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Micro > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

enveloped viruses are sensitive to…

A

detergent and bleach`

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2
Q

what a virus needs for infection

A

tropism - enough numbers, accessible, susceptible and permissive entry point, down defenses

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3
Q

measles

A

cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, 2-3days later are Koplik spots, 3-5 days later is rash

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4
Q

encounter and spread of measles

A

airbourne droplets, spread in respiratory tract to blood and skin

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5
Q

complications of measles

A

encephalitis and sub-acute sclerosing pan-encephalitis years later

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6
Q

rubella

A

usually very short, but is teratogenic

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7
Q

mumps

A

swelling of salivary glands, self resolving, transmitted by respiratory droplets

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8
Q

erythema infectuosum

A

parvovirus B19, cold followed by rash, contagious prior to rash but not after it appears

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9
Q

sketchy symptoms of measels

A

four Cs - cough, coryza, conjunctivitis and koplik spots

  • confluent rash
  • can cause pneumonia and SSPE
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10
Q

measles, mumps and rubella

A

measels - 4Cs, SSPE
Mumps - parotid, self resolving
rubella- mild, shorter than measels, causes birth defects in babies

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11
Q

parvovirus B19

A

causes erythema infectuosum

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12
Q

RIDT

A

rapid influenza diagnostic testing, for flu. can use viral culture and PCR to confirm

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13
Q

HA

A

binds sialic acid receptor and fuses membrane

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14
Q

NA

A

cleaves sialic acid, releases virions from cell surface

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15
Q

type A flu

A

migratory birds are reservoir, only one with antigenic shift

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16
Q

type B flu

A

only in humans

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17
Q

how does antigenic shift happen

A

pigs infected with both avian and human flu, leading to shift

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18
Q

highly virulent but mildly contagious illness

A

avian flu

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19
Q

types of flu vaccines

A

normal: H1N1, H3N2, and type B
healthcare worker: flulaval, fluzone, afluria
recombinant: flublok

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20
Q

how do antivirals for flu work

A

oseltamivir, zanamivir, peramivir - block neuraminidase

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21
Q

most common cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV, high risk in premature, disease, immunocompromised

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22
Q

palivizumab

A

used for passive immunization in children from RSV

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23
Q

coronaviruses

A

SARS and common cold and MERS

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24
Q

adenoviruses

A

infection of tonsils, acute pneumonia in military recruits, public pools (pink eye)

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25
Q

how pathogens enter brain

A
  1. CSF via choroid plexus

2. direct infection

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26
Q

CSF features in encephalitis

A

pleocytosis, high protein, normal glucose

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27
Q

HSV-1 encephalitis

A

temporal lobe, can be treated, use PCR, peripheral nerve entry

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28
Q

drug of choice in HSV encephalitis

A

acyclovir

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29
Q

EEE

A

entry in blood by mosquitoes, severe, no treatment

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30
Q

west nile

A

from the clux mosquito, not direct patient to patient, encephalitis and flaccid paralysis

31
Q

two types of rabies

A
  1. encephalitic

2. paralytic

32
Q

negri bodies

A

eosinophilic cytomplasmic inclusions in neurons

33
Q

HIV 1 vs 2

A

differ in composition of env

34
Q

cells with CD4 receptors

A

T cells, dendritic cells

macrophages, glial cells, gut ephithelium, BM progenitor cells

35
Q

HIV co receptors

A

CCR5 - early

CXCR4 later

36
Q

gut in HIV

A

destruction of GALT, release of LPS, early fibrosis of gut mucosa

37
Q

opportunistic infections and CD numbers

A

PCP -200
Tox - 100
MAC - 50

38
Q

IRIS

A

immune reconstituion inflammatory syndrome - myco, PCP, toxo, CMV, crypto, with high viral load and CD4 counts

