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histology (E1 Woods) > test 2 > Flashcards

test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what does the parathyroid hormone stimulate osteoblasts to secrete?

A

M-CSF; RANKL

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2
Q

what are the 3 major classes of cartilage

A

hyaline cartilage
elastic cartilage
fibrocartilage

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3
Q

what does the skeletal system in all vertebrates begin as

A

cartilage

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4
Q

what are the cell components of cartilage

A

chondroblasts (cartilage-forming cells)

chondrocytes (cartilage-maintenance cells)

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5
Q

what are the components of the extracellular matrix of cartilage

A 
collagen fibers (mostly type 2 (type 1 in fibrocartilage))
amorphous grous substance
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6
Q

what are the functions of cartilage

A 
compressible
resists distortion
absorbs shock in joints
reduces friction in movable joints
necessary for endochondral bone growth
involved in bone fracture repair
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7
Q

what is characteristic of cartilage formation

A
  • chondroblasts (lay down cartilage matrix and becomes chondrocytes)
  • chondrocytes (maintain cartilage matrix)
  • lacunae: pockets within the matrix where the chondroblasts and chondrocytes are found
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8
Q

what is the perichondrium

A

it surrounds cartilage and is a membrane-like layer

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9
Q

what is the outer and inner layers of the perichondrium consists of

A

outer fibrous layer: contains fibroblasts
inner chondrogenic layer (cartilage forming layer): gives rise to chondroblasts, which become chondrocytes. Chondrocyte is involved in the production of the collagen and proteoglycans in the matrix. Chondrocytes also secrete chondronectin

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10
Q

what secretes chondronectin

A

chondrocytes

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11
Q

what is an isogenous group

A

groups of 2-8 chondroctes occupying the same lacunae. Result of mitotic division. Cells will become separated as they begin to lay down matrix of their own

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12
Q

What are the components of the cartilage matrix

A
  • collagen type 2 (1 in fibrocartilage)
  • hyaluronan (hyaluronic acid)
  • chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate, herparin sulfate
  • glycosaminoglycans
  • territorial matrix: surrounds each chondrocyte (high glycosaminoglycan content; low collagen content)
  • inter-territorial matrix: surrounds territorial matrix (low glycosaminoglycan content; high collagen)
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13
Q

what are characteristics of hyaline cartilage

A
  • most common type
  • avascular
  • type 2 collagen
  • surrounded by perichondrium
  • translucent, bluish gray to white
  • solid but flexible
  • chondrocytes are found in cell groups
  • growth patterns: appositional, interstitial
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14
Q

where is hyaline cartilage found

A 
external auditory meatus
larynx
tracheal cartilage
bronchial cartilage
fetal long bones
articular ends of bones
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15
Q

what are characteristics of elastic cartilage

A

*specialized by addition of elastic fibers
* surrounded by perichondrium
*yellow color because of presence of elastic fibers
* more opaque, flexible and elastic than hyaline cartilage
*chondrocytes mostly located singly
type 2 collagen + elastic fibers

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16
Q

where is elastic cartilage found

A

auricle (pinna) of the ear

epiglottis

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17
Q

what are characteristics of fibrocartilage

A
  • increased collagen in matrix
  • reduced cellularity compared to hyaline cartilage
  • not surrounded by perichondrium
  • opaque appearance from fibrous texture
  • type I collagen
  • single sparse chondrocytes
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18
Q

where is fibrocartilage found

A

intervertebral discs
pubic symphysis
insertion of some tendons and ligaments
closely associated with dense connective tissue or hyaline cartilage

