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Anatomy and Physiology 2 > Test 1: Blood, Heart, Circulation > Flashcards

Test 1: Blood, Heart, Circulation Flashcards

1
Q

Vitamen K is essential for what blood function

A

blood clotting

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2
Q

Put the following events in order: platelet aggregation, platelet adhesion, clot formation, vasoconstriction

A

vasoconstriction, platelet adhesion, platelet aggregation, clot formation

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3
Q

list the 3 types of granulocytes

A

neutrophil, basophil, eosinophil

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4
Q

what is the function of a neutrophil

A

phagocytes, “first responders”, go after bacteria

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5
Q

what is the function of a basophil

A

intensify inflammation and allergic reaction

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6
Q

what chemicals do basophils release

A

histamine, heparin, leukotrienes, prostaglandins

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7
Q

what is the function of an eosinophil

A

combat parasitic worms & release anti-inflammatory chemicals

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8
Q

which is the most numerous type of granulocyte

A

neutrophil

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9
Q

list the 2 types and 3 sub types of agranulocytes

A

monocyte, lymphocyte, B-lymphocyte, T-lymphocyte, Natural Killer

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10
Q

what is the function of the monocyte

A

destroys invaders and damaged cells

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11
Q

what is the function of the lymphocyte

A

produce antibodies and provide immunity

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12
Q

what is the function of the B lymphocyte

A

attack bacteria and their toxins

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13
Q

what is the function of the T lymphocyte

A

attacks viruses, fungi, cancer, transplanted cells and bacteria

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14
Q

where do T lymphocytes come from

A

the thymus

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15
Q

list the events of clot formation

A

vasospasm > vasoconstriction > platelet plug formation= (platelet adhesion > platelet aggregation > platelet plug formation)

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16
Q

what ion within hemoglobin binds with oxygen

A

iron, FE++

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17
Q

list the cells of erythropoiesis in order

A

hemocytoblast > proerythroblast > erythroblast > normoblast > reticulocyte > erythrocyte

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18
Q

list the cells of leukopoiesis for monocytes in order

A

hemocytoblast > monoblast > promonocyte > monocyte

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19
Q

list the cells of leukopoiesis for lymphocytes in order

A

hemocytoblast > lymphoblast > prolymphocyte > lymphocyte > B cell or T cell or Natural Killer

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20
Q

list the cells of leukopoiesis for eosinophil in order

A

hemocytoblast > myeloblast > promyelocyte > myelocyte > eosinophilic > band cell > eosinophil

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21
Q

list the cells of leukopoiesis for basophil in order

A

hemocytoblast > myeloblast > promyelocyte > myelocyte > basophilic myelocyte> band cell > basophil

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22
Q

list the cells of leukopoiesis for neutrophil in order

A

hemocytoblast > myeloblast > promyelocyte > myelocyte > neutophilic myelocyte> band cell > neutrophil

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23
Q

list the cells of platelet formation in order

A

hemocytoblast > megakaryoblast > promegakaryocyte > megakaryocyte- ruptures and produces cell fragments called platelets

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24
Q

describe the structure of a RBC

A

biconcave flexible disc

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25
Q

what is the normal RBC count for males

A

4.7-6.1 million/mm3

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26
Q

what is the normal RBC count for females

A

4.2-5.4 million/mm3

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27
Q

what is the normal RBC count for children

A

4.6-4.8 million/mm3

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28
Q

how long do most RBC live

A

120 days

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29
Q

how many RBC are produced per second

A

2 million

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30
Q

what stimulates RBC production

A

erythropoietin

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31
Q

what stimulates WBC production

A

interlukins & colony stimulating factors

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32
Q

what stimulates platelet production

A

thrombopoietin

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33
Q

define platelet aggregation

A

the sticking of platelets to already present platelets

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34
Q

define platelet adhesion

A

initial sticking of platelets to the wound

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35
Q

what are the functions of blood

A

transport nutrients and waste, regulate pH and temp, protect from blood loss and foreign invasion

