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Pharmacology 1 Practice Questions > Test 2 Practice Questions > Flashcards

Test 2 Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The best antidote for atropine poisoning is

A

Physostigmine

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2
Q

Which drug is favored in the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Pilocarpine

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3
Q

Atropine overdose may cause all of the following EXCEPT

Constipation

Tachycardia

Urine retention

Decrease in IOP

Decrease in gastric secretion

A

Decrease in intraocular pressure

IS NOT caused by Atropine OD

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4
Q

Which is the drug of choice in the immediate tx of acute anaphylactic shock?

A

Epinephrine

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5
Q

Epinephrine is contraindicated with phenothiazine derivatives mainly because it

A

will cause severe hypotension

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6
Q

Which is the drug of choice for treatment of acute bronchial asthma?

A

Albuterol

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7
Q

All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT

Hypertension

Hyperthyroidism

Ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Glaucoma

Urinary incontinence

A

beta-blockers are NOT used for

URINARY INCONTINENCE

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8
Q

A dog poisoned with chocolate would show signs of

A

Tachycardia, Seizures, and Urination

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9
Q

All of the following can be used orally to decrease the absorption of strychnine EXCEPT:

diluted potassium permanganate

diluted tincture of iodine

diluted tannic acid solution

activated charcoal

sodium bicarbonate

A

sodium bicarbonate

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10
Q

Xanthine derivatives stimulate the CNS mainly by

A

blocking adenosine receptors

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11
Q

Which drug is used as an antidote for diazepam?

A

Flumazenil

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12
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of phenothiazine derivatives?

preanesthetic

chemical restraint

bronchial asthma

motion sickness

antiemetics

A

bronchial asthma

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13
Q

Benzodiazepines cause CNS depression by

A

enhancing GABA

(the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS)

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14
Q

Which CNS depressant drugs are used to stimulate appetite in cats and dogs?

A

Benzodiazepines

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15
Q

The BEST antagonist for droperidol-fentanyl combination is

A

4-AP naloxone combination

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16
Q

Bradycardia due to Xylazine in the horse is BEST treated with

A

Atropine

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17
Q

Which drug is MOST effective in reversing sedation and analgesia in dogs receiving

Medetomidine?

A

Atipamazole

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18
Q

Which muscle relaxant has the SHORTEST duration of action in the horse?

A

Succinylcholine

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19
Q

Which drug is PREFERRED as an antidote for non-depolarizing muscle relaxant

overdose?

A

Neostigmine

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20
Q

The antithrombotic effect of aspirin is MAINLY due to

A

inhibition of platelet aggregation

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21
Q

The drug of choice for maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats is

A

Phenobarbital

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22
Q

Which statement about idiosyncratic drug reactions is LEAST accurate?

They are genetically determined reactions

They are unpredictable

They are dose-dependent

Usually caused by reactive drug metabolites

Usually involve the immune system

A

They are dose-dependent

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23
Q

Which of the following anesthetics is MOST likely to cause catecholamine-induced

cardiac arrythmias?

A

Halothane

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24
Q

T/F:

Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that requires energy

A

FALSE

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25
Q

T/F:

Generally, drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein tend to have short half-lives

A

FALSE

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26
Q

T/F:

The rate of biotransformation of drugs by hepatic microsomal enzymes depends

MAINLY on their lipid solubility

A

TRUE

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27
Q

T/F:

The most common biotransformation is oxidation

A

TRUE

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28
Q

T/F:

A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying

a fraction of the receptors

A

FALSE

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29
Q

T/F:

If the IV infusion rate is doubled, the plasma concentration ultimately achieved at the

steady-state is doubled

A

TRUE

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30
Q

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of acute death in

cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity?

hypertension

congestive heart failure

cardiac arrythmias

respiratory failure

dehydration and shock

A

respiratory failure

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31
Q

Which cholinesterase inhibitor may have less systemic adverse effects

because of a shorter duration of action?

A

Edrophonium

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32
Q

Which muscle relaxant is MOST likely to cross the placental barrier?

A

Guaifenesin

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33
Q

Methylxanthine derivatives cause CNS stimulation mainly by

A

blocking adenosine receptors

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34
Q

All of the following can be used for convulsive seizures in a dog

poisoned with strychnine EXCEPT:

Diazepam

Pentobarbital

Acepromazine

Xylazine

Methocarbamol

A

Acepromazine

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35
Q

All of the following are therapeutic uses of

phenothiazine derivatives EXCEPT:

antimotion sickness

antihistamines

preanesthetics

analgesics

antiemetics

A

Analgesics

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36
Q

Which of the following CNS depressant drugs has clinically signifcant analgesia?