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19
Q

what is the lucanar rim

A

Inner layer of the territorial matrix. it consists of loose collagen fibrils

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20
Q

what does the territorial matrix consist of

A

randomly arranged type 2 collagen fibrils surrounded by proteoglycans

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21
Q

what does Sox 9 do

A

controls the expression of type 2 collagen and then proteoglycan aggrecan

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22
Q

what type of system is bone tissue based on

A

canalicular system

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23
Q

how does increase in bone length occur

A

through appositional growth of hyaline cartilage model

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24
Q

what are the 2 main components of the bone matrix

A 
organic component (osteoid)
inorganic component (hydroxyapatite) which makes up 35-65% of the matrix
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25
Q

what are the 3 types of bone

A 
woven bone (occurs during bone development and bone repair)
compact bone (also called lamellar bone)
spongy bone (also called trabecular or cancellous bone)
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26
Q

what are characteristics of compact bone

A
  • lacks cavities and forms a dense plate
  • Haversian lamellae that encircle a central blood vessel forming an osteon
  • osteocytes are found between the lamellae located in lacunae & are connected to each other and the Haversian canal via canaliculi
  • volkmann’s canals run perpendicular to the haversian cancels
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27
Q

what are characteristics of trabecular (spongy) bone

A

3D lattice of branching, bony spicules intertwined to form trabeculae surrounding the bone marrow spaces in the long bones and flat bones

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28
Q

what does the endosteum consists of

A

osteoprogenitor cells & reticular fibers

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29
Q

what are sharpey’s fibers

A

collagen fibers derived from the outer layer of periosteum, projecting into the outer circumferential lamellar system (connect bone to marrow)

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30
Q

what provides nutrients to osteocytes

A

a blood vessels within the haversian canal

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31
Q

what is alkaline phosphatase

A

an ectoenzyme (cell surface enzyme) that hydrolyzes monophosphate esters at high pH

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32
Q

what are osteoprogenitor cells

A
  • stem cells (in adults are described as bone lining cells)
  • in adults, found in inner portion of periosteum, endosteum, and lining of vascular canals of compact bone
  • derived from mesenchyme of the embryonic sometime and possess mitotic potential
  • give rise to osteoblasts and bone lining cells
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33
Q

what are osteocytes

A

derived from osteoblasts and are trapped by the matrix they secete

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34
Q

what are osteoclast cells

A
  • maintain matrix that is already there and play role in uptake and release of phosphates and calcium
  • derived from monocyte lineage, which, in turn, is derived form the monocyte precursors in bone marrow
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35
Q

where does the ARF cycle occur

A

at adult remodeling sites and during development

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36
Q

what does vitamin D3 do for bones

A

regulates expression of osteoclaclin

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37
Q

what is the parathyroid hormone (PTH) the primary regulator for

A

bone turnover

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38
Q

what occurs at low and high PTH levels in bone formation

A

low: bone formation by osteoblasts is stimulated
high: osteoblasts are stimulated to release osteoclasts-differentiation factors

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39
Q

what are the steps for osteoblast regulation of osteoclasts

A

PTH binds to recepts on osteoblast
osteoblasts stimulated to synthesize MCSF and RANKL
osteoblasts releases M-CSF
M-CSF binds to M-CSF receptor
monocyte is now a macrophage and expresses RANK
RANK BINDS TO RANKL
macrophage becomes a multinucleate immature osteoclast
osteblast secretes protegerin
non-functional osteoclast uncouples form the osteoblast and becomes a functional osteoclast
calcitonin acts to reduce bone resorption

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40
Q

what signals control the aggregation of mesenchymal cells

A

Wnt, Hedghog, FGF, TGF-beta

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41
Q

what is the mass called when osteoblasts secrete osteiod and trap some of the osteoblasts

A

blastema

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42
Q

what does osteoid include

A

collagen 1 and non-collagen proteins

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43
Q

what does the primary ossification center in intramembranous bone become

A

trabecular

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44
Q

what do numerous trabecular fusing together form

A

spongy bone

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45
Q

what is the network of cartilage matrix calcified by

A

the deposition of calcium salts

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46
Q

what are the parts of the epiphyseal plate

A

reserve zone, proliferative zone, hypertrophic zone, and vascular invasion zone

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47
Q

where does ossification of bone first occur

A

diaphysis

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48
Q

what is proliferation of bone stimulated by

A

indian hedgehog

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49
Q

what is the template for long bone

A

hyaline cartilage

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50
Q

what forms the periosteal collar

A

osteoprogenitor cells of the perichondrium

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51
Q

what is the metaphysis

A

part of the diaphysis nearest the epiphysis

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52
Q

describe each zone of endochondral ossificaiton

A

reserve: primitive hyaline cartilage responsible for the growth in length of the bone as erosion and bone deposition advance into this zone
proliferative: proliferating chondrocytes align as vertical and parallel column
hypertrophic: apoptosis of chondrocytes and calcification of the terroritial matrix
vascular invasion: blood vessels penetrate the transverse calcified septa, and carry osteoprogenitor cells with them

