Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Radiology > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

State of physical, mental and social well-being

A

Health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Proper body mechanics should be implemented when moving and caring for patients to maintain good health
Study of the human body in the working environment

A

Ergonomics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Sensitivity to the needs of others

A

Empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 reasons why it is a radiographers professional and ethical responsibility to keep consumption of supplies to a minimum (large quantities of supplies are consumed in healthcare facilities)

A

Environmentally advantageous
Department costs
Keeps department moving more effectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Contains district groups which hold conferences for radiographers
One in each state and four more
Provide opportunities to advance the profession and help members stay current

A

ASRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describes how individuals learn morality:
First behave according to obedience and punishment
Then behave morally to gain acceptance and approval
Eventually behave according to conscience that recognizes morality to society and the human condition

A

Kohlberg’s Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Branch of philosophy that is a systematic reflection on morality
Considering the proper response to any situation
Professionals are responsible for knowing and honoring the principles of ethics that govern their profession

A

Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Provide remedies when patients have been caused harmed or treated harm or treated wrongly

A

Laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Establishes broad principles of professional cants
Put aside personal prejudice and emotional bias when rendering professional services
Radiology protection for self and others
Patient confidentiality

A

Code of ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mandatory, specific standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct

A

Rules of ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Method of evaluating situations in which the correct action is in question

A

Ethical analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

4 basic steps of ethical analysis

A

Identify the problem
Develop alternative solutions
Select the best solution
Defend your selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

6 moral/ethical principles that are guides to correct action

A 
Beneficence
Nonmaleficence
Veracity
Fidelity
Justice
Autonomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Goodness, actions that bring about good are considered right

A

Beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

No evil, an obligation not to inflict harm

A

Nonmaleficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Truth, obligation to tell the truth

A

Veracity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Faithfulness, obligation to be logical or faithful

A

Fidelity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fairness

A

Justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Self-determination, respecting the independence of others and acting with self-reliance

A

Autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hospitals required to provide protection for patients concerning the release of individual financial and medical information without written consent
No information given to employer, financial institutions or other medical facilities
Each facility will have a written procedure for compliance with these standards

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most consent is given on admission and is implied for routine procedures
Certain procedures such as myelograms and arteriograms require the patient receive full explanation of the procedure and potential risks, patient and witness then sign a consent form

A

Informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patients can refuse treatment or examination at any time
The healthcare worker should communicate with the patient and explain the situation
If the patient still refuses, notify the physician

A

Right to refuse treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Do not resuscitate; when a patient agrees to not be revived if they code

A

DNR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Outline of specific wishes about medical care if patient loses the ability to make communicative decisions
Some states also have physician assisted deaths

A

Advance directive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Deals with offenses against the state or society

A

Criminal law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Thefts and drug related crimes

A

Felonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Violation of laws that regulate practices

A

Misdemeanors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2 types of criminal law

A

Felonies

Misdemeanors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Deals with rights and duties of individuals with respect to one another

A

Civil law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Civil wrong by one individual against another person or their property

A

Tort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The suing party

A

Plaintiff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The party being sued

A

Defendent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Threat of harm

A

Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unlawful touching

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Unjustifiable detention on one against their will; the least restrictive immobilization device possible should be used, hand or leg restraints must be ordered by the physician. Ex: a patient wishes to leave and is not allowed

A

False imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Confidentiality is not maintained or when a patient’s body has been exposed

A

Invasion of privacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Malicious spread of information, written information

A

Libel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Defamation of character in verbal form

A

Slander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

2 torts

A

Intentional misconducts

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

6 intentional misconducts (torts)

A 
Assault
Battery
False imprisonment
Invasion of privacy
Libel
Slander
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

“The thing speaks for itself”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Resondeat superior

A

“Let the master respond” (the employer is responsible for the employee’s negligent acts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Body language says a lot; ex: leaning forward while a patient talks shows interest

