lymph, and trans-cellular fluid.

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216
Q

fluid gain is primarily due to

A

preformed water from ingested foods/liquids and metabolic wastes from chemical reactions in cells

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217
Q

fluid loss comes from

A

obligatory water loss

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218
Q

insensible water loss comes from

A

expired breath, perspiration, cutaneous transpiration, and defecation

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219
Q

sensible water loss

A

comes from urine

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220
Q

Water intake is controlled by a

A

hypothalamic “thirst center” that responds to dehydration.

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221
Q

falling blood pressure will trigger release of

A

angiotensin II

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222
Q

rising blood osmolarity will trigger release of

A

ADH

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223
Q

increasing osmolarity of ECF will be detected by

A

osmoreceptors

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224
Q

Water output is controlled by

A

variations in urine volume usually linked to sodium reabsorption

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225
Q

kidneys begin to eliminate water within

A

30 minutes of ingestion

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226
Q

Fluid deficiency occurs when

A

water output exceeds water input over a long period of time.

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227
Q

Hypovolemia

A

when the body eliminates water and sodium without adequately replacing them

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228
Q

hypovolemia can be caused by

A

hemorrhage, severe burns, chronic vomiting, or chronic diarrhea, cold weather
• blood vessels constrict in order to conserve heat
• cold, dry air increases water loss during respiration

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229
Q

Dehydration occurs when

A

the body eliminates more water than sodium/caused by diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, profuse sweating, or overuse of diuretics

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230
Q

Water intoxication occurs if the body replaces

A

water without replacing sodium/ECF becomes hypotonic and water moves into tissue cells causes them to swell

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231
Q

Fluid sequestration(edema) occurs if

A

excess fluid accumulates in interstitial space

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232
Q

Electrolytes are physiologically important in order

for the body to maintain

A

homeostasis

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233
Q

Electrolytes help to

A

chemically reactive participants in metabolic pathways,
help to determine electrical potential across cell
membranes, control osmolarity of body fluids and water content and distribution

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234
Q

Blood plasma is the usual reference point for measuring

A

electrolyte concentration

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235
Q

Sodium is the only electrolyte to exert significant

A

osmotic pressure and it is essential for transmitting

action potentials, for buffering the blood, and for creating the osmotic pressure

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236
Q

how many grams of sodium per day does an adult need

A

.5 grams but typically ingest 3-7

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237
Q

estrogens can mimic effect of

A

aldosterone causing females to retain sodium ions and water during menstrual cycle and pregnancy

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238
Q

hyponatremia

A

excessive water intake or decrease in sodium intake. consequences include muscle weakness, dizziness, headache, hypotension, tachycardia

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239
Q

hypernatremia

A

due to dehydration or excessive sodium intake/consequences include intense thirst, hypertension, edema, convulsions

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240
Q

Potassium ions are the most abundant

A

intracellular cations and potassium balance is maintained by the kidneys

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241
Q

Sodium ions are the most abundant

A

extracellular cations

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242
Q

Potassium helps establish

A

resting membrane potentials and action potentials, intracellular osmolarity and cell volume

243
Q

aldosterone is principal regulator of

A

potassium levels/ when aldosterone stimulates reabsorption of sodium ions, it promotes secretion of
potassium ions

244
Q

hypokalemia

A

can be caused by heavy sweating, chronic vomiting, chronic diarrhea, or laxative abuse/ consequences include muscle fatigue, loss of muscle tone, mental confusion, irregular heart activity

245
Q

hyperkalemia can be caused by

A

injuries that crush tissues, renal failure, aldosterone deficiency/ consequences include irritability, nausea, vomiting muscle weakness; death can occur if heart rate gets increased too much

246
Q

Calcium is the most abundant

A

mineral in the body, but calcium ion concentration is kept low in cells.

247
Q

Calcium is stored in

A

bone tissue/ parathyroid hormone and calcitriol regulate blood levels of calcium

248
Q

hypocalcemia

A

can be caused by increased calcium loss, vitamin D deficiency, thyroid and/or parathyroid gland problems/ consequences include numbness and tingling, muscle
cramps, convulsions, bone fractures

249
Q

hypercalcemia

A

caused by thyroid gland problems, parathyroid gland problems, over use of vitamin D/ consequences include lethargy, muscle weakness, cardiac arrhythmia, and mental disorientation

250
Q

Chloride ions are the major

A

extracellular anions/ involved in regulating osmolarity between fluid compartments, forming stomach acid, loading and unloading carbon dioxide

251
Q

Phosphate ions are highly concentrated in

A

intracellular fluid./ participate in metabolic pathways and act as buffers that help to maintain pH of body fluids

252
Q

parathyroid hormone regulates what ion levels

253
Q

Hydrogen ion concentration must be controlled to maintain

A

blood pH between 7.35 and 7.45,

254
Q

Buffers are salts of weak acids or salts of weak bases that resist changes in

A

pH when strong acids or strong bases, respectively, are added to the blood

255
Q

physiological buffers stabilize

A

pH by controlling output of acids or bases or carbon dioxide

256
Q

chemical buffers bind

A

hydrogen ions and remove them from solution when concentration rise can restore pH within seconds but amount that can be buffered depends on concentration and pH of environment

257
Q

urinary system buffers greatest amount of

A

acid or base but requires several hours or days to exert max efforts

258
Q

The bicarbonate buffer system is a solution of

A

carbonic acid and bicarbonate ions that serves as the principal buffer in the extracellular fluid.

