Final exam (chap 21-27) Flashcards

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1
Q

“Form follows function” refers to the fact that:

A

organisms’ physical structures often are adaptations, shaped by natural selection, and so reflect their physiological functions.

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2
Q

Connecting the end of each muscle to a different bone is a heavy band of fibrous connective tissue called:

A

tendon

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3
Q

Which of the following about epithelial cells is true?

A

They can form glands, which secrete products like hormones.

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4
Q

Skeletal muscle in the human body is often called striated muscle. If you had to predict why this is, which of the following would you predict?

A

Skeletal muscle has a striped appearance.

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5
Q

Smooth muscle is known for:

A

contractions that push food through the intestinal tract.

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6
Q

Which of the following is true about cardiac muscle cells?

A

They are controlled involuntarily.

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7
Q

The main components of an animal’s nervous system are the interconnected __________ and thier associated __________ cells.

A

neurons; neuroglia

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8
Q

Almost all animals have some tissues that are organized into organs. The exceptions are:

A

sponges and some cnidarians.

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9
Q

The term “homeostasis” describes:

A

the body’s use of physical and chemical processes to maintain a consistent internal environment.

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10
Q

The internal environment of multicellular animals is influenced mostly by their external environment and:

A

the activities of other cells in the body.

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11
Q

Several blood vessels of the human body contain receptors that sense when the blood pressure is too high. When these receptors are stretched (high blood pressure), they cause the slowing of the heartbeat and the widening of vessels to bring the pressure down to normal levels. This scenario is an example of a homeostatic mechanism that operates by:

A

negative feedback.

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12
Q

Which of the following is a method animals have for facilitating heat loss to the environment?

A

increasing bloodflow to the skin

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13
Q

Which of the following is true about osmoregulation?

A

Malpighian tubules are an example of a structure that evolved to enable animals to regulate water balance.

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14
Q

Most of a kidney’s mass is made up of small units called:

A

nephrons

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15
Q

How are kidneys different from Malpighian tubules?

A

Kidneys filter waste out of the blood while Malpighian tubules concentrate wastes from the body cavity.

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16
Q

Which of the following is true about the vertebrate circulatory system?

A

The circulatory system is involved in the delivery of hormones to target tissues

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17
Q

Species with open circulatory systems, such as the arthropods, have shown remarkable success. Despite this, open circulatory systems have limitations. Which of the following is a limitation of the open circulatory system?

A

Because the hemolymph empties into a single body cavity, it cannot be selectively transported to cells with higher metabolic activity.

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18
Q

Both birds and mammals have four-chambered hearts. But birds are more closely related to crocodiles, which have three-chambered hearts, than they are to mammals. The correct interpretation of these observations is that:

A

birds and mammals evolved four-chambered hearts independently.

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19
Q

What is the driving force that pushes blood through the veins on the way back to the heart?

A

contraction of skeletal muscles

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20
Q

Why does the electrical impulse that stimulates heart contraction first travel down to the bottom of the heart, and then stimulate contraction from the bottom of the ventricles upward?

A

Blood needs to be squeezed out of the ventricles upward into the pulmonary and aortic arteries.

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21
Q

In the circulatory system of vertebrates, which of the following is the site of exchange between blood and interstitial fluid?

A

capillaries

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22
Q

The four components of the human blood are:

A

plasma, leukocytes, erythrocytes, and platelets.

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23
Q

Blood pressure peaks when the heart contracts, pumping blood into the arteries and causing them to stretch; this is called the pressure. Blood pressure is at its lowest when the heart relaxes, called the ___________ pressure. A “normal” blood pressure for a young adult is said to be __________, and these numbers represent these two different pressures.

A

systolic; diastolic; 120/80

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24
Q

A heart attack is caused when bloodflow into the ______________ is blocked, causing the connected muscle to fail, resulting in an alteration of the electrical impulse of the heartbeat.

A

coronary artery

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25
Q

In what way are lymph ducts like veins in the cardiovascular system?

A

They both have one-way valves.

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26
Q

Simple animals with flat body shapes, such as flatworms, can survive without a special circulatory system. Which of the following statements explains this phenomenon?