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53
Q

how does bone grow in length

A
  1. ossification front invades and destroys the chondrocytes and passes through the site previously occupied by the chondrocytes
  2. calcification of the cartilage matrix surrounding hypertrophic chondrocytes
  3. proliferating chondrocytes away from the ossification front increase the length of the cartilage
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54
Q

what are the stages of periosteal bone growth

A
  1. new aversion system forms under the periosteum
  2. ridges fuse and the groove becomes a bony tunnel enclosing the blood vessel
  3. additional bone lamellae are deposited around the tunnel, which is then converted into the aversion canal containing a blood vessel
  4. the aversion vessel continues to receive blood through the canals of volkmann extending obliquely across the diaphysis
  5. when bone reaches full size, and inner circumferential lamellae provide the boundaries of the compact bone consisting of aversion systems, interstitial lamellae are found between aversion systems
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55
Q

what are the steps of compact bone remodeling (within an osteon)

A
  1. activation
  2. resorption
  3. reversal
  4. formation
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56
Q

what is a joint

A

where 2 bones come together

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57
Q

what is a cartilaginous joint (amphiarthroses)

A

bones are joined by hyaline or fibrocartilage

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58
Q

what are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints

A

symphysis: joined by fibrocartilage (i.e: intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis)
synchondrosis: joined by hyaline cartilage (idl epiphyseal plates and first sternocostal joint)

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59
Q

what are the types of fibrous joints (synarthroses)

A

suture: joints between bones of the calvaria
gomphosis (some type of connective tissue holding it in socket): peg-in-the-socket joint such as teeth in alveoli
syndesmosis (bones joined by interposes flat membrane (allow a bit of movement between): idl fibrous membrane between tibia and fibula

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60
Q

what are synovial joints

A

movable joints exemplified by a connective capsule surrounding a fluid-filled joint space
often reinforced by thickenings of the outer part of the capsule referred to as ligaments
ligaments stabilize the capsule and joint
ligaments control and restrict direction and range of motion

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61
Q

what are the types of synovial joints based on degrees of freedom of movement:

A

monoaxial (hinge and pivot)
biaxial (condyloid and saddle [sellaris])
triaxial: ball and socket

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62
Q

what are components of the histology of the synovial joint?

A

articular cartilage; hyaline cartilage,lacks perichondrium. not lined by synovial membrane
joint capsule: vascular dense CT, lined by synovial membrane, attached to edges of articular cartilage
synovial membrane: highly vascularized, 1-3 layers of synovial cells, no basal lamina
synovial fluid: contains mucin, produced by synovial cells
synovial cells: type A (macrophage-like) and type B (fibroblast-like)

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63
Q

what is the pH range for blood

A

7.35-7.45

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64
Q

define plasma

A

blood minus formed elements

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65
Q

define serum

A

plasma without the blood clotting elements

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66
Q

3 layers of heparinized and centrifuged blood

A

supernatant (plasma)
buffy coat (leukocytes)
precipitate (sedimented RBC)

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67
Q

define blood clot

A

fibrin-containing network trapping blood cells

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68
Q

what are the major contents of erythrocytes

A

lipids, ATP, carbonic anhydrase, hemoglobin

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69
Q

what are the proteins found in erythrocytes

A 
about 50% are integral membrane proteins
peripheral proteins (spectrin and actin)
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70
Q

what are the 3 proteins involved in spectrin tetramers

A

actin, tropomyosin, protein 4.1

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71
Q

what does protein 4.1 do

A

links the actin-tropomyosin complex to glycophorin

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72
Q

what is adducin

A

calmodulin-binding protein that stimulates the association of actin with spectrin

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73
Q

what is the major structural protein of RBC

A

spectrin

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74
Q

define spectrin

A

tetramer of 2 polypeptide chains (alpha and beta). The ends of the spectrin tetramers associate with short actin filaments, resulting in the spectrin-actin network.

