Test 2 (chap 6-10) Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement about DNA is false

A

Humans lack DNA in their brain cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What was so groundbreaking about the “double” part of the double-helix molecule

A

It suggested how genetic information could be copied and inherited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which nucleotide bases are present in equal amounts in DNA

A

guanine and cytosine, adenine and thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Genes are borne on structures called

A

chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Alternate versions of a gene are called ________. They can code for different ________ of the same character

A

alleles; traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The highest percentage of non-coding DNA is found in

A

eukaryotes (with the exception of yeasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which statement correctly describes the locations of transcription and translation within a eukaryotic cell

A

DNA is transcribed in the nucleus, and then the mRNA transcript is transported to the cytosol to be translated into protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

difference between mRNA and DNA is

A

mRNA can move throughout the cell, whereas DNA stays in the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When a triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is TAG, the corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed from it is

A

AUC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

During translation, the first amino acid in the protein sequence is always

A

methionine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which statement about frameshift mutations is false

A

Frameshift mutations involve substitutions of nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about biotechnology

A

Biotechnology can create harmful environmental impacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of these would be considered a transgenic organism

A

a rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A group of scientists is attempting to remove a gene from bacterial cells that confers resistance to the common antibiotic, penicillin. Which tool would be the most precise and efficient for this task

A

using CRISPR to find and cut a specific sequence of bacterial DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which statement about biotechnology is true

A

The majority of corn, cotton, and soybeans grown in the United States is genetically modified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which statement about genetically modified foods and animals is true

A

Organisms that we want to kill may become invincible due to the use of GMOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Some athletes illegally use recombinant human ___________ to improve their athletic performance because it increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The technique in which a non-functioning gene is replaced by a functioning gene in somatic cells is called gene

A

therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The pattern of bands in a DNA fingerprint represents the

A

presence of fragments of DNA with variable lengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bacteria divide by a type of ______________________ called ______________________

A

asexual reproduction; binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which statement about the eukaryotic cell cycle is true

A

A cell can remain in Gap 1 for an hour, a day, a week, or a year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which assessment occurs at the G2/M checkpoint

A

DNA is checked for damage before entering mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The process of DNA replication occurs in two steps: 1) __________ of the double-stranded DNA molecule and 2) __________ of the new complementary strands

A

unwinding and separation; reconstruction and elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The single purpose of mitotic cell division is