A

Flatworms have all their cells located near central body branches or their body surface so that diffusion alone can transport important nutrients.

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27
Q

Why is there less air pressure at higher elevations?

A

There is less atmosphere “pushing down” from above as one gets higher in elevation.

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28
Q

In countercurrent flow:

A

blood flows in the opposite direction as the water, allowing a fish to extract close to 100% of the oxygen out of the water.

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29
Q

Amphibians must constantly keep their skin moist because:

A

the moisture is essential to maintain gas exchange across the skin.

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30
Q

Bar-headed geese have been seen flying over the Himalayas, areas in which many people require supplemental oxygen to survive. What best explains this observation?

A

Unidirectional airflow and air sacs allow birds to extract oxygen from the air more efficiently than humans.

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31
Q

Intercostal muscles:

A

rapidly increase the volume of air that can be inhaled and exhaled.

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32
Q

Compared to humans, llamas thrive at high altitudes because:

A

llama hemoglobin is able to pick up oxygen at very low pressure.

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33
Q

Increased diphosphoglyceric acid (DPG) in red blood cells:

A

reduces hemoglobin’s “stickiness” and causes it to release more oxygen to tissues.

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34
Q

The nutrients needed in the human diet are lipids, vitamins, carbohydrates, proteins, and:

A

minerals and water.

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35
Q

Carnivores are:

A

organisms that consume animals.

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36
Q

If a shrew weighing 6.5 grams has a basal metabolic rate of 35 calories per hour per gram, how many kilocalories must it consume in one day to fuel its resting metabolism?

A

5.46 kilocalories

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37
Q

Which of the following best explains why water must be included in the diet?

A

Water is lost in defecation, respiration, and urination.

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38
Q

For vegetarians, what does “balancing complementary proteins” mean?

A

Plant proteins, which individually lack some of the essential amino acids, must be ingested in combination in order to get all the essential amino acids in one meal.

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39
Q

Which of the following statements about dietary fat and carbohydrates is true?

A

Fats deliver about twice the caloric value of either carbohydrates or protein.

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40
Q

The thirteen vitamins essential to humans fall into two groups based on:

A

whether they are soluble in fat or water.

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41
Q

If ingested food is absorbed in the small intestine, why does the digestive system have an exit?

A

Not all the food that one ingests is completely digested and absorbed; waste materials have to be eliminated.

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42
Q

Which of the following is true about starch?

A

It is broken down by alpha-amylase.

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43
Q

The stomach:

A

dismantles large pieces of food both physically and chemically.

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44
Q

Which statement about the small intestine is true?

A

Its interior lining has thousands of small, fingerlike projections.

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45
Q

In the colon:

A

feces are formed.

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46
Q

The appendix in humans is homologous to the ______ in rats.

A

cecum

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47
Q

____________ is the key to achieving a healthy diet.

A

Balance

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48
Q

Which of the following about human body weight is true?

A

Uncertainty in the timing of the next meal probably selected for genes that conferred powerful appetites.

49
Q

In general, an animal will lose weight if it:

A

expends more calories than it consumes.

50
Q

What is the biological function of pain?

A

to provide strong feedback in order to avoid or prevent further physical damage

51
Q

Each neuron has two different extensions from its main central body; these are called the:

A

dendrites and axons.

52
Q

Interneurons

A

are located only in the brain and spinal cord.

53
Q

The central nervous system is:

A

made up of the brain and spinal cord.

54
Q

An action potential is initiated by:

A

movement of sodium ions into the neuron.

55
Q

The insecticide DDT causes the sodium channels in insect neurons to open. What effect will this have on an insect?

A

Its neurons will fire uncontrollably.

56
Q

The disease multiple sclerosis (MS) is caused by:

A

progressive damage to the myelin-insulating neurons, reducing their ability to conduct electrical signals.

57
Q

The synapse consists of:

A

a presynaptic cell, a postsynaptic cell, and the synaptic cleft.

58
Q

Curare is a lethal poison that has been used at the tips of darts used for hunting. Curare causes paralysis by blocking receptor sites in synapses with muscles. Curare probably blocks the effects of which neurotransmitter?

