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Bio 314 Lecture Exam 1 > Lecture exam 2 > Flashcards

Lecture exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of circulatory pathway would drain blood from an organ using four different blood vessels

A

Venous anastomosis.

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2
Q

What is the major difference between the tunica media of an artery and the tunica media of a vein

A

The tunica media of an artery has much more smooth muscle, along with collagen fibers and elastic fibers, than the tunica media in a vein.

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3
Q

Why are fenestrated capillaries prevalent in the kidneys?

A

Fenestrated capillaries contain many small holes for rapid filtration of wastes and small solutes.

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4
Q

Determine the pulse pressure for an individual with a blood pressure of 122/67.

A

55 (systolic pressure - diastolic pressure).

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5
Q

What might happen to the blood pressure of an individual with aplastic anemia? EXPLAIN.

A

Blood pressure will probably decrease. Aplastic anemia causes a reduction in the production of formed elements. Fewer formed elements in the blood means the blood is less viscous, which reduces resistance. Thus, blood pressure will eventually decrease.

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6
Q

What happens to blood pressure if chemoreceptors in the carotid arteries detect a decline in oxygen levels? EXPLAIN.

A

Blood pressure will rise. A reduction in oxygen levels stimulates the chemoreceptors to signal the vasomotor center in the medulla oblongata to trigger systemic vasoconstriction to increase blood pressure.

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7
Q

Why are aldosterone and ANP antagonists

A

Aldosterone promotes the retention of sodium ions, which increases water retention leading to an increase in blood pressure. ANP promotes the excretion of sodium ions, which reduces water retention leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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8
Q

Which pressure exerts the greatest influence on capillary filtration during bulk flow?

A

Blood hydrostatic pressure.

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9
Q

What does an antidiuretic do to blood pressure? EXPLAIN.

A

Blood pressure will increase. An antidiuretic promotes conservation of water by the kidneys. This increases blood volume causing blood pressure to rise.

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10
Q

What type of circulatory shock might occur if you fell out of bed and landed on your head?

A

Neurogenic shock.

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11
Q

Average mL of blood flow per minute

A

5250

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12
Q

What is blood flow?

A

pumping action of the heart, measured as the amount of blood traveling through any organ, tissue, or blood vessel in a given period of time.

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13
Q

What does velocity of blood flow depend on

A

cross-sectional area through which it flows.

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14
Q

Blood perfusion

A

flow of blood through a given volume or mass of tissues per unit of time. mL/min/g

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15
Q

what is the total blood flow in a resting individual

A

it is constant with their cardiac output but flow through a particular organ varies

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16
Q

larger gradient =

A

better flow

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17
Q

hemodynamics are based on

A

blood pressure and resistance

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18
Q

blood flow is directionally proportional to

A

the difference in pressure between two points

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19
Q

blood flow is inversely proportional to

A

the resistance it encounters

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20
Q

What is blood pressure

A

the force exerted by blood against the walls of a blood vessel when it encounters resistance as it flows

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21
Q

What is BP determined by

A

cardiac output, blood volume, and resistance

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22
Q

what is cardiac output the product of

A

stroke volume and heart rate

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23
Q

Occurs during ventricular contraction

A

systolic BP. average 120 mm/Hg

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24
Q

occurs during ventricular relaxation

A

diastolic BP. average 75 mm/Hg

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25
Q

the difference between systolic BP and diastolic BP

A

Pulse Pressure

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26
Q

mean arterial BP (MAP)

A

propels blood to the tissues and measures the stress on blood vessels based upon diastolic and pulse pressure

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27
Q

normal MAP

A

90 mm/Hg

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28
Q

Peripheral resistance

A

opposition to blood flow because of friction between blood and the walls of the blood vessels

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29
Q

Resistance relationship with viscosity

A

direct relationship

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30
Q

Blood viscosity depends on

A

ratio of erythrocytes to plasma volume and concentration of proteins in blood plasma

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31
Q

Reducing # of RBC’s

A

reduces viscosity and decreases resistance

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32
Q

Reduction in concentration of plasma proteins

A

reduces viscosity and decreases resistance

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33
Q

Increase in # of RBC’s

A

increases viscosity and resistance

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34
Q

Dehydration

A

increases blood viscosity and resistance

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35
Q

Resistance and vessel length relationship

A

direct. longer blood vessels provide more friction and greater peripheral resistance

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36
Q

Each added pound of adipose tissue adds how many km of vessel length

A

300 km

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37
Q

what has the greatest short term influence on blood flow

A

blood vessel radius

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38
Q

vasoconstriction

A

reduces radius of blood vessel. cooling promotes this. decrease in BP

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39
Q

vasodilation

A

increases radius of a blood vessel. warming promotes this. lactic acid, histamines, and nitric oxide are vasodilators

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40
Q

Resistance and vessel radius relationship

A

inverse

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41
Q

laminar flow

A

blood exhibits this by moving faster near center of blood vessel due to less friction and slower near walls of blood vessel due to more friction

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42
Q

what does decreasing radius of a blood vessel by half due to resistance

A

it increases resistance by 16 times

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43
Q

differences in cross sectional area

A

makes blood flow decline from arteries to capillaries and increase from capillaries to veins

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44
Q

autoregulation

A

ability of an organ to regulate its own blood supply by varying the resistance of the arterioles in order to meet the metabolic demands for oxygen, nutrients, and waste removal

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45
Q

what vasoactive chemicals alter blood vessel radius

A

ones released by platelets,leukocytes, or endothelial cells.