259
Q

bicarbonate buffer system equation

A

CO2+ H2O H2CO3 HCO3-1+ H+1 reaction can go in either direction

260
Q

when carbonic acid dissociates, it releases

A

hydrogen ions to lower pH

261
Q

bicarbonate ions bind hydrogen ions and remove them

to

262
Q

lungs and kidneys constantly remove carbon dioxide

to prevent

A

equilibrium

263
Q

The phosphate buffer system is a solution of

A

dihydrogen phosphate ion and monohydrogen
phosphate ion that can release hydrogen ions in order to lower pH, or bind hydrogen ions in order to raise pH in the urine and/or intracellular fluid

264
Q

what is a stronger buffering system than bicarbonate buffer system

A

phosphate buffer system

265
Q

phosphate buffers are very effective in

A

urine and ICF where phosphate ions are high

266
Q

The protein buffer system has the most abundant buffers in the

A

ECF and blood plasma, using hemoglobin to accomplish its goals

267
Q

amino acid side groups can release

A

hydrogen ions to lower pH

268
Q

The equation for the bicarbonate buffer system indicates the

A

impact that CO2 has on pH

269
Q

respiratory system can neutralize two to three times more

A

acid than chemical buffers/pH can be restored within minutes

270
Q

hypercapnia stimulates

A

deep and rapid breathing to eliminate more carbon dioxide and shift the reaction to the left

271
Q

Kidneys neutralize more acid or base than the respiratory system or chemical buffers, because

A

the renal tubules secrete hydrogen ions into the tubular fluid rather than binding hydrogen ions to other
chemicals

272
Q

kidneys neutralize as long as

A

there is a hydrogen ion gradient between tubule cells and tubular fluid and pH is higher than 4.5

273
Q

for kidneys to reabsorb bicarbonate ions, they must secrete

A

hydrogen ion

274
Q

hydrogen ion secretion occurs in

A

PCT and in intercalated cells of collecting ducts

275
Q

Acidosis occurs when blood pH falls below

276
Q

what does acidosis do

A

can suppress central nervous system and cause confusion, disorientation or coma

277
Q

respiratory acidosis results from inability of respiratory system to

A

eliminate carbon dioxide

278
Q

metabolic acidosis results from

A

excessive production of hydrogen ions, lactic acid fermentation, ketone bodies produced by alcoholism or diabetes mellitus, overuse of aspirin or laxative

279
Q

alkalosis occurs when blood pH rises above

280
Q

alkalosis can

A

hyperexcite neuromuscular system, shifts membrane potential closer to threshold / causes muscular spasms or cunvulsions

281
Q

respiratory alkalosis results from

A

hyperventilation

282
Q

metabolic alkalosis results from

A

rapid elimination of hydrogen ions during vomiting

283
Q

increase in hydrogen ions in nerve cells requires

removal of

A

potassium ions so RMP becomes hyper polarized

284
Q

The genetic sex of an individual is determined at the time of fertilization by

A

by the sex chromosome that is carried by the sperm

285
Q

there is no morphological indication of sex until

A

week six or seven of embryonic development

286
Q

embryo can be described as

A

sexually bipotential or potentially bisexual

287
Q

The gonads develop from

A

embryonic tissue called mesoderm

288
Q

each gonad is enclosed by

A

germinal epithelium

289
Q

approximately 43 days after fertilization what begins

A

Y chromosome begins to affect indifferent gonads

290
Q

carries a sex-determining gene

A

Y-chromosome

291
Q

genital ducts

A

2 pairs are present during the indifferent stage

292
Q

mesonephros consists of

A

of mesonephric tubules and mesonephric ducts

293
Q

causes mesonephros to differentiate into male reproductive tract

A

testosterone

294
Q

paramesonephros consists of

A

a pair of Muellerian ducts

295
Q

causes paamesonephros to degenerate

A

presence of Muellerian-inhibiting factor

296
Q

The scrotum hangs from

A

the lower abdomen behind the base of the penis.

297
Q

Sex determining region produces

A

testis-determining factor (TDF) which directs development of different gonads into testes

298
Q

what tissues does the scrotum consist of

A

consists of loose skin, superficial fascia, and muscle tissue

299
Q

dartos is a

A

sheath of smooth muscle fibers located beneath the skin

300
Q

cremaster muscles

A

are thin strands of skeletal muscle that suspend the testes

301
Q

what do the walls of the scrotum contain

A

numerous sweat glands

302
Q

A medial septum divides the scrotum into

A

two compartments, each containing one testis./location of septum can be seen externally as median raphe

303
Q

The location of the scrotum outside of the body cavity permits

A

thermoregulation of the testes to

enhance the production and survival of sperm

304
Q

dartos and cremaster muscles will contract in response to

A

cold temps, draws closer to body

305
Q

pampiniform plexus

A

blood vessels that supply testes with blood

306
Q

scrotal temp ideal for sperm

A

35 degrees Celsius

307
Q

male gonads

308
Q

cytogenic

A

testes are because they produce sperm

309
Q

function as endocrine glands because they produce testosterone

310
Q

There are two oval testes and each is about how long

A

4 cm long and 15 grams

311
Q

tunica vaginalis lines

312
Q

tunica albuginea divides its testis into

A

200-300 lobules

313
Q

Each lobule contains several highly coiled

A

seminiferous tubules

314
Q

how long is each seminiferous tubule

315
Q

Sertoli cells

A

in the walls of seminiferous tubules/they protect and nourish developing sperm cell, destroy damaged or defective sperm cells,

316
Q

interstitial cells (of Leydig)

A

fill the spaces between the seminiferous tubules/produce and secrete testosterone

317
Q

primary sex cords

A

Finger-like strands of the germinal epithelium that grow into an indifferent gonad and carry primordial germ cells inward

318
Q

form a blood-testis barrier

A

sertoli cells/ to prevent sperm from entering blood stream where their membrane antigens could trigger immune response.

319
Q

in a male the medulla expands and forms

A

bulk of testis, while cortex condenses and forms tunica albuginea

320
Q

in a male the primary sex cords

A

lose contact with germinal epithelium as it disappears then become hollow and start to form seminiferous tubules

321
Q

in a male cells that remain in walls of seminiferous tubules become

A

Sertoli cells

322
Q

in a male primordial germ cells within primary sex cords become

A

spermatogonia

323
Q

The testes will descend through an opening in the

A

inguinal canal into the scrotum sometime during the seventh month of fetal development.