A

Nonverbal communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A way we show how we feel about our career and patients
Uniforms present a simple, neat this and are easily cleaned
Clean exam rooms show respect for the patient

A

Appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Good listeners wait their turn to provide input

A

Listening skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Clear, distinct speech that uses language and content appropriately

A

Verbal skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Revealed by nonverbal behaviors, voice tone and word choice

A

Attitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Validate that you have understood

Sometimes you may find yourself in a new procedure or with another healthcare worker with an accent

A

Validation of communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The healthcare professional consciously influences a client or helps to better understand through verbal or nonverbal communication

A

Therapeutic communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

First contact is usually the introduction; patients should be addressed as a person, not as an exam

A

Addressing the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Patients like to share making choices involving their healthcare

A

Valid choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Idea that elderly are ill, worthless and unattractive

A

Ageism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

4 most important opportunities for patient education

A

During the explanation of procedures
Responding to patient concerns
Part of patient prep procedures
During instruction for follow up procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

2 situations that may arise when the radiographer deals with a deceased patient

A

Radiographs for placement of lines needed to support organs for donation
Homicide (ex: person shot, find bullets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Service for patients when they are likely not to live more than six months

A

Hospice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Provide relief but not intended for a cure

A

Palliative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

5 stages of grieving (Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross)

A 
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Grieving person refuses to accept the truth

A

Denial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Person experiences frustration of helplessness and a feeling of outrage

A

Anger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Person seems to be attempting to earn forgiveness or mitigation of the loss by being “very good”

A

Bargaining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Person accepts loss or impending death and deals with life relationships on a more realistic basis

A

Acceptance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Federal agency governing safety in the workplace, provides guidelines to ensure a high level of safety for hospital workers; required part of safety procedures in hospitals

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

64
Q

3 components of a fire

A

Fuel
Oxygen
Heat

65
Q

2 ways fire can be avoided

A 
Add water (lowers temperature)
Smother it (remove oxygen)
66
Q

4 causes most hospital fires are traced to

A

Spontaneous combustion
Open flames
Cigarette smoke
Electricity

67
Q

Chemical reaction in or near flammable material causes enough heat to start a fire (rare due to safety measures but may occur during renovations or new construction)

A

Spontaneous combustion

68
Q

4 infractions of fire safety

A

Blocking fire doors to prevent them from closing
Storing equipment in corridors, hindering evacuation
Improperly storing flammable items
Using unapproved extension cords

69
Q

R.A.C.E

A

Rescue
Alarm
Contain
Extinguish/evacuate

70
Q

Remove patients from danger by moving at least two fire doors away

A

Rescue

71
Q

Active alarm system or use hospital call code for fire

A

Alarm

72
Q

Close open doors to limit oxygen supply and prevent spread of smoke and heat, make sure oxygen valves and electrical circuits are turned off and close doors to patient rooms

A

Contain

73
Q

Use fire extinguisher for small fires and leave the area for larger fires

A

Extinguish/evacuate

74
Q

P.A.S.S. (using a fire extinguisher)

A

Pull the pin
Aim the nozzle at fire base
Squeeze the handle
Sweep side to side to prevent spread of the fire

75
Q

Should be on file for all hazardous materials and easily acceptable

A

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)

76
Q

Developer and fixer are classified by MSDS as hazardous
OSHA requires one wear protective aprons, goggles and nutrile gloves when pouring or cleaning up film processing solutions

A

Darkroom chemicals

77
Q

Regulates safe disposal of hazardous waste

A

EPA

78
Q

Flood the eye with running water for five minutes

A

Eye spashes

79
Q

Reports injury rates for hospital workers that are similar to that of industrial workers

A

Bureau of Labor Statistics

80
Q

Principles of proper alignment, movement and balance; proper this prevents work injury

A

Body mechanics

81
Q

3 concepts for understanding principles of body mechanics

A

Base of support
Center of gravity
Line of gravity

82
Q

Portion of the body in contact with the floor; if this is broad it provides stability for body position and movement