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46
Q

the cardiovascular center in the medulla oblongata contains

A

contains a cardiac center and a vasomotor center, which exerts neural control over blood vessels by transmitting impulses that maintain vasomotor tone

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47
Q

vasomotor tone

A

describes a state of moderate constriction that varies from organ to organ

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48
Q

baroreflexes

A

negative feedback responses to change in blood pressure that gets detected by receptors in aorta and carotid arteries. correct momentary drops in BP within 3-5 seconds

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49
Q

increase in BP stimulates receptors to

A

send signals to vasomotor center to reduce vasomotor tone and vasodilation

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50
Q

chemoreflexes

A

autonomic responses to changes in pH, oxygen concentration, or carbon dioxide concentration detected by aortic bodies and/or carotid bodies

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51
Q

stimulate chemoreceptors to cause widespread vasoconstriction to increase BP

A

acidosis, hypoxia, or hypercapnia.

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52
Q

angiotensin II

A

vasoconstrictor that raises BP when kidney perfusion is inadequate.

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53
Q

angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

A

can be blocked by drugs to reduce angiotensin II levels which reduces BP

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54
Q

aldosterone

A

promotes the retention of sodium ions which promotes water retention and raises BP

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55
Q

atrial natriuretic peptide

A

increases the excretion of sodium ions which will reduce blood volume and lower BP

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56
Q

antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

A

vasoconstrictor released from posterior lobe of pituitary gland which causes kidneys to conserve water and raise BP

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57
Q

epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

vasoconstrictors that raise BP and bind to adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle to stimulate contractions.

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58
Q

capillary exchange

A

the movement of substances into and out of the capillaries

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59
Q

diffusion

A

important exchange mechanism used to move glucose and oxygen between the blood and tissues and to move wastes and CO2 between tissues and blood

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60
Q

transcytosis

A

occurs when endothelial cells transport fluid-filled vesicles that contain albumin, fatty acids, or insulin across capillaries

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61
Q

bulk flow

A

passive process by which dissolved substances move from the blood into the interstitial fluid by filtration and from the interstitial fluid into the blood by re-absorption

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62
Q

Filtration results from

A

blood hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

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63
Q

blood hydrostatic pressure (BHP)

A

is generated by the heart’s pumping action and is higher at arterial end of capillary bed than at venous ends

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64
Q

interstitial fluid osmotic pressure (IFOP)

A

draws water out of the capillaries because of solutes present in interstitial fluid

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65
Q

reabsorption results from

A

colloid osmotic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

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66
Q

blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP)

A

draws water into capillaries cause of proteins present in plasma

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67
Q

interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (IFHP)

A

is negligible

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68
Q

net filtration pressure equation

A

(NFP)=(BHP + IFOP) - (BCOP + IFHP)

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69
Q

BHP is higher at what end of a capillary bed and why

A

arterial end/ there is no outward pressure and fluid moves out of capillary and into interstitial space

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70
Q

BCOP is higher at what end of a capillary bed and why

A

venous end/ there is net inward pressure and fluid moves into capillary from interstitial space

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71
Q

what percent of the 20 liters of fluid filtered out of the capillaries each day will get absorbed into blood

A

85%/ remaining fluid gets absorbed by lymphatic system to prevent fluid from accumulating in tissues which is returned to the blood

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72
Q

Pressure gradient from venules to vena cavae

A

favors blood flow back to right atrium even though BP remains steady at 15 mm Hg. Gradient will increase when blood volume increases or when veins dilate. It will decrease when veins constrict or if pressure increases in right atrium due to leaky tricuspid valve

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73
Q

skeletal muscle pumps in the limbs

A

they squeeze blood out of veins towards the heart

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74
Q

At rest both valves in venous segment are

A

open and blood flows toward the heart

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75
Q

muscle contraction compresses the vein

A

which forces blood through proximal valve and closes distal valve

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76
Q

muscle relaxation cause the proximal valve to close

A

and blood enters venous segment through open distal valve

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77
Q

thoracic (respiratory) pump

A

aids in blood flow toward the heart because differences in pressure during inhalation and exhalation squeeze the inferior vena cavae

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78
Q

physical activity increases venous return because

A

heart beats faster and harder, blood vessels dilate, muscle contractions increase and respiratory rate and depth increases.