324
Q

cryptorchidism

A

failure of testes to descend/ can cause sterility

325
Q

risk for testicular cancer is how many times greater if boys have cryptorchidism

A

30 to 50 times

326
Q

in about 80% of cases of cryptorchidism testes will

A

descend within a year

327
Q

Immature sperm will move from the seminiferous tubules into the

A

rete testis, which is a network of

about 100 short tubes that drain the seminiferous tubules into a collection of short efferent ductules

328
Q

The efferent ductules converge to form a highly coiled, comma-shaped

A

epididymis along the superior/dorsal margin of the testis

329
Q

immature sperm cells mature and become motile over

a period of

A

10-14 days as they pass through epididymis

330
Q

how long can sperm stay in epididymis

A

a month before they disintegrate and get reabsorbed

331
Q

Mature sperm move from the epididymis into the

A

ductus (vas) deferens

332
Q

vas deferens joins together with what to form the spermatic cord

A

blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, nerves, and cremaster

muscle

333
Q

behind urinary bladder, distal end of the vas defer

ens expands and forms

A

ampulla for temporary sperm storage

334
Q

The ampulla of the ductus (vas) deferens merges with a

A

a duct from the seminal vesicle to form an

ejaculatory duct behind the urinary bladder

335
Q

ejaculatory duct transports

A

sperm into urethra

336
Q

male urethra is

A

15 to 20 cm long and serves as a common passage for sperm and urine

337
Q

prostatic urethra extends from

A

urinary bladder through prostate gland

338
Q

membranous urethra passes through

A

urogenital diaphragm

339
Q

spongy (penile) urethra passes through

A

spongy tissue of penis

340
Q

When the interstitial cells (of Leydig) start to produce testosterone, the

A

mesonephric tubules and the mesonephric ducts begin to differentiate

341
Q

mesonephric tubules merge with primary sex cords to

form

A

efferent ductules

342
Q

ductus (vas) deferens forms from middle portion of

A

mesonephric duct

343
Q

distal portion of mesonephric duct expands laterally to form

A

seminal vesicle

344
Q

male accessory glands

A

produce and secrete the liquid

portion of semen

345
Q

semen is a mixture of

A

sperm, nutrient-rich mucus, proteins, and enzymes

346
Q

Seminal vesicles are

A

pouch-like sacs at base of the bladder and they contribute about 60% of the volume of semen.

347
Q

energy source for sperm

A

fructose,citric acid

348
Q

proseminogelin

A

protein that gets converted into seminogelin causes semen to form clot in vagina

349
Q

prostate gland

A

doughnut-shaped gland that surrounds the urethra as it exits the bladder and it also contributes to the volume of semen

350
Q

prostaglandins may cause mucus in the cervical canal to become

A

thinner, making it easier for sperm to travel from vagina to uterus/ may stimulate smooth muscle contractions

351
Q

acid phosphatase

A

helps semen form clot in vagina

352
Q

bicarbonate buffers neutralize natural acidity in

353
Q

fibrinolysin

A

decoagulates a semen clot after vaginal acidity has been neutralized

354
Q

serine protease

A

enzyme that breaks down proteins

355
Q

bulbourethral (Cowper’s) glands

A

mall spherical structures located beneath the prostate

gland on either side of the membranous urethra

356
Q

secrete alkaline substances to neutralize acidic re

residue left by urine in urethra and mucus to lubricate penis

A

bulbourethral glands

357
Q

male copulatory organ.

358
Q

The shaft of the penis contain

A

three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue, each of which is surrounded by fibrous tissue

359
Q

two corpora cavernosa penis are

A

dorsolateral masses and each contains an artery that dilates to produce erection

360
Q

corpus spongiosum penis is a

A

ventral mass that contains spongy urethra

361
Q

glans penis

A

richly innervated with sensory nerve endings and covered with a loose skin fold

362
Q

small glands beneath the foreskin secrete

A

waxy smegma

363
Q

genital tubercle appears early during

A

embryonic development

364
Q

labioscrotal swellings begin to develop

A

lateral to urethral folds

365
Q

glans develops at the end of the

A

genital tubercle

366
Q

lateral buttresses form on either side of

367
Q

Testosterone triggers the

A

genital tubercle to differentiate by the 10th week following fertilization and the external genitalia start to appear distinctly male.

368
Q

urethral folds fuse on the

A

ventral surface of the phallus to form a hollow tube that will eventually become the penile urethra.

369
Q

lateral buttresses fold over to form most of the

A

shaft of the penis, and the glans penis expands from the glans at the end of the phallus

370
Q

labioscrotal swellings will fuse and form the

371
Q

urethral groove elongates in both directions; one end breaks through the glans to form the

A

external urethral orifice and the opposite end grows inward to form the bladder.

372
Q

one pair of outgrowths off urethral groove fuse to

become

A

prostate gland

373
Q

male puberty typically begins at age

374
Q

adrenal glands produce and release

A

low levels of testosterone before puberty begins.

creates feedback inhibition

375
Q

With the onset of puberty, inhibition stops so

A

hypothalamus can release GnRH

376
Q

GnRH triggers

A

anterior lobe of pituitary gland to produce and release two gonadotropins

377
Q

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) initiates

A

sperm production

378
Q

Interstitial cell stimulating hormone (ICSH) stimulates the

A

interstitial cells (of Leydig) to synthesize and release testosterone

379
Q

Testosterone produces multiple effects on a boy’s body.including

A

stimulates spermatogenesis/triggers development of secondary sex characteristics/stimulates growth of testes, scrotum and penis/ causes production of pubic hair, axillary hair, and facial hair/spontaneous erections occur and nocturnal emissions produce “wet dreams”/vocal cords become longer and thicker/ sebaceous glands secrete more sebum/stimulates male sex drive

380
Q

Secretion of gonadotropins is controlled by a

A

hypothalamic “gonadostat” that monitors testosterone levels in the blood.

