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Anatomy and Physiology 2 > Test 2: Blood Vessels, Lymphatic, Immune, Respiratory > Flashcards

Test 2: Blood Vessels, Lymphatic, Immune, Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Define systolic blood pressure

A

pressure inside vessels during ventricular contraction

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2
Q

define diastolic blood pressure

A

pressure inside vessels during ventricular relaxation

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3
Q

what is the formula for mean arterial blood pressure (MABP)

A

diastolic pressure + (pulse pressure / 3) ie 80 + (40/3) = 93

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4
Q

what is the formula for pulse pressure

A

systolic pressure - diastolic pressure ie 120/80= pulse pressure of 40

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5
Q

distribution of blood throughout the body is dependent on what 2 factors

A

pressure difference at tissues and vascular resistance

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6
Q

what is the hormonal control system that controls blood volume

A

renin-angiotensin system

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7
Q

what is the function of renin

A

converts angiotensinogen (plasma protein) to angiotensin 1

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8
Q

where is renin secreted from

A

the kidneys

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9
Q

what substance is housed in the lungs that is part of the renin-angiotensin system

A

ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)

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10
Q

what is the purpose of ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)

A

converts angiotensin 1 into angiotensin II

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11
Q

what do the kidneys monitor

A

blood volume

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12
Q

what is the purpose of angiotensin II

A

systemic vasoconstrictor

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13
Q

angtiotensin II causes what substance to be released from the adrenal cortex

A

aldosterone

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14
Q

what is the purpose of aldosterone

A

increases Na+ and H2O reabsorption & retention by the kidneys

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15
Q

what is the end result caused by the release of aldosterone

A

increase in blood volume

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16
Q

what substance is released by the ventricles of the heart due to an increase in blood volume

A

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

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17
Q

what is the purpose of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

A

decreases Na+ and H2O reabsorption by kidneys and inhibits release of aldosterone

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18
Q

define atheroslcerosis

A

plaque build up within vessel

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19
Q

define aneurysm

A

ballooning of a blood vessel

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20
Q

define hypotension

A

low blood pressure

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21
Q

define hypertension

A

high blood pressure

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22
Q

what are the numbers for prehypertension

A

120-139/80-89

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23
Q

what are the numbers for stage 1 hypertension

A

140-159/90-99

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24
Q

what are the numbers for stage 2 hypertension

A

160 and above/ 100 or above

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25
Q

what is the function of lymph nodes

A

filter circulating lymph

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26
Q

list the 2 primary lymphatic organs

A

red bone marrow and thymus

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27
Q

what is the function of the red bone marrow

A

site of leukocyte production

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28
Q

what is the function of the thymus

A

site of T cell maturation

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29
Q

list the 4 secondary lymphatic organs

A

lymph nodes, spleen, tonsils, aggregations of lymphatic nodules

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30
Q

list the lymphatic vessels in order from smallest to largest

A

lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic collecting vessels, lymphatic trunk, lymphatic ducts

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31
Q

identify the 2 lymphatic ducts

A

right lymphatic duct, thoracic duct

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32
Q

what blood vessel does the right lymphatic duct empty into

A

right subclavian vein

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33
Q

what blood vessel does the thoracic duct empty into

A

left subclavian vein

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34
Q

what are the functions of the spleen

A

removes aged + defective formed elements, stores products from RBC breakdown, stores platelets, produces RBC in developing fetus

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35
Q

what are the 2 types of tissue found in the spleen

A

red pulp and white pulp

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36
Q

what cells primarily compose red pulp in the spleen

A

blood (RBC)

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37
Q

what cells primarily compose white pulp in the spleen

A

mostly B cells

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38
Q

where are peyer’s patches found

A

walls of the small intestine

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39
Q

describe the appearance of peyer’s patches

A

large clusters of lymphatic nodules

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40
Q

where is MALT found

A

walls of large and small intestine and respiratory tract

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41
Q

describe the appearance of MALT

A

patches of lymphatic nodules

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42
Q

define MALT

A

mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

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43
Q

describe the appearance and location of the appendix

A

nodules heavily concentrated in the junction between small and large intestine

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44
Q

what is chyle

A

fatty lymph that is absorbed by lacteals

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45
Q

what are lacteals

A

specialized lymphatic capillaries found in the intestinal mucosa within the villi-small intestine