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79
Q

hypertension

A

persistent high blood pressure that is defined as systolic BP above 140 mm Hg and diastolic BP above 90 mm Hg. myocardium stretches excessively and loses efficiency

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80
Q

hypertension increases

A

afterload/ which makes ventricles work harder to expel blood

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81
Q

hypertension is a major cause of

A

stroke- arteries in brain become more prone to rupture/ kidney failure- arterioles thicken and renal blood flow decreases. positive feedback releases angiotensin II and aldosterone which raise BP to improve blood flow through kidneys

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82
Q

What percent does primary hypertension count for

A

90% and results from a collection of factors that cant be attributed to a single cause

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83
Q

obesity increases

A

the overall length of blood vessels which increases peripheral resistance and raises BP

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84
Q

What contributes to primary hypertension

A

sedentary lifestyle, diets high in saturated fat and cholesterol, diets low in potassium magnesium and calcium.

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85
Q

what role does nicotine play in primary hypertension

A

it contributes to it by stimulating vasoconstriction and increasing afterload which makes myocardium work harder

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86
Q

treatments for hypertension

A

weight loss, aerobic exercise, dietary changes, and drugs.

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87
Q

diuretics decrease BP by

A

reducing blood volume

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88
Q

ACE inhibitors block the formation of

A

angiotensin II which decreases sodium and water retention so BP decreases and cardiac output improves.

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89
Q

beta-blockers decrease heart rate and contractility by

A

preventing response to norepinephrine when it binds to adrenergic receptors

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90
Q

calcium channel blockers inhibit the flow of calcium ions into

A

cardiac muscle which reduces cardiac workload

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91
Q

what causes secondary hypertension

A

kidney disease, atherosclerosis, hypersecretion of aldosterone, cushing disease and polycythemia

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92
Q

coronary atherosclerosis can be triggered by

A

damage to endothelium of an artery causes moncytes to adhere to damaged endothelium and penetrates it

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93
Q

in coronary atherosclerosis monocytes become macrophages and

A

absorb fats and cholesterol to form fatty streaks on artery wall. platelets adhere to damaged endothelium and release chemicals that stimulate formation of atherosclerotic plaque. smooth muscle and elastic tissue get replaced by scar tissue and artery becomes rigid and more susceptible to obstruction

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94
Q

hypertension tends to run in

A

families and children whose parents have hypertension are twice as likely

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95
Q

hypertension is % more common among blacks than whites

A

30%

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96
Q

hypertension is more common among

A

men between 18-54 and women older than 65

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97
Q

cardiac output fails to

A

deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to meet our metabolic needs

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98
Q

cardiogenic shock

A

is caused by inadequate pumping of the heart usually due to MI(heart attack)

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99
Q

hypovelemic shock

A

characterized by low BP, weak pulse, and tachycardia following significant blood loss from a sudden hemorrhage or from dehydration

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100
Q

hypovelemic shock can lead to

A

trauma, internal bleeding, excessive sweating diarrhea or vomiting can eliminate much fluid that water is transferred from blood to tissues. venous return declines stroke volume decreases and cardiac output fails.

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101
Q

obstructive shock

A

occurs when blood flow is blocked (pulmonary embolism)

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102
Q

vascular shock

A

occurs when too much blood accumulates in the limbs.

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103
Q

anaphylactic shock

A

is a severe allergic response that releases huge amounts of histamines which triggers rapid vasodilation

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104
Q

neurogenic shock

A

produced by head trauma,which can lead to loss of vasomotor tone

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105
Q

septic shock

A

occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation

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106
Q

transient vascular shock

A

may occur after prolonged exposure to sun cause cutaneous blood vessels dilate and blood can accumulate in lower limbs upon standing

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107
Q

aneurysm

A

thin weakened section in a blood vessel that bulges outward and may eventually rupture leading to hemorrhage

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108
Q

varicose veins

A

weak, distended superficial veins with leaky valves in the legs which cause pooling. fluid leaks into the surrounding tissues and causes pain and inflammation

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109
Q

edema

A

accumulation of excess fluid in a tissue due to increased capillary filtration and reduced capillary reabsorption

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110
Q

stroke

A

sudden death of brain tissue due to cerebral ischemia. brief episodes of cerebral ischemia produce transient ischemic attacks characterized by dizziness, headache, loss of vision and other sensory losses

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111
Q

lymphatic system consists of a network

A

of lymphoid tissues and lymphatic vessels that drain excess fluids that seeped out of the blood into the tissue spaces

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112
Q

lymphatic vessels absorb

A

lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins from the gastrointestinal tract and transport them to the blood

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113
Q

lymphoid tissues protect against

A

foreign cells microbes toxins and cancer cells

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114
Q

lymph is

A

a relatively clear, colorless fluid that is similar to blood plasma but it contains fewer proteins and its composition varies throughout the body