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75
Q

what does ankyrin do

A

links the spectrin-actin network and the plasma membrane by binding to spectra and a transmembrane protein (band 3)

76
Q

what are characteristics of neutrophils

A
  • also referred to as polymorphonuclear
  • nuclear lobes with connecting strands
  • active amoeboid phagocytes
  • small, numerous granules
  • larger less numerous azurophilic granules
  • live for 1-2 days after leaving circulation
77
Q

what doe the enzymes secreted by neutrophils do

A

they are capable of destroying certain bacteria by formation of free radicals (superoxide) as well as the release of lysozyme and lactoferrin, which destroy bacterial walls

78
Q

what are some characteristics of basophils

A
  • lobulated nucleus (bilobed)
  • large, membrane-bound basophilic granules
    contain: serotonin, heparin, kalikrein
  • can produce leukotrienes
79
Q

what do leukotrienes do

A

increases vascular permeability and slows contraction of smooth muscles

80
Q

what are characteristics of eosinophils

A

bilobed nucleus
Major basic protein
peroxidase
cationic protein
respond to allergic diseases and parasitic infections
phagocytize antibody-antigen complexes and parasites

81
Q

what do major basic proteins do

A

disrupt parasite membranes

cause basophils to release histamine

82
Q

what does cationic protein do

A

neutralizes heparin and is anti-parasitic

83
Q

what does eosinophil peroxidase do

A

binds to microorganisms and facilitates their killing by macrophages

84
Q

what are characteristics of lymphocytes

A

large round, sometimes slightly indented nucleus; fills most of cell
variation in cell size
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes

85
Q

what are B lymphocytes the precursor for

A

plasma cells

86
Q

hat are T lymphocytes the precursor for

A

T lymphocytes

87
Q

what are characteristics of monocytes

A

largest leukocytes
eccentrically located, kidney-shaped nucleus
granular cytoplasm due to small lysosomes
precursor of macrophages and osteoclasts

88
Q

what are characteristics of platelets

A

enhance aggregation by release of factors, and they promote clot formation, retraction and dissolution
repair damage to endothelium by forming platelet plug
adhesion of platelets involves integrins
platelets release thromboxane which increases platelet aggregation
endothelial cells release prostacyclin which decrease platelet aggregation

89
Q

what are the 4 types of granules in the cytoplasm of platelets

A

alpha granules, dense core granules, lysosomes, peroxisomes

90
Q

define hemostasis

A

elimination of bleeding

91
Q

define hematoma

A

accumulation of blood in tissues

92
Q

what is the sequence of hemostatic events in small vessels

A

constriction of smooth muscles around vessels–> constriction of vessels–> slowing of blood–> formation of platelet plug –> blood clotting (coagulation)

93
Q

what is von willebrand factor

A

plasma protein, released from weibel-palade bodies in endothelial cells, that facilitates the adherence of platelets to the walls of damaged blood vessels

94
Q

what factor must be present for the fibrin meshwork to form

A

factor XIII

95
Q

what occurs during phase 1 of blood clotting

A

1 activated platelets released
2 endothelial cells release tissue factor, which binds to factor VIIIa to convert X into factor Xa and initiate the common pathway of blood clotting
3 endothelins, stimulate smooth muscle contraction and proliferation of endothelial cells and fibroblasts to accelerate the repair process

96
Q

what occurs during phase 2 of blood clotting

A
  1. fibronectin in plasma binds to activated integrin receptors, and platelets are bridged to each other
    5 thrombin acts on fibrinogen to cleave fibropeptides and form a fiber monomer
    6 fibrin monomers aggregate to form a soft fibrin clot, factor XIII cross-links fibrin monomers. platelets and fibrin form a hemostatic plug
97
Q

what occurs during phase 3 of blood clotting

A
  1. plasminogen is converted to plasma by tissue plasminogen activator
    8 plasmin dissolves the fibrin clot
98
Q

what typically initiates the intrinsic pathway

A

injury to the endothelium of the blood vessel exposing collagen fibers

99
Q

what is thromboplastin

A

membrane-bound lipoprotein expressed at sites of cell injury; it is derived from the plasma or organelle membranes of damaged cells in the disrupted tissue and enters into the circulating blood