381
Q

low levels of testosterone cause hypothalamus to release

382
Q

testes also produce and release the

A

hormone inhibin, which will inhibit the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland from releasing FSH

383
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

is the process by which the testes produce haploid sperm

384
Q

Diploid (2N) spermatogonia lining the inner walls of the seminiferous tubules divide by

A

mitosis/ some resulting cells remain as spermatogonia

some resulting cells become primary spermatocytes

385
Q

During the reduction division of meiosis, each primary spermatocyte

A

enlarges and divides to produce a pair of haploid (N) secondary spermatocytes.

386
Q

During the equatorial division of meiosis, each secondary spermatocyte divides to

A

produce a pair of haploid (N) spermatids./four haploid spermatids will be produced from each primary spermatocyte

387
Q

Spermiogenesis

A

a maturation process that converts spermatids into spermatozoa

388
Q

spermatozoa

A

remain attached to Sertoli cells until they mature/mature at a rate of more than several hundred million per day

389
Q

head of a sperm contains

A

nucleus and acrosome/ acrosome contains enzyme

390
Q

Spermatogenesis takes an average of ____days

A

74 days and starts when a male undergoes puberty and continues until he reaches an age when testosterone
levels become ineffective

391
Q

The human sexual response cycle can be divided into

A

four or five arbitrary phases

392
Q

Sexual arousal is controlled by

A

by limbic system in the cerebrum, which is linked to centers throughout the brain where various stimuli can “turn on” the “sex center” to initiate the male sex drive.

393
Q

during male arousal signals from spinal cord release

A

nitric oxide into the blood/increased blood flow fills corpora cavernosa with blood/muscle tension increases throughout body/dartos and cremaster muscles contract and pull testes closer to body/external urethral orifice dilates

394
Q

plateau phase of male sexual arousal

A

sex flush appears as skin becomes redder/ testes are drawn closer to body and may increase in
size/parasympathetic division stimulates bulbourethral glands to release fluids to lubricate glans penis/emission occurs when sperm move through ejaculatory
ducts into urethra/ seminal vesicles and prostate gland secrete fluids urethral sphincters contract

395
Q

male ejaculation

A

muscles in walls of male ducts contract in response to signals from sympathetic division/ rhythmic contractions of skeletal muscles at base of penis cause expulsion of semen/ ejaculation releases several hundred million sperm

396
Q

refractory period occurs when

A

penis remains semi-erect, but cannot return to full erection/ refractory period becomes longer as a male grows older/blood leaves corpora cavernosa and penis returns to its flaccid state

397
Q

Testicular cancer

A

most common cancer in males between the ages of 15 and 34

398
Q

most testicular cancers are due to

A

abnormal sperm-producing cells

399
Q

early symptoms of testicular cancer and treatments

A

early sign may be a lump in testis accompanied by discomfort or pain
early stages may be asymptomatic
treatment involves orchiectomy followed by chemotherapy

400
Q

inguinal hernia

A

can occur when a loop of the intestine descends into the scrotum before the inguinal canal closes

401
Q

Prostatitis

A

is an inflammation of the prostate gland caused by bacterial infection

402
Q

acute prostatitis tends to be common among

A

sexually active men

403
Q

symptoms and treatment of prostatitis

A

prostate gland becomes swollen and tender/ antibiotics and increased fluid intake are effective treatment

404
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

A

is a non-cancerous and non-inflammatory enlargement of the prostate gland that occurs in one of every three males over age 60/probably due to changing hormone levels

405
Q

BPH may lead to

A

compression of the urethra/ symptoms include painful or difficult urination, bed-wetting, and incomplete emptying

406
Q

transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

A

surgically removes pieces of prostate gland/

drugs, microwaves, or radio frequency incineration can also be used to treat BP

407
Q

Prostate cancer

A

second leading cause of cancer death among males over age 50./elevated blood levels of acid phosphatase or prostate-specific antigen indicate a tumor has
spread from prostate gland
• tumors tend to form near periphery of prostate gland

408
Q

Erectile dysfunction (impotence

A

is the inability to attain and maintain an erection long enough to engage in satisfactory sexual intercourse.
<may be caused by aging, cardiovascular disease, neurological disorders, medications, or psychological factors/Viagra, Cialis, and Levitra can supplement existinglevels of NO within one hour

409
Q

The female gonads develop from

A

mesoderm in the embryo./absence of Y chromosome and its sex-determining gene allows undifferentiated gonads to develop into ovaries

410
Q

The female reproductive ducts develop from

A

the paramesonephros in the embryo

411
Q

absence of testosterone prevents

A

mesonephros from developing/ and lateral buttresses from enlarging/ prevents labioscrotal swellings from fusing together

412
Q

absence of Muellerian-inhibiting factor allows

A

Muellerian ducts to develop

413
Q

The female external genitalia develop from

A

the genital tubercle

414
Q

female gonads.

415
Q

ovaries

A

cytogenic because they produce new oocytes/ovaries function as endocrine glands to produce estrogens and progesterone

416
Q

estrogen refers to

A

a collection of hormones

417
Q

ovary is roughly the size and shape of an

A

almond and it is suspended in the pelvic cavity by a collection of ligaments

418
Q

broad ligament

A

attaches ovary to back of uterus

419
Q

ovarian ligament

A

attaches medial surface to uterus

420
Q

suspensory ligament

A

attaches lateral surface to wall of pelvic cavity

421
Q

germinal epithelium of the ovary

A

covers its surface/tunica albuginea is inside

422
Q

stroma is at center of ovary

A

cortex is involved in egg development/medulla contains ovarian blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerve

423
Q

During embryonic development, primordial germ cells

migrate to a

A

developing ovary, which causes the primary sex cords to grow into the germinal epithelium

424
Q

during embryonic development

A

cortex expands, medulla contracts, primary sex cords degenerate

425
Q

ovary is homologous to a

426
Q

cells in medulla that surround primordial germ cell

become

A

follicle cells

427
Q

follicle cells are homologous to

A

interstial cells of leydig

428
Q

primordial germ cells become

A

ogonia- which are homologous to spermatagonia

429
Q

uterine (Fallopian) tubes

A

contain smooth muscle and they are lined with cilia and they extend laterally from an ovary toward the uterus.