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36
Q

list the 4 ABO blood groups

A

A, B, AB, O

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37
Q

what antigen does type A blood have

A

A

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38
Q

what antibody does type A blood have

A

B

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39
Q

what antigen does type B blood have

A

B

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40
Q

what type of antibody does type B blood have

A

A

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41
Q

what type of antigen does type AB blood have

A

A & B

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42
Q

what type of antibodies does type AB blood have

A

none

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43
Q

what type of antigen does type O blood have

A

none

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44
Q

what type of antibodies does type O blood have

A

A & B

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45
Q

what types can receive blood from type A

A

A & AB

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46
Q

what types can receive blood from type B

A

B & AB

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47
Q

what types can receive blood from type AB

A

AB

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48
Q

what types can receive blood from type O

A

A, B, AB, & O

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49
Q

what blood type can type A receive

A

A & O

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50
Q

what blood type can type B receive

A

B & O

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51
Q

what blood type can type AB receive

A

A, B, AB & O

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52
Q

what blood type can type O receive

A

O

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53
Q

describe anemia

A

decreased ability to carry oxygen

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54
Q

what causes aplastic anemia

A

results from faulty bone marrow

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55
Q

describe pernicious anemia

A

decreased B12

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56
Q

what causes hemolytic anemia

A

RBC destruction usually from bacterial infections

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57
Q

what causes hemorrhagic anemia

A

results from blood loss

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58
Q

what are the results of iron deficiency anemia

A

results in microcytes-look like RBC but smaller

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59
Q

describe sickle-cell anemia

A

causes one globin chain to become rigid

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60
Q

describe thalassemia

A

Mediterranean version, resulting from absent or faulty globin chain

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61
Q

describe polycythemia

A

increased RBC count

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62
Q

describe primary polycythemia

A

result of a disease state

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63
Q

what can cause secondary polycythemia

A

natural response to exercise

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64
Q

describe leukopenia

A

decreased WBC count

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65
Q

describe leukocytosis

A

increased WBC count

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66
Q

describe infectious mononucleosis (mono)

A

infection of B cells caused by epstein-barr virus

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67
Q

describe leukemia

A

cancerous conditions involving WBC

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68
Q

describe thrombus

A

a clot in a healthy vessel

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69
Q

describe embolus

A

a thrombus that has broken free and entered circulation

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70
Q

describe embolism

A

an embolus that becomes trapped in another vessel

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71
Q

describe hemophilia

A

inability of blood to clot properly

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72
Q

describe thrombocytopenia

A

decreased platelet production

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73
Q

mast cells are similar to what WBC

A

basophil

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74
Q

plasma cells are derived from what WBC

A

B lymphocytes

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75
Q

macrophage are derived from what WBC

A

monocytes, once they enter tissue

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76
Q

Name the 3 layers of the heart from inside to outside

A

endocardium, myocardium, epicardium

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77
Q

what tissue type makes up the epicardium

A

connective tissue

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78
Q

what tissue type makes up the myocardium

A

cardiac muscle

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79
Q

what tissue type makes up the endocardium

A

simple squamous epithelium

80
Q

will an increase in preload cause an increase or decrease in cardiac output

A

cardiac output would increase due to the increase in stroke volume

81
Q

will an increase in contractility increase or decrease cardiac output

A

cardiac output would increase due to the increase in stroke volume

82
Q

will an increase in afterload cause an increase or decrease in cardiac output

A

cardiac output would decrease due to the increase in blood pressure

83
Q

Where is the SA node located

A

right atria

84
Q

what is the function of the SA node

A

is considered the “pacemaker” of the heart

85
Q

movement of what ion in which direction causes depolarization of autorhythmic cells

A

Ca++ moving in

86
Q

movement of what ion in which direction causes depolarization of cardiac muscle cells

A

Na+ sodium moving in

87
Q

movement of what ion in which direction causes repolarization of autorhythmic cells

A

K+ potassium moving out

88
Q

movement of what ion in which direction causes repolarization of cardiac muscle cells

A

K+ potassium moving out

89
Q

movement of what ions in which directions cause the plateau phase of cardiac muscle action potentials

A

Ca++ calcium in, K+ potassium out

90
Q

what is the function of the AV node

A

serves as electrical connection between atria and ventricles

91
Q

how long is the average delay caused by the AV node

A

0.1 seconds

92
Q

name the 3 phases of the cardiac cycle in order

A

relaxation, ventricular filling, ventricular ejection

93
Q

what major event occurs during relaxation in the cardiac cycle

A

ventricular diastole, closer of semilunar valves resulting in “dup” sound

94
Q

what major event occurs during ventricular filling in the cardiac cycle

A

AV valves open, rapid ventricular filling, atrial systole, end diastolic volume

95
Q

define end diastolic volume

A

volume of blood in the ventricle just prior to contraction

96
Q

what major event occurs during ventricular systole in the cardiac cycle

A

closing of AV valves causing “lub” sound, opening of semilunar valves, ventricular ejection