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115
Q

intestinal lymph

A

is milky white following a meal because of its high fat content

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116
Q

lymph in a lymph node

A

may be filled with lymphocytes, macrophages, and debris

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117
Q

lymphatic capillaries

A

microscopic vessels which are located everywhere in the body except in avascular tissues

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118
Q

lymphatic capillaries compared to blood capillaries

A

slightly larger but have closed ends

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119
Q

endothelial cells in lymphatic capillaries

A

overlap one another and act as valve-like flaps

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120
Q

small intestine contains specialized

A

lacteals to transport dietary lipids

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121
Q

interstitial fluid can flow into lymphatic capillary when

A

fluid pressure in tissues is high but cant flow out when fluid pressure in tissues is low

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122
Q

lymphatic capillaries unite to form

A

lymphatic vessels, which pass through lymph nodes

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123
Q

lymphatic vessels unite to form

A

lymphatic trunks which different parts of the body

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124
Q

lymphatic trunks converge to form

A

lymphatic ducts which return fluid to the blood

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125
Q

thoracic duct drains

A

left side of head, neck, chest, left arm, and entire body below the ribs

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126
Q

right lymphatic duct drains

A

lymph from upper right region of body into right subclavian vein

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127
Q

lymph flows slowly and is controlled by

A

contractions of skeletal muscle and respiratory movements

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128
Q

lymphatic cells can be loosely scattered

A

in mucous membranes or tightly clustered and encapsulated in lymphatic organs

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129
Q

develop in the thymus gland and carry out immune responses

A

T lymphocytes

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130
Q

mature in bone marrow and produce antibodies to protect the body against disease-causing organisms

A

B lymphocytes

131
Q

macrophages phagocytize

A

foreign antigens and become antigen-presenting cells

132
Q

dendritic and reticular cells are

A

antigen-presenting cells in lymphatic organs

133
Q

lymphatic cells form

A

dense lymphatic nodules in lymph nodes and the tonsils, and form Peyer’s patches in the small intestine.

134
Q

lymph nodes

A

bean shaped structures located along lymphatic vessels in the mammary glands, armpit region and groin

135
Q

a lymph node is covered by

A

a fibrous capsule that extends inward and divides the node into compartments.

136
Q

interior of a lymph node consists of

A

a stroma(contains reticular tissue) and parenchyma which contains lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells

137
Q

outer cortex of parenchyma contains

A

germinal centers where B lymphocytes multiply

138
Q

inner medulla of parenchyma contains

A

B lymphocytes, macrophages, and reticular cells

139
Q

lymph flows into a lymph node through

A

afferent lymphatic vessels, then passes through sinuses, and finally exits the lymph node by way of an efferent lymphatic vessel

140
Q

lymph nodes filter and cleanse lymph as

A

it flows toward the blood stream

141
Q

macrophages and reticular cells remove

A

most impurities, and foreign substances from lymph

142
Q

swollen glands

A

when large numbers of bacteria get trapped in a lymph node it becomes inflamed, swollen, and tender to the touch

143
Q

lymph nodes alert the immune system to

A

pathogens that have entered the body

144
Q

lymphocytes destroy

A

foreign substances by a variety of immune responses

145
Q

viruses can infect lymph nodes and

A

create reservoir of viral particles that escape detection by immune system (HIV)

146
Q

cancer cells in lymphatic system

A

may form secondary tumors when they lodge in lymph nodes. they can establish new growths in a lymph node which blocks flow of lymph and causes swelling.

147
Q

cancerous lymph nodes are

A

swollen but seldom painful

148
Q

tonsils

A

are concentrations of lymphoid tissue at the entrance to the pharynx and they guard against ingested or inhaled pathogens

149
Q

one pharyngeal tonsil is located where

A

in the nasal cavity and adenoid pharynx

150
Q

pair of palatine tonsils are located

A

in the back of the mouth. these can be removed

151
Q

pair of lingual tonsils are located

A

in the base of the tongue

152
Q

thymus gland is located

A

in the mediastinum posterior to the sternum and its two lobes are surrounded by a fibrous capsule that divides each lobe into several

153
Q

each lobule consists of

A

an outer cortex and an inner medulla

154
Q

cortex contains

A

lymphocytes, reticular epithelial cells, and macrophages

155
Q

medulla contains

A

mostly reticular epithelial cells and thymic corpuscles

156
Q

reticular epithelial cells

A

secrete thymic hormones that cause T-lymphocytes to mature and migrate to lymph nodes, spleen, and other lymphatic tissues

157
Q

thymus gland is ___ in an infant and grows even ___ during childhood

A

very large, larger. after puberty the tissue gets replaced by adipose tissue and areolar tissue until thymus gland is barely distinguishable in an adult

158
Q

the spleen is the

A

largest lymphatic organ and contains different kinds of lymphoid tissue.