430
Q

The distal, funnel-shaped end of a Fallopian tube is the

A

infundibulum

431
Q

fimbriae “catch”

A

oocytes from ovary

432
Q

where fertilization usually takes place

A

Beyond the infundibulum is an enlarged ampulla

433
Q

uterus

A

is a hollow, muscular organ roughly the size and shape of a pear and it is located between the urinary bladder and the rectum

434
Q

broad ligamenta

A

holds uterus in place

435
Q

uterosacral ligaments

A

attach uterus to sacrum

436
Q

round ligaments

A

attach uterus to external genital

437
Q

fundus

A

dome-shaped portion of uterus

438
Q

perimetrium

A

covers uterus

439
Q

endometrium

A

is highly vascular mucous membrane lines uterine cavity

440
Q

stratum functionalis

A

proliferates monthly

441
Q

stratum basalis

A

permanent source for replacement of stratum functionalis

442
Q

myometrium

A

thick layer of smooth muscle causes labor contractions and cramps

443
Q

vagina

A

fibromuscular tube that extends from the cervix to the vaginal orifice

444
Q

inner epithelium of vagina forms vaginal rugae

A

that secrete mucus and other substances to produce an acidic environment

445
Q

The vaginal orifice is partially to fully covered at birth by a

A

thin membranous hymen that usually ruptures during childhood activity

446
Q

female copulatory organ

A

vagina, forms the lower portion of the birth canal, and

provides a passage for menstrual flow out of the body.

447
Q

Fallopian tubes form from

A

upper, unfused, funnel-shaped ends of Muellerian ducts

448
Q

female external genitalia are collectively referred to as the

A

vulva or pudendum.

449
Q

mons pubis

A

is a mound of fatty tissue covered with skin and coarse hair that cushions the pubic symphysis and vulva during sexual intercourse

450
Q

labia majora

A

are fleshy folds covered by pubic hair that extend from the mons pubis

451
Q

clitoris

A

is a nodule of erectile tissue at the anterior junction of the labia minora.

452
Q

shaft contains corpora cavernosa clitoris

A

spongy erectile tissue

453
Q

glans clitoris

A

extremely sensitive to touch

454
Q

female vestibule is the area enclosed by the

A

labia minora

455
Q

urethral orifice is located behind

456
Q

vestibular bulbs

A

are masses of erectile tissue located deep in labia majora/during sexual arousal they become engorged with blood

457
Q

greater vestibular glands (bartholins)

A

produce and secrete mucus during

sexual arousal

458
Q

Skenes glands

A

produce secretions to keep urethral orifice moist and lubricated

459
Q

genital tubercle differentiates into the

A

vulva in the absence of testosterone

460
Q

urethral folds become

A

labia minora because they dont fuse/lateral buttresses disappear

461
Q

labioscrotal swellings remain unfused and become

A

labia majora

462
Q

clitoris is homologous to

463
Q

labia majora is homologous to

464
Q

female posterior opening of the urethral groove becomes

A

vaginal orifice which grows inwards to form lower vagian

465
Q

female anterior opening of urethral groove becomes the

A

external urethral orifice which grows inward from this opening to form urinary bladder

466
Q

Lateral growths along the urethra become

A

Bartholin’s glands and Skene glands

467
Q

Bartholin’s glands form ducts that link them with vagina and are homologous to

A

bulbourethral (Cowpers) glands

468
Q

skenes glands are homologous to

A

prostate gland

469
Q

breasts

A

located above pectoralis major muscles and supported by suspensory ligaments

470
Q

coopers droop

A

as a female grows older suspensory ligaments become weaker causing her breasts to sag

471
Q

areola

A

contains sebaceous glands to keep nipple soft when infant nurses

472
Q

The internal mammary glands are actually

A

modified s
weat glands from the integument that consist of
15 to 20 lobes subdivided into lobules.

473
Q

myoepithelial cells along length of lactiferous ducts contract and force

A

milk towards nipple

474
Q

lactiferous sinuses

A

where milk can be temporarily stored when mother is nursing

475
Q

Ovarian cysts

A

arise from follicles that continue to grow, accumulate fluid, and produce hormones./retention of a cyst may cause hormonal and fertility problems/rupture of a cyst may cause bleeding and acute pain

476
Q

Ovarian cancer

A

difficult to diagnose because it produces nondescript symptoms, such as slight pelvic discomfort, bloating, and/or fatigue/ usually not found until it spreads

477
Q

most ovarian cancers result from

A

abnormal epithelial cells on surface of ovary/more often a woman ovulates, the greater her risk/pregnancy and nursing can reduce number of ovulations/ smoking and family history put one at risk

478
Q

examination of external genitalia can identify

A

irritation, genital lesions or growths, or abnormal

discharge from vagina/internal examination allows vaginal walls and cervix to be examined visually

479
Q

Pap exam(screening test)

A

removes cells from cervix and cervical canal/ Pap test is usually 90 to 95% reliable for detecting precancerous conditions of cervix

480
Q

Cervical cancer

A

cervical dysplasia is precancerous condition that changes shape, growth rate, and quantity of cervical cell/pap smears can detect