100
Q

what all does factor XII activate

A

factor XI

prekallikrein to kallikrein

101
Q

what does factor XI activate

A

factor IX

102
Q

what activates factor X (intrinsic pathway)

A

factor IX with activated Factor VIII and calcium

103
Q

what activates factor VIII

A

thrombin

104
Q

what leads to the activation of factor VII

A

thromboplastin

105
Q

what activates factor X (extrinsic pathway)

A

activated factor VII and calcium

106
Q

where are most clotting factors synthesized

A

liver

107
Q

what factors need vitamin K present in order to be synthesized

A

factors VII, IX, X

108
Q

what activates the homing mechanism

A

various cytokines released by mast cells, platelets, and damaged tissue cells

109
Q

where are P-selectins from

A

weibel-palade bodies

110
Q

what does the binding of ligands on P-selectins cause

A

leukocytes to roll along the endothelium

111
Q

what are sialyl lewis-x antigens

A

oligosaccharide ligands for P-selectin binding found on leukocyte membranes

112
Q

where are integrin receptors activated

A

on leukocyte membrane

113
Q

what are the 3 general steps of homing and inflammation

A

1 rolling and attachment
2 adhesion
3 transendothelial migration

114
Q

what is the major cause of Rh incompatibility

A

D antigen

115
Q

what does hemolysis in erythroblastosis fettles result in

A
  • hemolytic anemia which causes hypoxic injury to the heart and liver leading to generalized edema (hydrous fettles)
  • jaundice which causes damage to the CNS
  • hyperbilirubinemia
116
Q

define totipotent

A

cells that can gives rise to all cells of an organism, including embryonic and extra embryonic tissues

117
Q

define pluripotent

A

cells that can give rise to all cells of the embryo and subsequently adult tissues

118
Q

define multipotent

A

cells that can gives rise to different cell types of a given lineage (adult stem cells)

119
Q

what are characteristics of embryonic stem cells

A
  • derived from inner cell mass of blastocyst
  • pluripotent, differentiate to all cell lineages
  • technical and ethical limitations
  • may be induced from adult tissues
120
Q

what are characteristics of adult stem cells

A

harvested from mature organs/tissues
multipotent
more restricted ability to produce different cell types and to self-renew

121
Q

what occurs during the 2-8 weeks of gestation (hematopoietic sites)

A
  • islands of hematopoiesis are found in then yolk sac wall
  • give rise to nucleated erythrocytes from 2-8 weeks of gestation
  • no leukocytes form during this phase
122
Q

what occurs during 8-28 weeks of gestation (hematopoietic sites)

A

hematopoiesis first occurs in the liver and then the spleen

normally ceases around the time of birth

123
Q

what is the stroma

A
  • contains fibroblasts, reticular cells, adipose cells, and endothelial cells
  • synthesizes and secretes hematopoietic growth factors
124
Q

what is the parenchyma

A

*consists of various lineages of hematopoietic cells in different stages of differentiation

125
Q

what are sinusoids

A
  • endothelial-lined spaces that connect arterial and venous vessels
  • provides access for mature blood cells to move into the circulation
126
Q

what are hematopoietic cords

A

bands of parenchyma and stroma lying between the sinusoids

127
Q

what are the 2 kinds of multi potential precursor cells in hematopoietic stem cells

A

myeloid (give rise to all blood cell lines except lymphocytes)
lymphoid (give rise to lymphocytes)

128
Q

what is the series for Granulocyte-macrophage CFU

A

*monoblast–> promonocyte–> monocyte–> macrophage
or
* myeloblast–> promyelocyte–> myelocyte–> metamyelocyte–> band cell–> neutrophil

129
Q

how are monocytes recognized

A

by the indented nucleus

130
Q

what is a macrophage called that is in bone

A

osteoclast

131
Q

what is a macrophage called that is in skin

A

langerhans cells

132
Q

what is a macrophage called in the liver

A

kupffer cell

133
Q

what is the series for eosinophil and basophil CFUs

A

myeloblast–> promyelocyte–> myelocyte–> metomyelocyte–> band cell–> eosinophil or basphil (which becomes mast cell)