159
Q

white pulp contains

A

lymphocytes and macrophages and plays a role in immunity

160
Q

red pulp consists of

A

venous sinuses filled with red blood cells

161
Q

spleen produces RBC’s in a fetus and

A

monitors blood for foreign antigens and phagocytizes bacteria. macrophages remove worn out RBC’s and defective platelets and phagocytoze them to recycle hemoglobin

162
Q

abdominal trauma

A

can rupture the spleen and cause severe internal bleeding which cant be stopped until it is removed. red bone marrow and the liver will take over some of the funtions

163
Q

without a ___ an individual is more likely to get infections

A

spleen

164
Q

edema describe the accumulation

A

of excess fluid in a tissue either because capillary filtration exceeds re-absorption or lymphatic vessels become obstructed

165
Q

elephantiasis

A

is caused by a roundworm transmitted via mosquito which blocks flow of lymph and produces chronic edema

166
Q

lymphadenopathy

A

enlarged tender lymph nodes

167
Q

lymphomas

A

are lymphatic cancers that usually originate in isolated lymph nodes

168
Q

hodgkins disease

A

swollen, painless lymph nodes and alternating fever and night sweats. chemo and radiation to cure

169
Q

non-hodgkins lymphomas

A

result from uncontrolled multiplication of lymphocytes that metastasize characterized by swollen lymph nodes or swelling in the spleen and peyers patches.

170
Q

nonspecific resistance

A

is built-in protection against invasion by a wide range of pathogens

171
Q

pathogens are

A

disease producing agents that include infectious organisms toxic chemicals and radiation

172
Q

why does the body harbor bacteria

A

homeostasis provides ideal temp. moisture, pH, and nutrients for microbial life

173
Q

what are the first lines of defense against pathogens

A

skin and mucous membranes

174
Q

typically to dry and nutrient-poor for microbes to survive

A

the skin

175
Q

secrete oily sebum and a coat of antimicrobial chemicals and lactic acid from sweat covers skin

A

sebaceous glands

176
Q

line body cavities that are open to the exterior and secrete mucous to trap microbes that try to enter

A

mucous membranes

177
Q

contains hyaluronic acid which gives it sticky consistency that makes it difficult for microbes to penetrate

A

areolar connective tissue

178
Q

provide mechanical barrier against microbes

A

keratin and epidermal cells

179
Q

lacrimal apparatus

A

secretes tears to keep microbes from infecting the eyeballs

180
Q

saliva

A

dilutes the number of microorganisms and washes them from the teeth and mouth

181
Q

sweat glands

A

produce perspiration to flush microorganisms from the skin

182
Q

mucous, tears, saliva, and perspiration contain

A

lysozyme which dissolves bacterial walls

183
Q

urine

A

prevents microbial growth in the urinary system by constantly flushing the urethra

184
Q

acidic secretions from gastric glands

A

in the stomach and vagina slow bacterial growth

185
Q

organisms that get past the skin and mucous membranes

A

are attacked by phagocytes. phagocyte adheres to a pathogen by recognizing its carbohydrate signature

186
Q

neutrophils

A

usually phagocytize bacteria but they also kill bacteria with chemicals

187
Q

neutrophil release chemicals to

A

form a “killing zone” around itself which kills more bacteria than it could otherwise

188
Q

“killing zone”

A

contains hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorite to kill bacteria but neutrophil also dies. may contribute to rheumatoid arthritis

189
Q

natural killer cells

A

large lymphocytes produced in red bone marrow which kill a wide variety of bacteria and host cells that have become cancerous or gotten infected with viruses

190
Q

when a natural killer cell encounters a microbe or abnormal host cell

A

it secretes perforins to rupture membrane and destroy target cells

191
Q

natural killer cells are found in

A

blood, spleen, lymph nodes, and red bone marrow

192
Q

macrophages develop from

A

monocytes and become scavenger cells

193
Q

wandering macrophages leave the blood to

A

seek out pathogens in the tissues

194
Q

fixed macrophages stand guard in

A

certain tissues or organs and phagocytize pathogens that come to them

195
Q

antimicrobial proteins

A

provide a second line of defense against bacteria and viruses

196
Q

interferons

A

are proteins that have been produced and released by cells that have become infected with viruses. They are not virus specific

197
Q

interferons stimulate

A

uninfected neighbor cells to manufacture antiviral proteins that can interfere with viral replication

198
Q

interferons enhance

A

phagocytosis and activate natural killer cells

199
Q

complement system describes

A

a group of 30 or more proteins that are synthesized by the liver and circulate in the blood plasma in an inactive form

200
Q

activation by a pathogen splits one of these proteins into fragments

A

that can destroy pathogen by inflammation or immune clearance, phagocytosis, or cytolysis