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46
Q

list the 5 types of lymphoid cells

A

T cells, B cells, Natural Killer cells, macrophages, reticular cells

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47
Q

lymphatic capillaries are found in the vicinity of what blood vessels

A

capillaries of all tissues except bones, bone marrow, teeth and CNS

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48
Q

what are the lymphatic trunks named for

A

the region of the body they receive lymph from

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49
Q

how many lumbar lymphatic trunks are there

A

2

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50
Q

how many bronchomediastinal lymphatic trunks are there

A

2

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51
Q

how many subclavian lymphatic trunks are there

A

2

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52
Q

how many jugular lymphatic trunks are there

A

2

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53
Q

how many intestinal lymphatic trunks are there

A

1

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54
Q

name the 5 different lymphatic trunks

A

lumbar, bronchomediastinal, subclavian, jugular, intestinal

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55
Q

name the cancer of lymphatic tissue

A

lymphoma

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56
Q

name the parasitic infection of lymph nodes

A

elephantiasis

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57
Q

identify the 3 types of tonsils

A

palatine tonsils, lingual tonsils, pharyngeal adenoids

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58
Q

where are the palatine tonsils found

A

both sides of the posterior oral cavity

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59
Q

where are the lingual tonsils found

A

cluster at base of the tongue

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60
Q

where are the pharyngeal adenoids found

A

posterior wall of nasopharynx

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61
Q

identify the 3 arrangements of lymphatic nodules

A

peyer’s patches, appendix, MALT

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62
Q

what 2 types of cells do B cells differentiate into during antibody mediated response

A

memory B cells and plasma cells

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63
Q

what is the function of memory b cells in antibody mediated response

A

recognizes antigens directly to speed response

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64
Q

what is the function of plasma cells in antibody mediated response

A

produce antibodies

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65
Q

the T cells are involved in what type of immunity

A

cell mediated immune response

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66
Q

the B cells are involved in what type of immunity

A

antibody mediated (humoral) immune response

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67
Q

what are the 4 types of T cells seen during cell mediated response

A

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8), Memory T cells, suppressor T cells, helper T cells (CD4)

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68
Q

what do the cytotoxic T cells (CD8) do

A

destroys organisms with antigen directly

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69
Q

what do the memory T cells do

A

recognizes antigens directly to speed future response

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70
Q

what do the suppressor T cells do

A

suppress the cytotoxic T cells for specific antigens when their job is complete

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71
Q

what do the helper T cells (CD4) do

A

produce interleukins, communicate between WBC

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72
Q

name the 6 different ways an antibody can destroy the antigen

A

neutralization, immobilization, attraction of phagocytes, facilitate phagocytosis, stimulate inflammation, inhibit antigen metabolism

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73
Q

how do cytotoxic T cells cause antigen death

A

rupture the cell membrane/wall, secrete lymphotoxin into antigen, alter antigen DNA

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74
Q

list the steps of phagocytosis in order

A

leukocytosis, margination, diapedisis, chemotaxis, adherence/opsonization, ingestion, phagolysosome formation, digestion, exocytosis

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75
Q

list the 3 phagocytic cells of the immune system

A

neutrophils, wandering macrophages, fixed macrophages

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76
Q

list the chemicals that enhance inflammation

A

histamine, kinins, prostaglandins

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77
Q

describe leukocytosis

A

production of more phagocytes

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78
Q

describe margination

A

WBC attaches to wall of blood vessel

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79
Q

describe diapedisis

A

WBC squeezes out of blood vessel and into tissue

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80
Q

describe chemotaxis

A

WBC movement towards chemical signal aka “postive chemotaxis”

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81
Q

describe adherence/opsonization

A

WBC attachment to bacteria/invader

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82
Q

describe ingestion

A

engulfment of an invader by a WBC

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83
Q

describe phagolysosome formation

A

WBC merges lysosome with phagosome (vessicle w/ bacteria inside)

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84
Q

what are the results of digestion in WBC

A

results in residual bodies-waste product

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85
Q

describe exocytosis

A

excretion of residual bodies

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86
Q

what are the possible functions of fever

A

may aid interferon, inhibit microbe growth and speed reaction time of defense cells

