Test 2 (chap 6-10) Flashcards

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1
Q

Which statement about DNA is false

A

Humans lack DNA in their brain cells

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2
Q

What was so groundbreaking about the “double” part of the double-helix molecule

A

It suggested how genetic information could be copied and inherited

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3
Q

Which nucleotide bases are present in equal amounts in DNA

A

guanine and cytosine, adenine and thymine

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4
Q

Genes are borne on structures called

A

chromosomes

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5
Q

Alternate versions of a gene are called ________. They can code for different ________ of the same character

A

alleles; traits

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6
Q

The highest percentage of non-coding DNA is found in

A

eukaryotes (with the exception of yeasts)

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7
Q

Which statement correctly describes the locations of transcription and translation within a eukaryotic cell

A

DNA is transcribed in the nucleus, and then the mRNA transcript is transported to the cytosol to be translated into protein

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8
Q

difference between mRNA and DNA is

A

mRNA can move throughout the cell, whereas DNA stays in the nucleus

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9
Q

When a triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is TAG, the corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed from it is

A

AUC

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10
Q

During translation, the first amino acid in the protein sequence is always

A

methionine

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11
Q

Which statement about frameshift mutations is false

A

Frameshift mutations involve substitutions of nucleotides

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12
Q

Which of the following is a true statement about biotechnology

A

Biotechnology can create harmful environmental impacts

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13
Q

Which of these would be considered a transgenic organism

A

a rat with rabbit hemoglobin genes

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14
Q

A group of scientists is attempting to remove a gene from bacterial cells that confers resistance to the common antibiotic, penicillin. Which tool would be the most precise and efficient for this task

A

using CRISPR to find and cut a specific sequence of bacterial DNA

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15
Q

Which statement about biotechnology is true

A

The majority of corn, cotton, and soybeans grown in the United States is genetically modified

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16
Q

Which statement about genetically modified foods and animals is true

A

Organisms that we want to kill may become invincible due to the use of GMOs

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17
Q

Some athletes illegally use recombinant human ___________ to improve their athletic performance because it increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

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18
Q

The technique in which a non-functioning gene is replaced by a functioning gene in somatic cells is called gene

A

therapy

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19
Q

The pattern of bands in a DNA fingerprint represents the

A

presence of fragments of DNA with variable lengths

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20
Q

Bacteria divide by a type of ______________________ called ______________________

A

asexual reproduction; binary fission

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21
Q

Which statement about the eukaryotic cell cycle is true

A

A cell can remain in Gap 1 for an hour, a day, a week, or a year.

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22
Q

Which assessment occurs at the G2/M checkpoint

A

DNA is checked for damage before entering mitosis

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23
Q

The process of DNA replication occurs in two steps: 1) __________ of the double-stranded DNA molecule and 2) __________ of the new complementary strands

A

unwinding and separation; reconstruction and elongation

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24
Q

The single purpose of mitotic cell division is

A

generation of new genetically identical cells

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25
Q

A cell divides by mitosis. The result is

A

two identical daughter cells

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26
Q

mitotic cell cycle phase order

A
  1. interphase 2. prophase 3. metaphase 4. anaphase 5. telophase
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27
Q

detailed chronological order of mitotic cell cycle

A

Chromosomes line up at the center of the cell, the centromeres separate, the chromosomes move toward opposite poles, two daughter nuclei are formed, and the cytoplasm is divided

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28
Q

Which of these is a feature of cancer cells

A

Cancer cells’ membranes often have reduced adhesiveness

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29
Q

Which statement about the similarities and differences between chemotherapy and radiation therapy as cancer treatments is true

A

In radiation therapy, all tissue may be harmed, whereas in chemotherapy, the rate at which healthy cells divide may be reduced

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30
Q

In humans, the diploid number equals

A

46

31
Q

When a male donkey is bred with a female horse, the offspring produced is a mule, which is healthy but sterile. Karyotyping experiments have revealed that horses and donkeys have different numbers of chromosomes: 64 for horses, and 62 for donkeys. Therefore, the mule has 63 chromosomes. Knowing this, what is the best explanation for the inability of mules to produce offspring

A

Proper pairing of homologues is impossible during meiosis I

32
Q

The defining feature of males in sexually reproducing species is the sex with

A

motile gametes

33
Q

Recombination, or crossing over, is a process by which

A

pieces of homologous chromosomes are exchanged

34
Q

Which statement about sexual reproduction is true

A

Organisms make themselves vulnerable to disease, predation, and other dangers during mating and reproduction

35
Q

Which statement is true regarding human sex chromosomes

A

On average, half of a man’s sperm carry an X chromosome, and half carry a Y.