201
Q

classical pathway

A

requires activation of antibodies which make it part of immune response

202
Q

alternative pathway

A

non-specific active complement fragments can bind to viruses, bacteria, or yeast

203
Q

lectin pathway

A

binds plasma proteins to particular carbohydrates to initiate a reaction cascade

204
Q

inflammation

A

local response to tissue damage that is designed to limit the spread of a pathogen to remove debris associated with damage tissue and to initiate tissue repair

205
Q

inflammation is characterized by

A

redness, swelling, heat, and pain

206
Q

inflammation can occur anywhere in the body

A

most common in skin

207
Q

inflammation is mediated by small cytokine proteins

A

that alter physiology or behavior of recipient cell

208
Q

cutaneous inflammation

A

can result from mosquito bite, sunburn, or poison ivy

209
Q

local vasodilation increases blood flow to

A

the damaged tissue and causes hypermia which produces redness and heat in the inflamed region

210
Q

mast cells release histamines and other cells release

A

kinins, prostaglandins, and leukotrines. all chemicals increase permeability of blood vessels and promote filtration of fluid into interstitial spaces.

211
Q

swelling presses on nerve endings this

A

combines with toxins, prostaglandins, kinins, to produce pain sensations

212
Q

swelling is good because

A

fluids move foreign substances into the lymphatic system also delivers complement proteins and clotting factors to damaged tissues

213
Q

after inflammation begins

A

the damaged tissue gets flooded with leukocytes which leads to an increase in WBC count that is characteristic of inflammation

214
Q

neutrophils accumulate in capillaries (margination)

A

to identify inflammation site

215
Q

diapedesis allows

A

leukocytes to change their shape and crawl through capillary walls to enter interstitial fluid

216
Q

pathogens must be contained and

A

destroyed before they can spread throughout the body

217
Q

fibrinogen filters into the fluid around a damaged tissue and

A

forms a clot which sequesters bacteria and other microbes

218
Q

heparin prevents the blood from

A

clotting in the immediate vicinity of the injury so any pathogens that are present get trapped

219
Q

neutrophils are attracted by chemicals that

A

guide them to the site of injury or infection (chemotaxis)

220
Q

neutrophils recruit monocytes and more neutrophils by

A

secreting cytokines

221
Q

monocytes arrive within 8-12 hours following

A

the injury and become wandering macrophages that engulf any remaining bacteria, host cells, worn-out neutrophils

222
Q

dead phagocytes, debris, and dead pathogens get surrounded by

A

thick yellowish pus

223
Q

pus is usually absorbed from

A

the infection site but if it cant drain from the inflamed region a blister may form

224
Q

immune system consists of

A

cells and tissues that defend the body against specific invading agents such as bacteria, toxins, viruses, and foreign tissues

225
Q

immune system is a ___ system rather than an organ system

A

functional

226
Q

specificity enables the immune system to

A

identify particular pathogens and to distinguish between self and non-self molecules

227
Q

immune system has a memory for encounters with

A

previously identified antigens allows it to aggressively respond to subsequent invasions by these pathogens

228
Q

cellular immunity (cell-mediated)

A

uses lymphocytes to directly attack and destroy foreign cells or host cells infected with bacteria viruses or yeast. protects against parasitic worms, cancer cells, and cells from transplanted organs

229
Q

humoral immunity (antibody mediated)

A

uses antibodies to label pathogens for destruction by other mechanisms. protects body against bacteria and bacterial toxins

230
Q

naturally acquired active immunity occurs when

A

antibodies or T cells are produced in response to a particular pathogen (measles, chicken pox)

231
Q

naturally acquired passive immunity

A

is temporary immunity resulting from the natural transfer of antibodies from an immunized donor to a non-immunized recipient (mother to baby via breastfeeding)

232
Q

artificially acquired active immunity

A

results from vaccination (polio, smallpox)

233
Q

artificially acquired passive immunity

A

is temporary immunity resulting from an injection of serum that contains antibodies that were produced outside of the body

234
Q

horse serum can be used for emergency treatment of

A

certain snakebites

235
Q

an antigen is an

A

antibody generating molecule that shows immunogenicity and reactivity

236
Q

immunogenicity is the ability to

A

provoke an immune response

237
Q

reactivity is the ability to

A

interact with specific antibodies or cells

238
Q

antigen may be a

A

microbe, bacterial cell walls, toxins, incompatible blood cells, pollen, or egg whites can be antigenic

239
Q

most antigens are

A

large, complex proteins that are unique to each individual

240
Q

epitope or antigenic determinant is a

A

specific region of an antigen that can trigger an immune response. most have several epitopes that either induce production of specific antibodies or activate specific T cells.