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87
Q

what is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A

special protein imbedded in cell’s membrane

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88
Q

what is the normal function of MHC

A

allows for recognition of self

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89
Q

how is MHC involved with the cell mediated immune response

A

inactive T cells come into contact with altered MHC protein and become active

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90
Q

what are lysozymes

A

digestive enzymes

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91
Q

where would lysozymes be expected to be found

A

within phagocytes

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92
Q

define lysosome

A

a vessicle containing lysozymes and digestive enzymes

93
Q

define phagosome

A

vessicle containing bacteria

94
Q

define phagolysosome

A

a merging of lysosome with phagosome

95
Q

list the 3 types of interleukins

A

IL-2, IL-4, IL-5

96
Q

what is the function of IL-2

A

stimulates T cell proliferation

97
Q

what is the function of IL-4

A

promotes T cell growth, stimulates production of the antibody IgE

98
Q

what is the function of IL-5

A

promotes the secretion of antibody IgA

99
Q

list the 5 types of antibodies

A

IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

100
Q

where is IgA located

A

plasma, breast milk, mucus membranes

101
Q

where is IgD located

A

B cell membrane

102
Q

where is IgE located

A

tonsils, skin, mucus membrane

103
Q

where is IgG located

A

75-85% of circulating antibodies in plasma

104
Q

where is IgM located

A

B cell membrane and circulating in plasma

105
Q

what is the significance of IgA

A

prevents pathogens from adhering to epithelia

106
Q

what is the significance of IgD

A

acts as antigen presenter, allows T cells to be skipped

107
Q

what is the significance of IgE

A

allergy response, stimulates mast cells & basophils to release contents, attracts eosinophils

108
Q

what is the significance of IgG

A

long term immunity, crosses placenta to give baby temp. immunity

109
Q

what is the significance of IgM

A

short term immunity, indicates recent infection

110
Q

what are complements

A

a group of at least 20 plasma proteins

111
Q

what is the function of complements

A

help antibodies do their job, some increase inflammatory response, others destroy bacteria directly

112
Q

describe an antibodies structure

A

consist of 4 polypeptide chains

113
Q

how many amino acids compose the heavy chain of an antibodies structure

A

~450 amino acids

114
Q

how many amino acids compose the light chain of an antibodies structure

A

~220 amino acids

115
Q

what 3 factors affect the affinity of hemoglobin for O2

A

pH, pCO2, temperature

116
Q

how would an increase in pH affect the affinity of hemoglobin for O2

A

it would decrease affinity

117
Q

how would an increase in pCO2 affect the affinity of hemoglobin for O2

A

it would decrease affinity

118
Q

how would an increase in temperature affect the affinity of hemoglobin for O2

A

it would decrease affinity

119
Q

what is another name for the nose root

A

the glabella

120
Q

describe the structure of the nose bridge

A

made up of nasal bone

121
Q

describe the structure of the nose tip

A

made up of cartilage

122
Q

describe the structure of the external nares

A

the nostrils-first step of air pathway

123
Q

describe the structure of the nasal concha

A

divides the nasal cavity into 3 horizontal sections

124
Q

describe the structure of the nasal septum

A

divides the nasal cavity into 2 vertical sections

125
Q

describe the structure of the internal nares

A

the openings between nasal cavity and pharynx

126
Q

what are the functions of the nasal concha

A

causes air to swirl to trap particles in mucus and aids in warming air

127
Q

name the 3 segments of the pharynx

A

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

128
Q

where is the nasopharynx located

A

behind the naso cavity

129
Q

where is the oropharynx located

A

posterior to oral cavity-from soft palate to tip of upright epiglottis

130
Q

where is the laryngopharynx located

A

posterior to upright epiglottis, extends to esophagus/trachea

131
Q

which segment of the pharynx is a passageway for air only

A

nasopharynx

132
Q

which segments of the pharynx are passageways for food and air

A

oropharynx and laryngopharynx

133
Q

list the 9 laryngeal cartilages

A

thyroid cartilage, epiglottis, cricoid cartilage, arytenoid x2, cuneiform x2, comiculate x2