A

acetylcholine

59
Q

How are neurons able to distinguish different forms of stimuli, such as the difference between light and sound?

A

Different stimuli travel to different parts of the brain.

60
Q

How can artificial sweeteners taste like sugar but not actually be sugar?

A

Artificial sweeteners stimulate the same taste buds that sugar does because they have a chemical structure that closely resembles that of sugar.

61
Q

Which of the following about the sense of smell is true?

A

Dendrites with hair-like projections register smelly molecules.

62
Q

Which of the following statements about the sensory receptors in the human eye is true?

A

The rods are more sensitive to light but do not distinguish colors; the cones are less sensitive to light, but are able to distinguish colors in daylight.

63
Q

The sense of hearing differs fundamentally from those of taste and smell because:

A

hearing is sensed by the bending of hair cells, whereas taste and smell involve the binding of molecules to receptors.

64
Q

You’re sewing a button back on your favorite shirt when you accidentally prick yourself with the sewing needle. What type of receptor would respond to this stimulus?

A

pain receptor

65
Q

When a muscle contracts, the time between a contraction and a relaxation is called a:

A

twitch

66
Q

In muscle cells, ATP binds to myosin at the same time that:

A

the myosin breaks its link to the actin.

67
Q

Which of the following statements about the vertebrate skeletal system is true?

A

With the exception of jawless fish and sharks, the vertebrate skeletal system is made mostly of bone.

68
Q

Hunger, thirst, and maintenance of body temperature are all controlled by:

A

the hypothalamus.

69
Q

The primary function of the spinal cord in most animals is to:

A

relay messages between the brain and the peripheral nervous system.

70
Q

A motorcyclist is involved in a freeway accident and sustains serious injuries to his head. Although he survives and recovers, his personality is radically changed. Based on this information, which part of his cerebral cortex was damaged in the accident?

A

frontal lobe

71
Q

An elderly woman suffers a stroke. Afterward, she is unable to understand when other people speak. Based on this information, what part of her brain was damaged?

A

Wernicke’s area

72
Q

How does cocaine affect the human nervous system?

A

It blocks reuptake of dopamine.

73
Q

Which statement about caffeine is true?

A

Caffeine blocks the “message” to rest and sleep.

74
Q

In the study where test subjects were given an oxytocin nasal spray, these people:

A

were more trusting of others, especially in thinking they would get a return on their investment.

75
Q

In its most basic definition, the endocrine system involves:

A

gland organs and the hormones they secrete.

76
Q

Which choice correctly links the description with its corresponding type of hormone?

A

steroid hormone: passes through the cell membrane and binds to a receptor within the cell

77
Q

Which of the following controls the vast amount of the endocrine system’s action in vertebrates?

A

the hypothalamus and pituitary gland

78
Q

When hormones enter the anterior pituitary gland through the anterior pituitary pathway, which of the following glands did they immediately come from?

A

the hypothalamus

79
Q

Which of the following correctly pairs the gland with the hormone it secretes?

A

pancreas: insulin

80
Q

Which of the following produced by an endocrine gland?

A

prolactin

81
Q

If a high dose of time-released testosterone was given to a male songbird, which of the following would be a likely effect?

A

He would have a shorter life span than most other males.

82
Q

Which statement regarding moods is true?

A

Moods can be influenced by levels of melatonin in the body.

83
Q

In rodents, the hormone estrogen has been linked to:

A

obsessive-compulsive behavior.

84
Q

More boys than girls have been winners of competitions testing the knowledge of geography. Researchers have sought to explain this by proposing that:

A

the greater spatial ability measured in boys, compared to girls, may translate into a greater ability to read maps.

85
Q

Castrated men are more likely to:

A

have longer life spans.

86
Q

What is the main reason why ethical issues have arisen around human reproduction in the last decade?

A

Conception and pregnancy are now possible through biotechnological means.

87
Q

Which of the following types of reproduction produce the most variation in offspring?

A

sexual reproduction

88
Q

Which of the following statements about external fertilization is true?