241
Q

haptens

A

are small molecules that attach to larger molecules and create unique complexes that the immune system can recognize as foreign (poison ivy, penicillin)

242
Q

T lymphocytes are born in

A

red bone marrow from stem cells. they travel to the thymus gland where thymic hormones stimulate them to develop surface antigen receptors and become immunocompetent

243
Q

when B or T cells becom immunocompetent they display

A

surface receptors to recognize and bind to a specific antigen

244
Q

positive selection

A

produces identical T cells that are programmed to respond to a particular foreign antigen

245
Q

negative selection

A

eliminates any T cells that bind to self-antigens

246
Q

fetal stem cells that remain in bone marrow differentiate into

A

B lymphocytes

247
Q

the presence of a foreign antigen must be detected

A

for an immune response to occur

248
Q

exogenous antigens are found in

A

the extracellular fluid outside of the bodys cells. (bacterial toxins, pollen, dust)

249
Q

endogenous antigens are produced

A

inside of the bodies cells (viral proteins, abnormal proteins associated with cancer cells)

250
Q

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A

each individuals family of genes on chromosome 6 that code for MHC proteins that act as sefl-antigens

251
Q

MHC-I proteins are found

A

on the plasma membrane of all body cells except RBC. they are continually synthesized by a cell and transported to its plasma membrane

252
Q

MHC-II proteins occur only on

A

antigen presenting cells (human leukocyte antigen HLA). help T cells recognize foreign antigens

253
Q

antigen presenting cells (APC)

A

can be B cells, macrophages, or dendritic cells that process and present exogenous antigens for destruction

254
Q

a foreign antigen is ingested by

A

phagocytosis. digestive enzymes split the antigen into fragments. antigen fragments are joined with MHC protein molecules. antigen MHC protein complex is inserted into plasma membrane of the APC to be displayed. Apc migrates to lymphatic tissue to present the antigen to T cells so immune response can begin

255
Q

interleukins

A

coordinate the activities of various leukocytes that are involved in the immune response

256
Q

lymphokines

A

are produced by lymphocytes

257
Q

monokines are produced by

A

monocytes

258
Q

cell mediated immunity requires the activation of

A

a small number of T cells by a particular antigen

259
Q

when an antigen presenting cell encounters and processes a foreign antigen it

A

present that antigen to a T cell usually in a lymph node which recognizes it and binds to the antigen fragments that are displayed on the APC.

260
Q

activation also requires co-stimulation by

A

interleukins. prevents system from destroying healthy cells

261
Q

once a T cell is activated it

A

proliferates and differentiate into a clone of identical cells that can recognize the particular antigen and carry out an immune attack

262
Q

proliferation peaks within

A

one week of exposure to the antigen

263
Q

helper (T)h cells recognize

A

and antigen-MHC-II complex and secret interleukins. they attract neutrophils and natural killer cells, attract macrophages and stimulate phagocytosis, activate T cells and B cells

264
Q

Cytotoxic (T)c cells recognize

A

foreign antigens combined with MHC-I proteins and become killer cells that can deliver a lethal hit to a target cell.

265
Q

(T)c perforin forms holes in the

A

target cells membrane causing cell to burst

266
Q

(T)c lymphotoxin activates enzymes in the

A

target cell that destroy cell’s DNA

267
Q

(T)c tumor necrosis factor kills

A

cancer cells

268
Q

Regulatory (T)reg cells release

A

interleukins that will inhibit T and B cell activity and turn off immune response once pathogen has been destroyed. Prevents auto-immune reactions

269
Q

Memory (T)m cells remain from

A

a proliferated clone. programmed to recognize the original antigen so immune system can destroy that pathogen before symptoms can occur

270
Q

antigen challenge

A

first encounter between an immunocompetent and inactive lymphocyte and an invading antigen in the spleen or lymph node

271
Q

if a B cell is provoked in the antigen challenge

A

humoral response is intiated

272
Q

antibody mediated immunity is an indirect method of protection where

A

B lymphocytes are activated to produce antibodies that bind to antigens in order to destroy them

273
Q

an antigen binds to one or more of the thousands of antigen receptors on the surface of an

A

immunocompetent B cell which links them together

274
Q

when helper T cell recognize the antigen-MHC protein combination they produce

A

interleukins and other cytokines that function as co-stimulators to activate B cell

275
Q

activated B cells enlarge and divide into

A

a clone of plasma cells

276
Q

plasma cells can synthesize and release

A

antibodies for a specific antigen at a rate of up to 2000 molecules per second for 4-5 days

277
Q

activated B cells that dont differentiate into plasma cells become

A

memory cells that respond rapidly if antigen reappears in the future

278
Q

immunoglobin consists of

A

4 large complex polypeptide chains each of which contain a variable region that is specific for a particular antigen and a constant region that will determine how the antibody works

279
Q

constant region determines

A

class to which antibody belongs

280
Q

variable region forms

A

antigen binding site

281
Q

IgG antibodies are the most

A

abundent and they are found in blood in the lymph, and in the intestines

282
Q

IgG antibodies protect against

A

bacteria and viruses by enhancing phagocytosis and neutralizing toxins by triggering complement system

283
Q

what are the only antibodies that can cross the placenta from mother to fetus

A

IgG

284
Q

IgA antibodie are found in

A

tears, saliva, mucous, and milk.