134
Q

what is the function of the epiglottis

A

blocks trachea during swallowing

135
Q

what is significant about the thyroid cartilage

A

largest piece of cartilage composing larynx

136
Q

what is significant about the cricoid cartilage

A

inferior most piece of cartilage composing larynx, connects trachea to larynx

137
Q

list the laryngeal cartilages that come in pairs

A

arytenoid, cuneiform, comiculate

138
Q

what type of tissue lines the trachea

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

139
Q

what type of tissue makes up the tracheal rings and majority of larynx

A

hyaline cartilage

140
Q

what type of tissue makes up the epiglottis

A

elastic cartilage

141
Q

what is the function of the soft palate and uvula during swallowing

A

blocks off nasopharynx

142
Q

list the parts of the respiratory tree from largest to smallest

A

R/L primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar sacs, alveoli

143
Q

how many secondary bronchi are on each side

A

2 on left, 3 on right

144
Q

what is the diameter of a standard bronchiole

A

1mm

145
Q

what is the diameter of a terminal bronchiole

A

<0.5mm

146
Q

where are the vocal folds located

A

larynx

147
Q

what is surfactant

A

detergent like lipoprotein chemical

148
Q

where is surfactant located

A

coating the alveoli

149
Q

what is the function of surfactant

A

reduces surface tension of the water within alveoli-prevents alveoli from collapsing

150
Q

which muscles contract during inspiration

A

diaphragm and external intercostals

151
Q

what does the contraction of the diaphragm and external intercostals do to intrapulmonary volume

A

increases intrapulmonary volume

152
Q

at what point during inspiration will air enter the lungs

A

when the pressure inside the lungs is lower than atmospheric pressure

153
Q

what causes normal resting expiration

A

relaxation of diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

154
Q

what muscles are involved with forceful expiration

A

abdominals and internal intercostals

155
Q

during expiration what changes are seen in intrapulmonary volume and pressure

A

volume decreases causing an increase in intrapulmonary pressure

156
Q

what gas law states that as volume increases, pressure decreases

A

Boyle’s law

157
Q

what gas law states that each gas in a mixture exerts it’s own independent pressure

A

Dalton’s law

158
Q

define partial pressure

A

pressure of individual gas in mixture

159
Q

list the 4 groups of the respiratory center

A

dorsal respiratory group, ventral respiratory group, apneustic center, pneumotaxic center

160
Q

where is the dorsal respiratory group located

A

in the medulla oblongata

161
Q

where is the ventral respiratory group located

A

in the medulla oblongata

162
Q

where is the apneustic center located

A

in the pons

163
Q

where is the pneumotaxic center located

A

in the pons

164
Q

what is the function of the dorsal respiratory group

A

stimulates diaphragm and external intercostals, sets the tidal breathing rhythm

165
Q

what is the function of the ventral respiratory group

A

stimulates accessory inspiratory and expiratory muscles when necessary

166
Q

what is the function of the apneustic center

A

coordinates transition from expiration to inspiration, stimulates DRG, fine-tunes breathing

167
Q

what is the function of the pneumotaxic center

A

coordinates transition from inspiration to expiration, inhibits apneustic center, fine-tunes breathing

168
Q

in what 2 forms is oxygen transported in blood

A

dissolved in plasma and bound to hemoglobin

169
Q

what percentage of O2 is dissolved in plasma

A

1.5%

170
Q

what percentage of O2 is bound to hemoglobin

A

98.5%

171
Q

in what 3 forms is carbon dioxide transported in the blood

A

dissolved in plasma, bound to hemoglobin, bicarbonate ions

172
Q

what percentage of CO2 is dissolved in plasma

A

7%

173
Q

what percentage of CO2 is bound to hemoglobin

A

23%

174
Q

what percentage of CO2 do bicarbonate ions make up

A

70%

175
Q

what is it called when CO2 binds with hemoglobin

A

carbaminohemoglobin

176
Q

what is the formula for converting carbon dioxide to bicarbonate

A

CO2 + H2O= H2CO3 (carbonic acid)->converts to H+ & HCO3-

177
Q

what is the purpose of the chloride shift

A

as bicarbonate moves out of RBC, chloride moves in to counter shift in charge, RBC remains electrically neutral