97
Q

which vessels empty into the right atrium

A

superior/inferior vena cava, coronary sinus

98
Q

which vessels empty into the left atrium

A

4 pulmonary veins

99
Q

what effect does epinephrine/norepinephrine have on heart rate

A

increases heart rate

100
Q

what effect does acetylcholine (ACh) have on heart rate

A

decreases heart rate

101
Q

what is the fossa ovalis

A

shallow depression found in right atrium, remnant of foreman ovale

102
Q

what is the foreman ovale

A

a passage between the R/L atrium, used en uteruo to bipass the lungs

103
Q

define cardiac output

A

total amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute

104
Q

define stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected in one heartbeat

105
Q

what is the function of the bundle of His

A

electrically connects atria & ventricles

106
Q

what is the function of the bundle branches

A

carries impulses to the left and right ventricles

107
Q

what is the function of the purkinje fibers

A

serve as the site of synapse between conduction system and ventricular myocardium

108
Q

what effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the function of the SA node

A

increases SA node firing

109
Q

what effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the function of the AV node

A

decreases AV node delay

110
Q

what effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the function of the SA node

A

decreases SA node firing

111
Q

what effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the function of the AV node

A

increases AV node delay

112
Q

what effect does hypernatremia have on the heart and why

A

slows heart rate down by blocking Ca++ movement into SA node

113
Q

what effect does hypercalcemia have on the heart and why

A

increases heart rate due to the increased amount of Ca++ moving in

114
Q

what effect does hyperkalemia have on the heart and why

A

slows heart rate by inhibiting the repolarization of an action potential

115
Q

what effect does hypercapnia have on the heart and why

A

increases heart rate in an attempt to release CO2 from the body

116
Q

list the characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue

A

striated, branching, multinucleated

117
Q

what is the defining characteristic of cardiac muscle tissue

A

intercalated discs

118
Q

where in the nervous system is the cardiovascular center located

A

in the medula oblongata

119
Q

what are the 3 components of the cardiovascular center

A

cardio acceleratory center, cardio inhibitory center, vasomotor center

120
Q

describe the Starling law of the heart

A

“increase in stretch of cardiac muscle equals stronger contraction”

121
Q

what nerves of the sympathetic nervous system innervate the SA node

A

cardio accelerator nerves

122
Q

what nerves of the sympathetic nervous system innervate the AV node

A

cardio accelerator nerves

123
Q

what nerve of the parasymphathetic nervous system innervates the SA/AV nodes

A

vagus nerve

124
Q

what body conditions cause a sympathetic nervous system response

A

hypoxia, hypercapnia, acidosis, low BP

125
Q

what body conditions cause a parasympathetic nervous system response

126
Q

what does the P wave represent on an EKG

A

atrial depolarization

127
Q

what does the QRS complex represent on an EKG

A

ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization

128
Q

what does the T wave represent on an EKG

A

ventricular repolarization

129
Q

what does an elevated S-T segment on an EKG represent

A

myocardial infarction

130
Q

what part of the heart does the right coronary artery supply nutrients to

A

right atrium, marginal artery & posterior interventricular artery

131
Q

what part of the heart does the marginal artery supply nutrients to

A

anterior and lateral portions of right ventricle

132
Q

what part of the heart does the posterior interventricular artery supply nutrients to

A

posterior side of both ventricles

133
Q

what part of the heart does the left coronary artery supply nutrients to

A

anterior interventricular artery, circumflex artery

134
Q

what part of the heart does the anterior interventricular artery supply nutrients to

A

anterior side of both ventricles

135
Q

what part of the heart does the circumflex artery supply nutrients to

A

left atrium and portion of left ventricle

136
Q

what chemicals are detected by chemoreceptors in cardiovascular system

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, acetylcholine

137
Q

where are the 2 locations of chemoreceptors in the cardiovascular system

A

aortic arch & bifurcation of common carotid artery

138
Q

what is detected by baroreceptors in the cardiovascular system

A

blood pressure

139
Q

what is detected by propioceptors in the cardiovascular system

A

movement, body position

140
Q

describe the papillary muscles

A

fingerlike projections of muscle within heart chambers

141
Q

describe the chordae tendinae

A

connective tissue attached to papillary muscles and AV valves

142
Q

what is the combined function of the papillary muscles and chordae tendinae

A

prevent backflow of blood into atria

143
Q

describe the trabeculae carnae

A

the internal ridges inside the heart wall

144
Q

what is the function of a postive inotropic agent

A

promote increased stroke volume, moves more Ca++ into cell

145
Q

what is the function of a negative inotropic agent

A

promote decreased stroke volume, inhibits Ca++ moving into cell

146
Q

inotropic agents affect the movement of what ion

147
Q

list the 4 heart valves

A

tricuspid valve, bicuspid valve, aortic semilunar valve, pulmonary semilunar valve