481
Q

human papilloma virus is a principal cause of

A

cervical cancer

482
Q

who is at risk for cervical cancer and hows it treated

A

women who become sexually active early in life
• women with multiple sexual partners
• women who use oral contraceptives
• women, especially teenagers, who smoke cigarettes
<treatment of cervical cancer involves removal of lesions, radiation therapy, chemotherapy and/or hysterectomy

483
Q

Endometrial cancer

A

invades the inner lining of the uterus and is most common among women between 50 and 64, although women who have never been pregnant, women who are obese, and/or women who have diabetes tend to have a higher risk/irregular menstrual bleeding is often an early symptom

484
Q

Endometriosis

A

describes the growth of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus because of menstrual reflux through the Fallopian tubes into the pelvic cavity./endometrial tissue may attach to ovaries, kidneys,bladder, or abdominal wall/ can cause per-menstural pain

485
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterine cavity, usually in the ampulla of a Fallopian tube, and produces a “tubal pregnancy

486
Q

who is at risk for developing an ectopic pregnancy

A

women who use an intrauterine device for birth control/women who have developed pelvic inflammatory disease/ women who smoke cigarettes

487
Q

Fibrocystic disease

A

of the breast is the most common cause of breast lumps, which are fluid-filled cysts or alveolar thickening./lumpy, swollen, tender breasts develop a week before menstruation

488
Q

Fibroadenomas

A

are fibrous or solid tissue masses that are usually benign

489
Q

Breast cancer

A

most common among post-menopausal women over 50 and approximately one of eight women in U.S. will develop breast cancer/ familial breast cancer is hereditary/ woman has two defective copies of BRCA1 gene in her breast cell

490
Q

spontaneous breast cancer occurs in individuals with no prior history

A

women who are childless or who had their first child after age 34
• women who began menstruation before age 12
• women who entered menopause after age 50
• women who smoke cigarettes
<more than 70% of breast cancers lack any identifiable risk factor

491
Q

base-line mammogram should be taken between

A

35-40 years

492
Q

lumpectomy

A

removes only tumor if cancer has not spread

493
Q

simple mastectomy

A

removes breast tissue and axillary lymph nodes if cancer has spread

494
Q

radical mastectomy

A

removes breast, lymph nodes, underlying pectoralis muscle and fascia/ rarely used

495
Q

Herceptin

A

uses bioengineered antibodies to jam estrogen receptor

496
Q

Tamoxifen

A

antiestrogen that blocks estrogens/recommended for pre-menopausal females

497
Q

Femora

A

disables an enzyme needed to make estrogens

• reduces risk of cancer reoccurring in post-menopausal female

498
Q

Anatomical and physiological changes in a girl’s body are controlled by hormones that lead to sexual
maturity typically beginning at age

A

10 or 11 and ending between 15 and 17

499
Q

With the onset of puberty, GnRH is released from the hypothalamus and triggers the

A

anterior lobe of pituitary gland to produce and release two gonadotropins

500
Q

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) travels from the

A

anterior lobe of the pituitary gland through the
blood to the ovaries to stimulate follicle cells to
divide.
<follicle cells produce and release estrogens

501
Q
Luteinizing hormone (LH) travels from the anterior
lobe of the pituitary gland through the
A

blood to the ovaries where it stimulates the differentiation of cells in a developing follicle and eventually triggers ovulation

502
Q

in a female adrenal testosterone initiates

A

growth spurt and pubic hair

503
Q

estrogens cause

A

breast development and maturation of ovaries, Fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina

504
Q

first ovulation typically occurs around the age

505
Q

Oogenesis is the process by which

A

haploid oocytes are produced in the ovaries.
<begins before birth, pauses during childhood, accelerates at puberty, occurs on a monthly basis until female goes through menopause

506
Q

Primordial germ cells (PGC) migrate to developing ovary during

A

embryonic development, where they

become enclosed in a layer of cells and form a primordial follicle.

507
Q

each primordial follicle contains a

A

diploid oogonium(egg mother cell)/oogonia dont undergo mitosis

508
Q

how much body fat is needed for a girl to start menache

509
Q

An oogonium grows within its primordial follicle and becomes a

A

primary oocyte, which causes the

primordial follicle to become a primary follicle

510
Q

primary oocyte starts meiosis

A

but process is suspended during Prophase I

511
Q

With the onset of puberty, several primary follicles will start to

A

develop each month/only 1-3 mature

512
Q

follicle cells change shape and divide repeatedly to form layers of granulosa cells around a

A

primary oocyte/ produce and secrete zona pellucida

513
Q

developing structure becomes a secondary follicle

A

cells near oocyte secrete liquor folliculi that accumulates within follicle and forms antrum

514
Q

growing antrum causes the secondary follicle to

become a

A

Graafian follicle

515
Q

primary oocyte resumes Meiosis and completes reduction division

A

which forms large secondary oocyte and smaller polar body

516
Q

If a sperm penetrates the wall of a secondary oocyte,

A

Meiosis II will be completed, which forms a

large haploid ovum and a smaller, non-functional second polar body

517
Q

The empty Graafian follicle remains in the ovary and gets transformed into a

A

corpus luteum, which produces high levels of progesterone and some estradiol until it eventually degenerates to form a corpus albicans.

518
Q

sexual arousal in the female

A

signals are sent to vagina which cause Bartholin’s
glands to secrete lubricating mucus
<blood supply to the breasts increases

519
Q

Stimulation of the nipples and/or clitoris leads to

the

A

plateau phase.