178
Q

what is the normal resting breathing pattern

A

2 seconds in, 3 seconds out

179
Q

what is the normal respiration rate

A

12-15 breaths per min

180
Q

describe the respiratory bronchioles

A

contain alveoli-structure where gas exchange occurs

181
Q

describe the alveolar sac

A

cluster of alveoli

182
Q

what is the function of alveoli

A

actual site of gas exchange

183
Q

how many alveoli are typically found in each lung

A

300 million

184
Q

define eupnea

A

normal breathing

185
Q

define apnea

A

transient cessation of breathing

186
Q

define dyspnea

A

difficult, labored or painful breathing

187
Q

define hyperventilation

A

higher than normal breathing rate

188
Q

define hypoventilation

A

lower than normal breathing rate

189
Q

define tidal volume

A

amount of air inhaled/exhaled with each breath

190
Q

how much air is moved in tidal volume

A

500 ml for males/females

191
Q

define inspiratory reserve volume

A

the amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after normal tidal volume inhalation

192
Q

define expiratory reserve volume

A

the amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation

193
Q

define residual volume

A

amount of air remaining in lungs after forced exhalation

194
Q

how much air remains in the lungs for residual volume

A

1200ml for males/ 1100ml for females

195
Q

define dead space volume

A

amount of air in the respiratory pathway not involved in gas exchange

196
Q

how much air is present in dead space volume

A

150ml for males/females

197
Q

define vital capacity

A

the total amount of air exchange

198
Q

how much air is present in vital capacity

A

4300ml for males/ 3100ml for females

199
Q

define total lung capacity

A

the sum of all respiratory volumes

200
Q

how much air is present in total lung capacity

A

6000ml for males/ 4200ml for females

201
Q

where in the body is pCO2 the highest

A

the cells

202
Q

where in the body is pCO2 the lowest

A

the lungs

203
Q

where in the body is pO2 the highest

A

the lungs

204
Q

where in the body is pO2 the lowest

A

the cells

205
Q

list the 4 functions of the larynx

A

provides open airway, routes food and air, location of vocal cords, initiates the cough reflex

206
Q

the respiratory center receives input from what items

A

peripheral stretch and chemoreceptors

207
Q

what do the chemoreceptors in the brain detect

A

CO2 & H+

208
Q

what do the chemoreceptors in the aortic arch & common carotid detect

A

O2, CO2, H+

209
Q

what factors affect gas exchange in the body

A

partial pressure difference, gas solubility, surface area, diffusion distance

210
Q

how would an increase in partial pressure difference affect gas exchange

A

it would increase the rate of exchange

211
Q

how would an increase in gas solubility affect gas exchange

A

it would increase the rate of exchange

212
Q

how would a decrease in surface area affect gas exchange

A

it would decrease rate of exchange

213
Q

how would an increase in diffusion distance affect gas exchange

A

it would decrease rate of exchange

214
Q

define sinusitis

A

inflamed sinuses from nasal cavity infection

215
Q

define laryngitis

A

inflammation of the vocal cords

216
Q

define pharyngitis

A

strep throat-inflammation of the pharynx-caused by streptococcus

217
Q

define pleurisy

A

inflammation of the pleural membrane

218
Q

define pneumothorax

A

air in the intrapleural spaces

219
Q

define atelectasis

A

lung collapse

220
Q

define carbon monoxide poisoning

A

CO binds with hemoglobin in place of O2

221
Q

define pneumonia

A

infectious inflammation of the lungs

222
Q

define emphysema

A

permanent enlargement of the alveoli due to destruction of the alveolar walls

223
Q

define chronic bronchitis

A

excessive mucus production, inflammation and fibrosis of mucosa

224
Q

define asthma

A

broncho constriction

225
Q

define tuberculosis

A

fibroid masses in lungs caused by mycobaterium tuberculosis

226
Q

define cystic fibrosis

A

genetic disorder that causes increase in mucus production

227
Q

define infant respiratory distress syndrome

A

alveoli collapse between breaths causing labored breathing

228
Q

where is infant respiratory distress syndrome usually seen

A

in premature infants

Anatomy and Physiology 2 (4 decks)

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