134
Q

what is the series for megakaryocytic CFU

A

megakaryoblast–> megokaryocyte–> platelets

135
Q

what is the series for erythroid CFU

A

proerythroblast–> basophilic erythroblast–> polychromatophilic erythroblast–> orthochromatic erythroblast–> reticulocyte–> erythrocyte

136
Q

what are characteristics of colony-stimulating factors

A

GM-CSF: produced by endothelial cells, T cells, fibroblasts, monocytes, stimulates granulocytopoiesis and monocytopoiesis, ameliorates neutropenia associated with chemotherapy or radiation therapy
G-CSF: produced by endothelial cells/fibroblasts/macrophages, directs CFU-G to proliferate and differentiate into myeloblasts, may be used following chemotherapy or radiation therapy
monocyte-colony stimulating factor: commits CFU-GM to monocytic pathway

137
Q

what does erythropoietin do

A
  • directions CFU-E to proliferate and differentiate into pro erythroblasts
  • produced in kidney response to decrease in oxygen saturation
138
Q

what does thrombopoietin do

A

*directs formation of megokarytoblasts
* produced in proximal convoluted tubules of kidney
produced in parenchymal cells and sinusoidal endothelial cells of liver
no therapeutic use

139
Q

what doe cytokines do

A

mediate positive and negative affects on cellular quiescence apoptosis, proliferation, and differentiation
engage specific receptors and activate a variate of signaling pathways

140
Q

what do chemokines do

A

regulate blood cell trafficking and homing sites of need
may serve as positive and negative growth regulators
bind to guanine protein-coupled transmembrane receptors

141
Q

what are characteristics of type 1 myofibers

A

*intense staining for oxidative enzymes
* rich in NADH transferase, myoglobin, ATPase
*posses many mitochondria
*primarily utilize oxidative phosphorylation
produce slow and continuous contraction
dark/red fibers

142
Q

what are characteristics of type 2a myofibers

A

intermediate staining
use aerobic and anaerobic respiration
contract more rapidly than type 1
resistance to fatigue

143
Q

what are characteristics of type 2Bmyofibers

A 
light staining
primarily anaerobic
contract quickly
fatigue quickly
white/light fibers
144
Q

how do the cells of cardiac muscle communicate

A

gap junctions (intercalated discs)

145
Q

what does the perimysium consist of

A

fibroblasts and type 1 collagen fibers

146
Q

what does the endomysium consist of

A

basal lamina and reticular collagen fibers

147
Q

what does the basal lamina of the endomysium secreted by and do

A

secreted by muscle cells
anchors muscle fibers to each other
helps to distribute the force of contraction

148
Q

how are sarcomeres separated

A

by transverse disks called Z bands/discs

149
Q

what does creatine kinase do

A

catalyzes a reversible reaction generating creatine and ATP from the hydrolysis of creatine phosphate

150
Q

what does create phosphate derive from and do

A

derives from mitochondria

shuttles phosphate groups between mitochondria and the myofibril

151
Q

what are characteristics of the thick myofilaments

A

myosinL dimeric protein with long tails and 2 heads at one end
each head has actin binding region, atp-binding region, light-chain binding region
2 pairs of light chains: similar to calmodulin but have lost ability to bind calcium

152
Q

what provides the driving force for movement

A

myosin II

153
Q

what are characteristics of thin myofilaments

A

F actin: polymer of G actin, each filament consists of 2 polymers wound in alpha-helix, plus end inserts on Z-disc

154
Q

what are the actin associated molecules

A

troponin:
tropomyosin: sits in the groove between 2 actin strand on actin filament

155
Q

what are the types of troponin and what do they do

A

I: inhibits binding between actin and myosin
C: binds calcium ions
T: binds to tropomyosin

156
Q

define T tubules

A

extensions of the sarcolemma that extend down into the sarcoplasm (located at the A-I junctions)

157
Q

what do T tubules do

A

provide electrochemical coupling myofiber contraction by transferring the AP of the sarcolemma into Ca++ release from the cisternae