36
Q

An abnormal number of chromosomes can occur due to one particular erroneous meiotic event called

A

nondisjunction (chromosomes do not separate)

37
Q

Which of the following human sex chromosome genotypes is not possible

A

YY

38
Q

A man who is aware that he is a silent carrier of the FMO3 “fish odor syndrome” gene has children with a woman who is “normal.” Which statement would best explain how a child born from these parents could have fish odor syndrome

A

The mother is also a silent carrier of the defective FMO3 allele

39
Q

Which of these is a single-gene trait

A

fur length in cats

40
Q

What was the most important scientific advance gained from Gregor Mendel’s experiments with pea plants

A

We learned that many traits are inherited in discrete units and are not the result of blending

41
Q

If a true-breeding, blue-flowered plant was crossed with a true-breeding, white-flowered plant, what phenotypic ratio would we observe in the progeny resulting from this cross? Assume that the white-flowered trait is completely dominant

A

100% white

42
Q

How can two pea plants that have different genotypes for seed color be identical in phenotype

A

One of the two plants could be homozygous for the dominant allele, whereas the other could be heterozygous

43
Q

In certain plants, red flowers are dominant to white flowers. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous red-flowered plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be white-flowered

A

0%

44
Q

In pea plants, the allele for purple flower color is dominant to the allele for white flower color. If you performed a test-cross to determine the genotype of a purple-flowered plant, what would you expect the phenotypic ratio of purple-flowered to white-flowered progeny to be if the plant is homozygous? What if the plant is heterozygous

A

If the purple-flowered plant is homozygous, then the progeny would all have purple flowers. If the purple-flowered plant is heterozygous, then the progeny would have purple to white flowers in a 1:1 ratio

45
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive condition requiring two copies of an abnormal gene. A man with PKU and a woman without PKU have a son named Peter, who does not have PKU. Peter is curious about whether his mother is a carrier for PKU. Which fact would allow him to know

A

Peter’s maternal grandfather has PKU

46
Q

The difference between incomplete dominance and codominance is that

A

in incomplete dominance, the trait under observation is produced by the combination of multiple alleles, whereas in codominance, the trait is produced by a single allele

47
Q

In the ABO blood type system in humans, there are _________ different alleles, _________ different phenotypes, and _________ different genotypes

A

three; four; six

48
Q

In the case of Mendel’s peas, a single gene determined the height of the plant. However, in humans, adult height is influenced by many genes. A trait such as human height is said to be

A

polygenic

49
Q

The SRY gene, found on the Y chromosome, causes fetal gonads to develop as testes, as well as many other developmental changes. The SRY gene shows both

A

sex linkage and pleiotropy

50
Q

Your father’s mother was a heterozygous carrier of an X-linked trait. If you are a male, what are the chances that you will inherit this X-linked trait by direct descent from your paternal grandmother

A

0%

51
Q

Phenotypes are generally a product of

A

the genotype in combination with the environment

52
Q

We say that genes are linked when they

A

are located near each other on a single chromosome

53
Q

what is the maximum number of hours an individual fruit fly could survive without food after an experimenter has selected for starvation resistance on this population over thousands of generations

A

Theoretically, there is no maximum number of hours

54
Q

Which statement is true about charles lyell

A

Charles Lyell argued that geological forces had gradually shaped the Earth and continued to do so

55
Q

While traveling around the world on the HMS Beagle, Charles Darwin made which of the following observations

A

Island species of finch closely resembled mainland finches

56
Q

Darwin’s observations while traveling on the Beagle helped him develop which theory

A

Species might change over time

57
Q

If evolution has occurred

A

the allele frequencies in a population have changed

58
Q

Most mutations are

A

random with respect to the environmental needs of the organism in which the mutation takes place

59
Q

Which statement about genetic drift is true

A

Genetic drift can obscure the deterministic process of selection

60
Q

The migration of reproductive individuals between populations results in a movement of alleles called

A

gene flow

61
Q

Natural selection can only act on traits that

A

are heritable

62
Q

Choose the statement that correctly describes the changes in genetic variability from the four agents of evolution

A

Mutation and migration lead to increased variation, whereas genetic drift and natural selection decrease variation over time

63
Q

What is the best measure of an organism’s fitness

A

the number of fertile offspring it produces

64
Q

Which of these statements about adaptation is true

A

Natural selection can produce adaptation; however, it does not necessarily lead to organisms perfectly adapted to their environment

65
Q

A population’s environment changes rapidly. In these situations

A

natural selection may be too slow to adapt the organisms in a population to such a moving target

66
Q

Which statement best describes the difference between natural and artificial selection

A

Natural selection can act without the input of humans; artificial selection requires some human input

67
Q

A “U-shaped” distribution for a trait, with high frequencies of individuals who exhibit extreme values for a trait (and few individuals with medium values), is most likely to be caused by ______ selection

A

disruptive

68
Q

A breeder of thoroughbreds selects only the fastest horses for breeding stock. This is an example of artificial ____________ selection

A

directional

69
Q

Human birth weight is a classic example of the results of

A

stabilizing selection

70
Q

Which statement describes a limitation of using the fossil record to study evolution

A

Fossils only form under a very specific and rare set of environmental conditions

71
Q

A radioactive isotope has a half-life of 5,000 years. A rock originally contained 16 grams of radioactive isotope and now contains 4 grams. Approximately how many years old is the rock

A

10,000 years

72
Q

The study of the distribution patterns of living organisms around the world is called

A

biogeography

73
Q

Anatomical homology in vertebrate forelimbs is considered to be evidence for evolution because

A

similarities among vertebrate forelimbs suggest that they evolved from a common ancestor

74
Q

The longer that two species have been evolving on their own, the

A

greater the genetic differences that accumulate between them