285
Q

IgA antibodies provide

A

localized protection against bacteria and viruses

286
Q

IgM antibodies are the first to be

A

secreted by plasma cells after initial exposure to antigen

287
Q

IgM antibodies include

A

anti-A and anti-B antibodies of the ABO blood group which are potent agglutinating agents

288
Q

what does it mean if IgM antibodies are present in blood plasma

A

some kind of infection

289
Q

IgE antibodies are found mainly in the

A

tonsils, skin, and mucous membranes. stimulate mast cells and basophils during inflammation and allergy reactions. also release histamines

290
Q

IgD antibodies are located on

A

B cell membranes where they act as antigen receptors

291
Q

antibodies neutralize an antigen by

A

binding to its active region and blocking its effects

292
Q

IgG and IgM expose

A

complement binding sites on target cell/activates complement system

293
Q

antibodies have multiple antigen-binding sites so they can

A

cause agglutination

294
Q

antibodies link antigen molecules together to create

A

a complex that is too large to remain dissolved in the plasma

295
Q

precipitation makes antigens more susceptible to

A

phagocytosis

296
Q

antibody titer

A

can measure the level of a specific antibody present in the blood

297
Q

primary immune response occurs following an initial exposure to an antigen and it produces

A

and releases antibodies over a period of time

298
Q

secondary immune response occurs if the same antigen

A

invades the body at a later time and gets recognized by the memory cells. produces rapid response within hours of re-exposure

299
Q

hypersensitivity occurs when

A

the immune system causes tissue damage because it reacts to an antigen that most people would tolerate

300
Q

allergy is an reaction to

A

an environmental allergen (mold,dust,pollen,foods)

301
Q

initial contact with an allergan produces

A

no symptoms! but sensitizes the person to that particular antigen

302
Q

Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity

A

occurs within seconds after a person gets re-exposed to an allergen to which they are sensitive and it lasts about 30 seconds

303
Q

abnormally large number of helper (T)h cells differentiate and stimulate

A

B cells to mature and secrete IgE antibodies

304
Q

IgE antibodies bind the allergen to

A

the surface of mast cells and basophils and stimulate these cells to release histamines and other inflammatory chemicals/ causes vasodialtion, smooth muscle spasms, and excessive production of mucous.

305
Q

localized effects of Type I sensitivity include

A

swelling, watery eyes, runny nose, and hives. mights be relieved with anti-histamine

306
Q

food or drug allergies might cause

A

gastrointestinal cramping, vomiting, diarrhea

307
Q

asthma is triggered by

A

inhaling allergens that cause contraction of smooth muscles in airways which reduces airflow

308
Q

anaphylactic shock is

A

a severe systemic reaction. typically occurs when an allergen enters the blood of an individual who is hypersensitive. death may occurs unless epinephrine is given to dilate bronchioles increase CO and restore BP

309
Q

Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic) occurs when

A

IgG or IgM antibodies attack antigens on blood cells or tissue cells which stimulates macrophages to phagocytize and destroy them (blood transfusion, hemolytic disease of newborn, insulin-resistant diabetes)

310
Q

Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex) occurs when

A

antigen antibody complexes form beneath the endothelium of blood vessels and activate the complement system and trigger intense inflammation (rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, autoimmune disorder)

311
Q

Type IV ( delayed) hypersensitivity is carried out by

A

macrophages and cytotoxic T cells that have been activated by helper-T cells

312
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity usually appears within

A

12-72 hours following exposure ( poison ivy toxins, tuberculosis skin test)

313
Q

autoimmune diseases occur when the

A

immune system fails to recognize self-antigens and produces auto-antibodies that attack its own tissues(multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, graves disease, type I diabetes)

314
Q

antibodies for streptococcus bacteria can react with

A

antigens on heart valves which damages them during rheumatic fever

315
Q

if sperm cells enter the blood

A

auto-antibodies can be produced and cause sterility

316
Q

viruses and other drugs can change the structure of a

A

self-antigen which causes the immune system to view it as a foreign antigen and produce auto-antibodies against it

317
Q

virus may infect pancreatic islets and trigger

A

an autoimmune attack against the beta cells that produce insulin

318
Q

severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is a collection of

A

genetic disorders that interfere with the production or maturation of T cells and B cells

319
Q

in SCID victims become vulnerable to

A

various infections

320
Q

how is SCID treated

A

with a bone marrow transplant or with stem cells form the umbilical cord

321
Q

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) describes a

A

severely depressed immune system because of an infection by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

322
Q

HIV invades

A

helper T cells and tricks them into producing new viruses. Helper T cells are destroyed which compromises non-specific defense mechanism, cellular immunity, and humoral immunity

323
Q

victims of AIDS becom =e more vulnerable to

A

opportunistic infections and may die from pneumonia or kaposi sarcoma

Bio 314 Lecture Exam 1 (4 decks)

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