158
Q

what does A-beta-crystallin do

A

heat shock protein that protects desmin from mechanical stress

159
Q

what does dystrophin do

A

links the alpha-actinin/desmin complex to cytoplasmic side of sarcolemma. anchors actin to sarcolemma and reinforces sarcolemma during muscle contraction

160
Q

what does dystroglycan complex do

A

links dystrophin and laminin-2

161
Q

what does alpha-actinin do

A

attaches thin filaments to Z line

162
Q

what does Titin do

A

extends from the Z-disk to the middle of H band and connects ends of thick filaments to Z line. Provides myosin with elasticity and centers thick filaments in sarcomere

163
Q

what does the desmin intermediate filaments do

A

framework of desmin filaments which surrounds the Z line and extends into each sarcomere.
Links myofibrils laterally and to the sarcolemma

164
Q

what does plectin do

A

binds desmin filaments

165
Q

what does nebulin do

A

extends from Z disc to end of actin filament

serves as template to regulate length of actin filament

166
Q

what does dystrophin do

A

links actin filaments to transmembrane proteins of muscle cell plasma membranes

167
Q

what does muscular dystrophy result in

A

X-linked inherited disease that results in progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

168
Q

what do mutations of desmin, plectin and alpha-B-crystallin cause

A

fragility of the myofibrils and their destruction after continuous stress

169
Q

what is the function of satellite cells

A

attach to myotubes before basal lamina is laid down and function as stem cells.
give rise to myogenic precursor cells: replace damaged muscle by proliferating, fusing, and differentiating into skeletal muscle fibers

170
Q

what are the components of neuromuscular spindle

A

extrafusal fibers, intrafusal fibers, alpha motor neurons, gamma motor neurons, gamma motor fibers, primary and secondary afferent fibers

171
Q

what do gamma efferent (motor) fibers do

A

derived from neurons in the spinal cord, innervate the contractile region of the intrafusal fibers of the spindle. The axon terminates in motor end plates

172
Q

compare smooth and cardiac muscle

A

nucleation: both mono
nucleus location: both central
T tubules: smooth doesn’t have it, cardiac does
communication: both via gap junctions
arrangement: smooth is non-sarcomeric, cardiac is sarcomeric

173
Q

compare T tubules of cardiac and skeletal

A

cardiac: each T tubules interact with one cistern and forms diad
skeletal: each T tubule interacts with 2 cistern and forms triad

174
Q

where are the diads located in cardiac muscle

A

at the Level of the Z lines

175
Q

what is the composition of the intercalated discs of cardiac muscle

A

macula adherens: link intermediate filaments of adjoining cardiac muscles
fascia adherents: anchor actin filaments of sarcomeres
gap junctions

176
Q

what is located in the transverse or longitudinal component of the intercalated disc

A

transverse: macula adherens and fascia adherens
longitudinal: gap junctions

177
Q

where are the triad of skeletal muscle found

A

at the A-I junction

178
Q

what secretes ANP

A

cardiac muscle cells in atria

179
Q

what do ANPs do

A

regulate fluid electrolyte balance

relax vascular smooth muscle (reduces blood volume and pressure)

180
Q

what is the release of ANP stimulated by and result in

A

stimulated by atrial stretch

results in cleavage of prohormone

181
Q

how is ANP stored

A

as prohormone in secretory vesicles

182
Q

where is the meshwork of actin and myosin bundles of smooth muscle cells found

A

throughout cytoplasm except in nuclear area

183
Q

describe the dense bodies of cardiac muscle

A

anchor actin filaments to each other and to cell membrane
contain alpha-actinin
interconnected by a specific type of desmin
communicate force of contraction to cytoskeleton and cell membrane
found in cytoplasm and in the cell membrane

184
Q

what do the pinocytotic vesicles of smooth muscle cells do

A

transport calcium ions from extracellular fluids to sarcoplasmic reticulum

185
Q

what does cave-in do

A

binds to cholesterol in the lipid rafts and initiates the formation of caveolae

186
Q

define lipid raft

A

region or domain of a membrane enriched in cholesterol and sphingolipids

histology (E1 Woods) (22 decks)

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