A

The gametes of one sex can be very quickly washed away from those of the other sex in environments where external fertilization is used.

89
Q

Which of the following is an example of viviparity?

A

A mother cat carries several embryos inside her, giving birth to more than one live kitten at a time.

90
Q

Which accessory glands add secretions to the semen in human males?

A

bulbourethral glands

91
Q

The more frequently females copulate with males, the more likely it is that:

A

males produce more sperm in their testes.

92
Q

During ovulation in human females, the mature egg is released from the _______, travels through the _______ where fertilization occurs, and embeds in the _______.

A

follicle; Fallopian tube; endometrium

93
Q

In what way does egg production differ from sperm production in humans?

A

Only one viable egg is produced each time meiosis occurs in a woman, whereas four sperm are produced each time meiosis occurs in a man.

94
Q

A follicle cell that remains behind after ovulation:

A

begins producing progesterone.

95
Q

The peak of progesterone production occurs during:

A

the middle of the luteal phase of the ovarian cycle.

96
Q

Which of the following is the final step in the fertilization of the human egg?

A

The plasma membranes of the egg and sperm fuse.

97
Q

RU-486 is a pregnancy-termination drug. It binds to progesterone receptors but does not actually activate them. A woman taking this drug would experience:

A

endometrial sloughing.

98
Q

Which sexually transmitted disease is caused by an arthropod?

A

crab lice

99
Q

Which of the following sequences shows the correct order of the stages in embryonic development?

A

cleavage > blastula > gastrulation > neurulation

100
Q

Which trimester of pregnancy is characterized by little growth but significant development and differentiation of cells?

A

first trimester

101
Q

How long after fertilization does it take for the human zygote to implant in the wall of the uterus?

A

about a week

102
Q

In childbirth, what is the role of estrogen and prostaglandins?

A

They initiate labor.

103
Q

What is the goal of the reproductive technology-related process known as “sperm sorting”?

A

to increase the chances of having a girl or a boy, specifically, through ART

104
Q

Why is the adaptive immune system slower to respond to a pathogen compared to the innate immune system?

A

The adaptive immune system has to synthesize large numbers of specialized proteins, whereas the innate immune system is ready to go.

105
Q

Which statement about microbes is true?

A

Most microbes cannot cause infectious disease in humans.

106
Q

The ____________________ is most responsible for protecting you from pathogens and external stresses.

A

integumentary system

107
Q

Which type of white blood cell defends the body by ingesting pathogens (primarily bacteria), destroying both themselves and pathogens in the process?

A

neutrophils

108
Q

The four recognizable signs of the inflammatory response are swelling, pain, redness, and:

A

heat.

109
Q

Which statement about fever is true?

A

It is sometimes counterproductive to reduce a fever by taking medication.

110
Q

How is your body able to make large amounts of specific antibodies against an invading pathogen?

A

The foreign antigen binds to a particular B cell, which divides by clonal selection to make an army of B (plasma) cells that all produce large amounts of the same specific antibody.

111
Q

Which statement about vaccines is true?

A

Vaccines are sometimes made of no more than the unique antigens from a pathogen’s surface.

112
Q

Which statement about antibody molecules is true?

A

Macrophages can more easily ingest a pathogen coated with antibodies.

113
Q

What division(s) of your immune system would be affected if your thymus were removed?

A

Both the humoral and cell-mediated divisions because T cells mature in the thymus, and T cells are needed to activate B cells.

114
Q

Which of the following lists the events of the primary immune response in the correct sequence?

A

antigens bind to lymphocytes, clonal selection of lymphocytes occurs as memory cells are also formed, effector cells produce antibodies or attack the pathogen directly

115
Q

________ actively produce and release antibodies.

A

Plasma cells

116
Q

Which parts of your body become swollen as a result of rapid division of lymphocytes and other events as your body fights an infection?

A

lymph nodes

117
Q

In what autoimmune disease do the body’s joints become inflamed?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

118
Q

The primary target of the human immunodeficiency virus in the body is:

A

helper T cells.

119
Q

During the acute phase of an HIV infection:

A

humoral and cell-mediated responses eliminate 99% of the virus from the body.