Chloral hydrate

Pentobarbital

Medetomidine

Acepromazine

Diazepam

A

Medetomidine

has clinically significant analgesia

37
Q

Duration of analgesia by Xylazine is about

A

15 - 30 minutes

38
Q

Which drug is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in a dog suffering from epilepsy?

A

Succinylcholine

39
Q

All of the following drugs may increase

epinephrine-induced cardiac arrythmias

during inhalation anesthesia EXCEPT:

Xylazine

Thiopental

Isoproterenol

Ephedrine

Droperidol-Fentanyl combination

A

Droperidol-Fentanyl combination

will not increase epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias

40
Q

Which of the following drugs is a

selective alpha-1 blocker?

Pirenzepine

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

Prazosin

Bretylium

Atenolol

A

Prazosin

41
Q

Which drug is used to stimulate appetite in small animals?

Oxymorphone

Chlorpromazine

Oxazepam

Droperidol

Scopolamine

A

Oxazepam

42
Q

Histamine causes bronchoconstriction by stimulating H1-receptors

and albuterol causes bronchodilation by stimulating a2 adrenergic receptors

therefore, Albuterol is probably a:

A

physiological antagonist

43
Q

Facilitated diffusion:

is energy dependent

moves substances against concentration gradients

is slower than simple diffusion

involves penetration through pores

is a carrier-mediated transport

A

Facilitated diffusion:

is a carrier mediated transport

does not require energy

44
Q

T/F:

Dissolution is the rate-limiting step that determines rate of absorption

of a solid drug formulation given orally

A

TRUE

45
Q

T/F:

The most common phase II metabolic reaction

is conjugation to glucaronic acid

A

TRUE

46
Q

T/F:

For most drugs, the half-life depends on the dose of drug administered

A

FALSE

47
Q

T/F:

A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying

a fraction of the receptors

A

FALSE

48
Q

Neostigmine can be used in all of the following EXCEPT:

Treatment of myasthenia gravis

Diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

Urinary tract obstruction

Rumen atony

Antagonizing nondepolarizing muscle relaxants toxicity

A

Neostigmine DOES NOT work on

urinary tract obstruction

49
Q

The following drugs may cause hyperglycemia EXCEPT:

Norepinephrine

Epinephrine

Propranalol

Isoproterenol

Terbutaline

A

Propranolol

50
Q

Which is LEAST likely an adverse effect of atropine?

Blurred vision (cycloplegia)

Dry mouth

Urinary retention

Colic in horses

Hypotension

A

Hypotension

51
Q

A specific antagonist to benzodiazepines is

A

Flumazenil

52
Q

Atipamezole is a

A

central alpha-2 antagonist

53
Q

Which does NOT aggravate epinephrine-induced cardiac arrythmias during

inhalation anesthesia?

Xylazine

Thiamylal

Succinylcholine

Isoproterenol

Acepromazine

A

Acepromazine

54
Q

The MOST important adverse effect due to parenteral administration of

phenothiazines is:

Direct tachycardia

Nephrotoxicity

Histamine release

Hypotension

Diarrhea

A

Hypotension

seen with parenteral administration of phenothiazines

55
Q

Xylazine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT:

Analgesia

Muscle relaxation

Emesis

Bradycardia

Hypoglycemia

A

Hypoglycemia

56
Q

In preanesthetic medication, Glycopyrrolate is preferred to Atropine

because Glycopyrrolate:

A

Causes greater inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretions

57
Q

Which drug is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in an epileptic dog?

A

Glycopyrrolate

58
Q

Which vasocontrictor drug is LEAST likely to cause tachycardia?

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

Phenylephrine

Ephedrine

Pseudoephedrine

A

Norepinephrine

59
Q

Prazosin is a

A

alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist

60
Q

The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in plasma is called

A

Clearance

61
Q

T/F:

Assuming most drugs have small molecular size, diffusion of free drugs across most capillaries is mainly limited by lipid solubility

A

FALSE

62
Q

T/F:

A drug’s volume of distribution is a good indication for the ability of the drug

to diffuse across membranes

A

TRUE

63
Q

Methylxanthines cause CNS stimulation by

A

Blocking adenosine receptors

64
Q

Phenothiazines uses include all of the following EXCEPT:

preanesthetic

chemical restraint

bronchial asthma

motion sickness

antiemetic

A

bronchal asthma

65
Q

All of the following are therapeutic uses of Xylazine EXCEPT:

preanesthetic

combined with ketamine as anesthetic in dogs and cats

muscle relaxant

emetic

antiepileptic

A

antiepileptic

66
Q

Atipamezole is a

A

alpha-2 antagonist

67
Q

A quarternary ammonium compound is expected to:

A

be excreted in urine mainly unchanged

68
Q

Non-selective beta-adrenergic blockers may be associated with the

following adverse effects EXCEPT:

Bradycardia

Sedation

Bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients

AV-block

Hypertension

A

Hypertension

69
Q

The drug of choice for treatment of drug-induced sinus bradycardia is

A

Atropine

70
Q

Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to be associated with hypotension?

succinylcholine

pancuronium

vecuronium

d-tubocurarine

A

d-tubocurarine

71
Q

T/F:

Prescription orders for schedule II drugs must be limited to a 14-day supply

and cannot be refilled

A

FALSE

72
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely a use for anticholinergic drugs?

antispasmodic in colic

cycloplegic in ophthalmology

antimotion sickness

antihypertensives

antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

antihypertensives

73
Q

Which of the following muscle relaxants can increase intraocular pressure?

tubocurarine

succinylcholine

pancuronium

vecuronium

atracurium

A

succinylcholine

can increase intraocular pressure

74
Q

The most common adverse effect due to injection of phenothiazine derivatives is

A

hypotension

75
Q

Treatment of organophosphate poisoning include the following agents EXCEPT:

atropine

2-PAM

succinylcholine

activated charcoal

artificial respiration

A

succinylcholine

is not used to treat OP poisoning

76
Q

Which mydriatic anticholinergic drug has the SHORTEST duration of action?

A

Tropicamide

77
Q

Phenothiazine derivatives cause CNS depression mainly by

A

blocking dopamine excitatory receptors

78
Q

T/F:

Drug conjugates are usually water soluble and inactive

A

TRUE

79
Q

At therapeutic doses, which of the following CNS depressants are LEAST likely

to cause cardiovascular and respiratory depression?

Barbiturates

Opioid analgesics

Phenothiazines

Benzodiazepines

Butyrophenones

A

Benzodiazepines

80
Q

All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT:

hypertension

hyperthyroidism

ventricular tachyarrhythmias

glaucoma

urinary incontinence

A

urinary incontinence

81
Q

Adverse effects of phenothiazine derivatives include all of the following EXCEPT:

bradycardia

hypotension

penile paralysis in horses

sedation

GI hypermotility

A

GI hypermotility

82
Q

Hyperprolactinemia is an adverse effect of:

A

phenothiazines

83
Q

All of the following statements about succinylcholine are true EXCEPT:

Its actions on skeletal muscles are similar to the actions of ACh

It has a short duration of action

It does not cross the BBB

It potentiates actions of catecholamines on the heart during inhalation anesthesia

Its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine

A

Its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine

84
Q

All of the following statements about Xylazine are true EXCEPT:

It has sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxant effects

It may induce vomiting in dogs and cats

As a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine induced cardiac arrhythmias

It depresses the CNS by activating presynaptic alpha-2 adrenergic receptors

It is antagonized with Yohimbine

A

As a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine induced cardiac arrhythmias

85
Q

All of the following are uses of Epinephrine EXCEPT:

acute anaphylactic shock

bronchospasm

cardiac arrest

open-angle glaucoma

hemorrhagic shock

A

hemorrhagic shock

86
Q

Alpha-2 selective agonists have all of the following effects EXCEPT:

bronchodilation

hyperkalemia

tachycardia at large doses

skeletal muscle tremors

uterine relaxation

A

hyperkalemia

87
Q

Prescriptions for controlled substances in schedule II are limited to a

___ day supply

A

34 day supply limit

88
Q

All of the matches between a preanesthetic agent and its action are true EXCEPT:

Glycopyrrolate- inhibits salivary secretion

Butorphanol- Reduces the MAC of the anesthetic

Thiopental- shortens induction

Acepromazine- reduces postanesthetic pain

Droperidol/Fentanyl- protects against epinephrine-induced cardia arrythmias

A

Acepromazine- reduces postanesthetic pain

89
Q

Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists have all of the following effects EXCEPT:

sedative

hypnotic

muscle relaxant

analgesic

neuroleptic

A

sedative

Pharmacology 1 Practice Questions (6 decks)

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