A

generation of new genetically identical cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A cell divides by mitosis. The result is
two identical daughter cells
26
mitotic cell cycle phase order
1. interphase 2. prophase 3. metaphase 4. anaphase 5. telophase
27
detailed chronological order of mitotic cell cycle
Chromosomes line up at the center of the cell, the centromeres separate, the chromosomes move toward opposite poles, two daughter nuclei are formed, and the cytoplasm is divided
28
Which of these is a feature of cancer cells
Cancer cells’ membranes often have reduced adhesiveness
29
Which statement about the similarities and differences between chemotherapy and radiation therapy as cancer treatments is true
In radiation therapy, all tissue may be harmed, whereas in chemotherapy, the rate at which healthy cells divide may be reduced
30
In humans, the diploid number equals
46
31
When a male donkey is bred with a female horse, the offspring produced is a mule, which is healthy but sterile. Karyotyping experiments have revealed that horses and donkeys have different numbers of chromosomes: 64 for horses, and 62 for donkeys. Therefore, the mule has 63 chromosomes. Knowing this, what is the best explanation for the inability of mules to produce offspring
Proper pairing of homologues is impossible during meiosis I
32
The defining feature of males in sexually reproducing species is the sex with
motile gametes
33
Recombination, or crossing over, is a process by which
pieces of homologous chromosomes are exchanged
34
Which statement about sexual reproduction is true
Organisms make themselves vulnerable to disease, predation, and other dangers during mating and reproduction
35
Which statement is true regarding human sex chromosomes
On average, half of a man’s sperm carry an X chromosome, and half carry a Y.
36
An abnormal number of chromosomes can occur due to one particular erroneous meiotic event called
nondisjunction (chromosomes do not separate)
37
Which of the following human sex chromosome genotypes is not possible
YY
38
A man who is aware that he is a silent carrier of the FMO3 “fish odor syndrome” gene has children with a woman who is “normal.” Which statement would best explain how a child born from these parents could have fish odor syndrome
The mother is also a silent carrier of the defective FMO3 allele
39
Which of these is a single-gene trait
fur length in cats
40
What was the most important scientific advance gained from Gregor Mendel’s experiments with pea plants
We learned that many traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the result of blending
41
If a true-breeding, blue-flowered plant was crossed with a true-breeding, white-flowered plant, what phenotypic ratio would we observe in the progeny resulting from this cross? Assume that the white-flowered trait is completely dominant
100% white
42
How can two pea plants that have different genotypes for seed color be identical in phenotype
One of the two plants could be homozygous for the dominant allele, whereas the other could be heterozygous
43
In certain plants, red flowers are dominant to white flowers. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous red-flowered plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be white-flowered
0%
44
In pea plants, the allele for purple flower color is dominant to the allele for white flower color. If you performed a test-cross to determine the genotype of a purple-flowered plant, what would you expect the phenotypic ratio of purple-flowered to white-flowered progeny to be if the plant is homozygous? What if the plant is heterozygous
If the purple-flowered plant is homozygous, then the progeny would all have purple flowers. If the purple-flowered plant is heterozygous, then the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:1 ratio
45
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive condition requiring two copies of an abnormal gene. A man with PKU and a woman without PKU have a son named Peter, who does not have PKU. Peter is curious about whether his mother is a carrier for PKU. Which fact would allow him to know
Peter’s maternal grandfather has PKU
46
The difference between incomplete dominance and codominance is that
in incomplete dominance, the trait under observation is produced by the combination of multiple alleles, whereas in codominance, the trait is produced by a single allele
47
In the ABO blood type system in humans, there are _________ different alleles, _________ different phenotypes, and _________ different genotypes
three; four; six
48
In the case of Mendel’s peas, a single gene determined the height of the plant. However, in humans, adult height is influenced by many genes. A trait such as human height is said to be
polygenic
49
The SRY gene, found on the Y chromosome, causes fetal gonads to develop as testes, as well as many other developmental changes. The SRY gene shows both
sex linkage and pleiotropy
50
Your father’s mother was a heterozygous carrier of an X-linked trait. If you are a male, what are the chances that you will inherit this X-linked trait by direct descent from your paternal grandmother
0%
51
Phenotypes are generally a product of
the genotype in combination with the environment
52
We say that genes are linked when they
are located near each other on a single chromosome
53
what is the maximum number of hours an individual fruit fly could survive without food after an experimenter has selected for starvation resistance on this population over thousands of generations
Theoretically, there is no maximum number of hours
54
Which statement is true about charles lyell
Charles Lyell argued that geological forces had gradually shaped the Earth and continued to do so
55
While traveling around the world on the HMS Beagle, Charles Darwin made which of the following observations
Island species of finch closely resembled mainland finches
56
Darwin’s observations while traveling on the Beagle helped him develop which theory
Species might change over time
57
If evolution has occurred
the allele frequencies in a population have changed
58
Most mutations are
random with respect to the environmental needs of the organism in which the mutation takes place
59
Which statement about genetic drift is true
Genetic drift can obscure the deterministic process of selection
60
The migration of reproductive individuals between populations results in a movement of alleles called
gene flow
61
Natural selection can only act on traits that
are heritable
62
Choose the statement that correctly describes the changes in genetic variability from the four agents of evolution
Mutation and migration lead to increased variation, whereas genetic drift and natural selection decrease variation over time
63
What is the best measure of an organism’s fitness
the number of fertile offspring it produces
64
Which of these statements about adaptation is true
Natural selection can produce adaptation; however, it does not necessarily lead to organisms perfectly adapted to their environment
65
A population’s environment changes rapidly. In these situations
natural selection may be too slow to adapt the organisms in a population to such a moving target
66
Which statement best describes the difference between natural and artificial selection
Natural selection can act without the input of humans; artificial selection requires some human input
67
A “U-shaped” distribution for a trait, with high frequencies of individuals who exhibit extreme values for a trait (and few individuals with medium values), is most likely to be caused by ______ selection
disruptive
68
A breeder of thoroughbreds selects only the fastest horses for breeding stock. This is an example of artificial ____________ selection
directional
69
Human birth weight is a classic example of the results of
stabilizing selection
70
Which statement describes a limitation of using the fossil record to study evolution
Fossils only form under a very specific and rare set of environmental conditions
71
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 5,000 years. A rock originally contained 16 grams of radioactive isotope and now contains 4 grams. Approximately how many years old is the rock
10,000 years
72
The study of the distribution patterns of living organisms around the world is called
biogeography
73
Anatomical homology in vertebrate forelimbs is considered to be evidence for evolution because
similarities among vertebrate forelimbs suggest that they evolved from a common ancestor
74
The longer that two species have been evolving on their own, the
greater the genetic differences that accumulate between them