<breasts increase in size

520
Q

ovarian cycle

A

describes events associated with maturation and release of an oocyte

521
Q

uterine cycle

A

describes regular, recurring changes in uterus

522
Q

A “typical” reproductive cycle ranges from

A

24-35 days

523
Q

We will use a hypothetical cycle of

A

28 days, with Day 1 of the cycle defined as the day on which menstrual bleeding begins

524
Q

On Day 2 or Day 3,

A

the hypothalamus produces and releases GnRH to stimulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland to release FSH

525
Q

pre-ovulatory phase

A

This is the time between the end of menstrual bleeding and ovulation, typically occurring from Day 6
to Day 13 of a 28-day cycle, although it can be quite variable

526
Q

follicular phase describes events associated with

A

ovarian cycle

527
Q

proliferative phase describes events associated with

A

uterine cycle

528
Q

Secretion of estradiol from granulosa cells in developing follicles cause

A

changes to occur in the female reproductive tract.<
stratum basalis produces a new stratum functionalis
<lining of vagina thicken

529
Q

Rising levels of estradiol exert

A

positive feedback on the hypothalamus, which causes it to continue releasing GnRH.
<GnRH stimulates anterior lobe of pituitary gland to release a surge of LH

530
Q

Ovulation typically occurs

A

on Day 14 of a 28-day cycle

531
Q

Post-ovulatory phase

A

the time between ovulation and the onset of
menstrual bleeding, typically lasting from Day 15
to Day 28 of a 28-day cycle

532
Q

luteal phase describes events associated with

A

ovarian cycle

533
Q

secretory phase describes events associated with

A

uterine cycle

534
Q

post-ovulatory/Rising levels of progesterone secreted by the corpus luteum exert

A

negative feedback on the hypothalamus, which inhibits the secretion of GnRH

535
Q

post-ov/absence of GnRH prevents anterior lobe of pituitary gland from releasing

A

FSH so no additional ovarian follicles will develop

536
Q

post-ov/Rising levels of progesterone stimulate the development of the

A

endometrium.

<uterine glands fill with glycogen

537
Q

If a fertilized egg implants in the endometrium

A

the corpus luteum has to be maintained in order to

produce and secrete the hormones needed for pregnancy to continue.

538
Q

If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum

degenerates by

A

Day 25 of a 28-day cycle.

<levels of estradiol and progesterone decline sharply triggers menstruation

539
Q

Menstruation (menses) occurs from

A

Day 1 to Day 5 of the next 28-day cycle.

540
Q

A sharp decline in progesterone levels constricts the spiral arteries that supply the endometrium,
causing

A

ischemia that leads to the death of the endometrial tissue

541
Q

total menstrual discharge ranges between

542
Q

Premenstrual syndrome

A

refers to a collection of physical, physiological, and emotional symptoms that appear between three and ten days prior to the start of the menses.
<treatment with vitamins, diuretics and prostaglandin inhibitors may reduce symptoms

543
Q

Dysmenorrhea

A

refers to difficult menstruation accompanied by painful cramps caused by powerful contractions of uterine smooth muscle when the endometrium is sloughed off.
<high levels of prostaglandins in blood constrict endometrial blood vessels• reduces blood flow to myometrium

544
Q

Mittelschmerz

A

describes pain in the lower abdomen at the time of ovulation, probably because of irritation of nerve endings in the lining of abdominal cavity when blood and/or follicular fluid is released after a Graafian follicle ruptures

545
Q

Amenorrhea

A

is a lack of menstrual periods in post-pubescent, non-pregnant females

546
Q

primary amenorrhea

A

is failure to start menstruating by age 16
• almost always caused by abnormally low body fat
• may be caused by endocrine disorders or genetic disorders

547
Q

secondary amenorrhea

A

is absence of menstrual periods for six months or more• usually due to reduction in percentage of body fat

548
Q

Toxic shock syndrome

A

is caused when Staph aureus bacteria invade the bloodstream from the skin and produce deadly toxins.
<symptoms include high fever, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle aches, fatigue, and dangerous drops in blood pressure

549
Q

A female’s monthly reproductive cycle comes to a halt between the

550
Q

Reduced levels of estradiol fail to trigger ovulation, so a

A

corpus luteum does not form.

<less estradiol and progesterone get secreted

551
Q

Changing hormone levels during menopause cause

A

dizziness, headaches, insomnia, anxiety, or depression.

<accompanied by profuse sweating

552
Q

Fertilization

A

is the union of a sperm with an egg to form a zygote.

<typically occurs in ampulla of a Fallopian tube

553
Q

Semen is deposited in the vagina as a liquid, but

A

fibrinogenase converts fibrinogen into a fibrin clot
within one minute to prevent semen from leaking out
of the vagina, and also to protect the sperm from the acidity of the vagina.

554
Q

after about 20 minutes, vaginal acidity is

A

and sperm can survive so semen clot liquifies

555
Q

shortly before ovulation, cervical mucus become

A

thinner to facilitate passage through cervix

556
Q

uterine cavity is filled with a

A

watery fluid through which sperm can easily pass

557
Q

Only a few thousand sperm survive to enter the

A

Fallopian tubes and they move through the Fallopian
tubes assisted by ciliary action.
<only 50 to 100 sperm will actually reach a secondary oocyte

558
Q

capacitation

A

probably removes a protective coating from head of a sperm that block release of acrosome enzymes needed for penetration of secondary oocyte

559
Q

The secondary oocyte responds to sperm penetration

by

A

blocking the entry of more than one sperm, which prevents polyspermy from occurring.
<secondary oocyte completes second meiotic division

560
Q

If two oocytes are released during ovulation and each gets penetrated by a separate sperm

A

, two eggs may be fertilized and dizygotic (fraternal) twins result

561
Q

Approximately 30 hours after fertilization

A

the zygote divides by mitosis and forms two identical daughter cells.

562
Q

sperm can survive for

A

7 days in reproductive tract so fertilization can occur during 1 week window of opportunity

563
Q

Mitotic divisions continue to occur every

A

16 to 20 hours, which produces a collection of blastomeres that form a solid morula.
<these divisions occur quite rapidly and blastomeres get progressively smaller/ morula remains same size as zygote

564
Q

The cells of the morula become tightly packed through

A

compaction and blastomeres of unequal size begin to form, which creates a hollow blastocyst.
<larger cells inside trophoblast make up inner cell mass

565
Q

If a single zygote separates completely during cleavage

A

monozygotic (identical) twins will result

566
Q

When a blastocyst comes into contact with the endometrium, the risky process of

A

implantation begins.