39
Q

Candidiasis in HIV

A

200, in mouth or esophogitis - treated with azoles

40
Q

PCP in HIV

A

200, ground glass appearance, use BAL for diagnosis or methenamine silver stain

41
Q

cryptococcis in HIV

A

200, no primary prophylaxis meningitis,

diagnosis - india ink, encapsulated, halos

42
Q

treatment of cryptococcus

A

amphotericin B followed flucytosine by fluconazole

43
Q

MAC in HIV

A

50 - fever, night sweats, weight loss, anemia, alk phos, LDH, IRIS, *blood isolator

treat with azithromycin

44
Q

Toxo in HIV

A

100 - CNS and chorioretinitis, ring enhancing lesions,

45
Q

CMV in HIV

A

50 - retinitis*, vision loss, esophogitis and colitis

46
Q

treatment of CMV

A

ganciclovir

47
Q

dengue

A

aedes aegypti mosquitos, break bone fever, thrombocytopenia, hemorrhagic fever, renal failure - no treatment besides hydration

  • positive tourniquet test (more bleeding)
48
Q

chikungunya

A

joint pain and swelling, treatment is supportive

49
Q

yellow fever

A

jaundice, back ache, bloody diarrhea and vomiting, has live vaccine, deep in jungle, PRNT test

50
Q

polio

A

fecal-oral, very stable, anterior horn of LMN cell bodies, asymmetric paralysis, meningitis

51
Q

coxsackie

A

A: hand foot and mouth disease, meningitis

B: dilated cardiomyopathy, devils grip - sharp pain (pleurodynia)

52
Q

rotavirus

A

watery diarrhea, NSP4, children in winter, rotatex and rotarix

53
Q

norovirus

A

low infectious dose, food bourne illness, abrupt symptoms, shellfish, explosive diahrrea

54
Q

virus in craniospinal ganglia

A

HSV-1 (trigeminal)

55
Q

virus in sacral ganglia

A

HSV2

56
Q

herpetic whitlow

A

herpes virus in fingers of dentists

57
Q

keratitis

A

in ocular HSV infections

58
Q

temporal lobe infection

A

HSV, only treatable one

59
Q

virus in DRG

A

VZV

60
Q

small pox vs chicken pox

A

small pox - all the same age, centrifugal pattern, slow

chicken pox - all different ages, centripital pattern, fast

61
Q

molluscum contagiosum

A

in young children, in adults with HIV

62
Q

postherpetic neuralgia

A

pain after shingles infection

63
Q

EBV

A

causes mono, kissing disease, targets B lymphocytes

64
Q

3 cancers with EBV

A

Burkitts
lymphoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma
oral hairy leukoplakia

65
Q

malaria mosquito

A

anopheles

66
Q

describe life cycle of malaria

A

sporozoite enters from mosquito, infects hepatocyte, merozoite is released, infects RBC, immature trophozoite is formed, schizonts are released from RBC and attach to vessels, can also form gametocytes and can be taken up by mosquito bite

67
Q

differences in malaria species

A

falciparum - all RBCs, sequester in microvasculature
vivax and ovale - reticulocytes, can be dormant in liver
malariae - older RBCs

68
Q

PfEMP1

A

highly variant antigen on RBC knobs, leads to accumulation of RBCs in vessels

69
Q

terian vs quartan malaria

A

3 vs 4 days of fever, 4 = malariae

70
Q

pathogenesis of immune response in malaria

A
  • parasites release GPI - cytokines

- quinine-dependent thrombocytopenia

71
Q

host genetics importance in malaria

A

pfemp1, duffy blood group antigens, sickle cell trait, G6PD

72
Q

treatment of malaria in pregnancy

A

chloroquine, quinine plus clindamcin, mefloquine

  • not primaquine due to G6PD
73
Q

mechanism of resistance in malaria

A

pfcrt transport protein

  • P450 metabolism
  • K13 propeller gene in artemisinin
74
Q

basics of malaria treatment

A
  1. start with chloroquine - blocks heme polymerization
  2. if resistant use mefloquine or atovaquone/proguanil
  3. if bad use quinidine
  4. primaquine for hypnozoites

Micro (7 decks)

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