148
Q

what 2 structures does the tricuspid valve seperate

A

right atrium/right ventricle

149
Q

what 2 structures does the pulmonary semilunar valve seperate

A

right ventricle/pulmonary trunk

150
Q

what 2 structures does the bicuspid valve seperate

A

left atrium/left ventricle

151
Q

what 2 structures does the aortic semilunar valve seperate

A

left ventricle/ascending aorta

152
Q

what event causes the “lub” sound of the heart

A

closing of AV valves

153
Q

what event causes the “dup” sound of the heart

A

closing of semilunar valves

154
Q

define heart murmur

A

abnormal heart sounds

155
Q

define valve stenosis

A

valve flaps become stiff and narrowed, restricting blood flow

156
Q

define incompetent valve

A

valve fails to close, results in backflow of blood

157
Q

define mitral valve prolapse

A

flaps of mitral valve become inverted

158
Q

define arrhythmias

A

abnormal heart rate

159
Q

define fibrillation

A

uncoordinated/quivering heartbeat

160
Q

define heart block

A

inability of impulse to reach ventricles

161
Q

define ischemia

A

decreased blood flow

162
Q

define angina pectoralis

A

chest pain related to coronary problems

163
Q

define endocarditis

A

inflammation of the endocardium

164
Q

name the 3 types of capillaries

A

continuous capillary, fenestrated capillary, sinusoid

165
Q

which type of capillary is the most common

A

continous capillary

166
Q

where can continuous capillaries be found

A

skeletal muscle, smooth muscle, lungs

167
Q

which capillary supplies most tissues

A

continuous capillary

168
Q

which type of capillary is designed to move large volumes of substances

A

fenestrated capillary

169
Q

where are fenestrated capillaries found

A

kidney, small intestine and brain

170
Q

which type of capillary is designed to move large molecules ie blood cells or proteins

171
Q

where are sinusoids found

A

spleen, liver and bone marrow

172
Q

what is the purpose of bulk flow in the capillaries

A

allows for large amounts of ions and molecules to move within a fluid, allows for filtration and reabsorption

173
Q

list the 3 pressures that affect bulk flow in the capillaries

A

NFP, CHP, BCOP

174
Q

define NFP

A

net filtration pressure

175
Q

define CHP

A

capillary hydrostatic pressure

176
Q

define BCOP

A

blood colloid osmotic pressure

177
Q

what causes NFP

A

the difference between forces favoring filtration and those opposing it

178
Q

what causes CHP

A

blood pushing against the walls of the vessel

179
Q

what causes BCOP

A

plasma proteins in the blood

180
Q

does CHP favor reasorption or filtration

A

filtration

181
Q

does BCOP favor reabsorption or filtration

A

reabsorption

182
Q

which capillary pressure changes significantly from one end of the capillary to the other end

A

CHP, pressure created by heart beat

183
Q

describe the structure of the elastic arteries

A

large in diameter, contain elastic fibers, have a thick tunica externa and tunica media

184
Q

describe the structure of muscular arteries

A

contain extra smooth muscle

185
Q

describe the structure of arterioles

A

small arteries

186
Q

describe the structure of capillaries

A

have only tunica interna

187
Q

describe the structure of venules

A

no valves in lumen

188
Q

describe the structure of veins

A

have all 3 tunicas, tunica media is thin, large collapsed lumens, contain 1 way valves

189
Q

describe the function of elastic arteries

A

carry blood away from the heart

190
Q

describe the function of muscular arteries

A

distribute blood to different large areas of the body

191
Q

describe the function of arterioles

A

responsible for blood supply to tissues

192
Q

describe the function of capillaries

A

nutrient/waste exchange

193
Q

describe the function of venules

A

facilitate blood flow back to heart

194
Q

describe the function of veins

A

facilitate blood flow back to heart

195
Q

by what process do most substances move across the capillary wall

196
Q

by what process do proteins move across the capillary wall

A

transcytosis (endocytosis on one side-exocytosis on the other side)

197
Q

describe a metarteriole

A

a vessel that connects an arteriole to 10-100 capillaries (capillary bed)

Anatomy and Physiology 2 (4 decks)

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