<spontaneous abortions (miscarriages) may occur at this time 2 out of 3 wont implant due to genetic abnormalities

567
Q

As a blastocyst begins to implant, cells of the trophoblast

A

divide and differentiate and grow into the endometrium to anchor the blastocyst in place and the inner cell mass separates from the trophoblast and differentiates into the primary germ layers of the embryo

568
Q

ectoderm will form

A

skin, hair, nails, neural tissue, and linings of mouth and throat

569
Q

mesoderm will form

A

bone, cartilage, muscle, and parts of heart, kidneys, and gonads

570
Q

endoderm will form

A

most of gut and parts of liver and pancreas, linings of digestive tract and respiratory tract, and reproductive ducts

571
Q

yolk sac develops from

A

endoderm and mesoderm to provide blood until liver is est. and is source of primordial germ cells that migrate to gonads

572
Q

amnion develops from

A

ectoderm and mesoderm to surround embryo/ fills with amniotic fluid which cushions and protects embryo also maintains temp and pressure

573
Q

allantois develops from

A

endoderm near base of yolk sac

• blood vessels in allantois become umbilical vein and umbilical arteries/ contributes to development of urinary bladder

574
Q

chorion develops from

A

mesoderm and forms finger-like chorionic villi that penetrate endometrium to est. network of blood vessels

575
Q

The placenta forms in part from

A

maternal tissue and in part from embryonic tissue

576
Q

Chorionic villi contain blood vessels and grow into

the

A

endometrium, where they get surrounded by

maternal blood sinuses to form the placenta

577
Q

placenta serves as a

A

selectively permeable barrier/ blood is never exchanged and materials “cross the placenta” by simple diffusion

578
Q

The amnion fuses with the

A

chorion and they surround the allantoic blood vessels to form an umbilical cord.
<umbilical cord attaches belly of embryo to middle of placenta

579
Q

umbilical vein carries blood

A

that is rich in oxygen and nutrients from placenta to embryo

580
Q

umbilical arteries carry blood that

A

that contains carbon dioxide and wastes from embryo to placenta to be eliminated

581
Q

A full-term pregnancy (gestation) lasts for approximately

A

9 months or 40 weeks or 266 days and can be divided into two major periods

582
Q

embryonic stage typically refers to

A

first 8-10 weeks of gestation characterized by development of major organ systems in embryo

583
Q

fetal stage typically refers to the

A

last 30 to 32 weeks of gestation characterized by organ growth and maturation of the fetus

584
Q

The corpus luteum in the ovary secretes

A

estrogens and progesterone to maintain the endometrium and prepare the mammary glands for lactation

585
Q

Chorionic villi secrete human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to maintain

A

the corpus luteum, which prevents menstruation that would eliminate the developing embryo.
<hCG levels may be cause of nausea and vomiting associated with morning sickness

586
Q

falling progesterone levels increase

A

sensitivity of uterine smooth muscles to oxytocin

587
Q

oxytocin is released from the

A

the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland to stimulate uterine smooth muscle contractions

588
Q

relaxin is produced by

A

placenta to soften pubic symphysis and dilate cervix

589
Q

Two to three weeks before labor begins

A

the fetus drops lower into the pelvic cavity in a process
called “lightening”, which reduces the pressure on
the mother’s abdomen and diaphragm making it easier for her to breathe

590
Q

During the last week of gestation

A

the fetus will rotate in the uterus in order to present itself for delivery.
<head of fetus usually moves into cervix

591
Q

true labor is characterized by contractions that become

A

stronger at regular intervals

592
Q

Stage I involves

A

cervical effacement and dilation and lasts from four to 24 hours.
<contractions occur at short intervals

593
Q

Stage II involves

A

expulsion of the fetus and lasts from 15 minutes to two hours.

594
Q

episiotomy

A

performed if vaginal canal is too small to permit passage/ an incision is made from vagina to anus

595
Q

if complications occur during delivery,

A

cesarean section can be performed
• in a breech birth, feet would be delivered first, umbilical cord could become tangled around baby’s neck
• baby might be too large to be delivered vaginally
• placenta might detach prematurely cause hemorrhage

596
Q

Stage III

A

involves expulsion of the placenta within 15 to 30 minutes after parturition.
<forceful contractions constrict uterine blood vessel to reduce hemorrhage

597
Q

Actual milk production is stimulated by the hormone

A

prolactin (PRL)

598
Q

high levels of estrogens and progesterone during pregnancy cause hypothalamus to release

A

prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)

599
Q

elimination of placenta during afterbirth reduces

A

levels of estrogens and progesterone and allows prolactin to stimulate alveoli in breasts to produce milk

600
Q

The principal stimulus that maintains milk production is

A

the sucking action of the infant

601
Q

milk-ejection reflex

A

sensory nerves in nipples send signals to hypothalamus

can become a conditioned reflex by hearing baby cry or seeing it suck its thumb

602
Q

The first liquid produced by the mammary glands is

a

A

yellowish fluid called colostrum that is high in protein, but lower in lactose and fat than milk.
<contains important antibodies and iron-binding proteins

603
Q

Breast feeding maintains higher levels of

A

oxytocin in a mother’s bloodstream, which causes

contractions of uterine smooth muscles that can help restore the uterus to its pre-pregnant state

604
Q

Breast feeding may provide natural contraception for some women because nursing will reduce

A

GnRH secretion by the hypothalamus, which reduces the amount of FSH and LH released by the pituitary gland.
<reduction in FSH and LH will inhibit follicle development and ovulation