A

Base of support

83
Q

Point where body weight is balanced
Usually located in pelvis or lower abdomen
Body is most stable when this is nearest the center of the base of support

A

Center of gravity

84
Q

Imaginary line passing vertically through the center of gravity; body is most stable when this bisects the base of support

A

Line of gravity

85
Q

Too small to be seen by the naked eye; include bacteria, viruses, protozoa, prions and fungi

A

Microorganisms

86
Q

Microorganisms that live on or in the body without causing infection or disease

A

Normal flora

87
Q

Microorganisms that cause disease

A

Pathogens

88
Q

Small, single-celled organisms with a cell wall and an atypical nucleus that lacks a membrane, can grow independently and replicate without a host cell
Significant diseases this causes: tuberculosis, streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)

A

Bacteria

89
Q

3 shapes bacteria are classified by

A

Cocci
Bacilli
Spirilla/spirochetes

90
Q

Cocci

A

Spherical

91
Q

Bacilli

A

Rod-shaped

92
Q

Spirilla/spirochetes

A

Spiral-shaped

93
Q

2 staining processes bacteria are classified by

A

Gram positive

Gram negative

94
Q

Retain dye when washed with alcohol

A

Gram postive

95
Q

Dye is removed after washed with alcohol

A

Gram negative

96
Q

3 oxygen requirements bacteria are classified by

A

Obligate aerobes
Anaerobes
Facultative organisms

97
Q

Require oxygen to grow

A

Obligate aerobes

98
Q

Will not grow in the presence of oxygen

A

Anaerobes

99
Q

Can adapt to grow with or without oxygen

A

Facultative organisms

100
Q

Atypical bacteria, grows inside animal cells
Transmitted by vector bites (ticks, lice, fleas, mites)
Cause of Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus fever

A

Ricketttsiae

101
Q

Subcellular organisms, cannot survive independently

Include Hepatitis, Epstein Barr

A

Viruses

102
Q

Single-celled yeasts or long branched filament structured like mold
Produce alcoholic beverages, cheese, bread
Cause infections such as athlete’s foot and ringworm

A

Fungi

103
Q

May be infectious proteins, do not have DNA or RNA
Can transform healthy nerve proteins to more of these
Resistant to natural body defenses
Thought to cause mad cow disease

A

Prions

104
Q

Complex single-celled animals that exist as free-living organisms, some are parasitic
Live in the human body, classified as motile (moving) vs nonmotile
Diseases caused include malaria and toxoplasmosis

A

Protozoa

105
Q

6 factors that must be present for the cycle of infection to occur

A 
Infectious organism
Reservoir of infection
Portal of exit
Susceptible host
Portal of entry
Means of transporting the organism
106
Q

Characteristics of certain microorganisms that cause them to be pathogenic and distinguish them from normal flora, enable bacteria to destroy or damage the host cell and resist destruction by the host’s cellular defenses

A

Virulence factors

107
Q

Can be any place where pathogens can thrive in sufficient numbers to pose a threat, must provide moisture, nutrients and suitable temperatures

A

Reservoir

108
Q

Individuals which are a reservoir of infection, without realizing it due to lack of symptoms
Can also include: animals, soil, food and water

A

Carriers

109
Q

Any route through which blood, bodily fluids, excretions or secretions exit the body

A

Portal of exit

110
Q

Frequently those with a reduced natural resistance to infection

A

Susceptible host

111
Q

Hospital acquired infection, occur more than 48 hours after being admitted to the hospitals
Healthcare associated infections (HAIs)
Two million patients admitted each year acquire one (10% of total)
Sources of information include: contaminated hands, instruments and urinary catheters
Wide and inappropriate use of antibiotics has led to more drug resistant infections
MRSA, VRE, penicillin resistant streptococcus and aeruginosa and C. Diff

A

Nosocomial infection

112
Q

Route by which microorganisms gain access into the susceptible host, ex:
Respiratory, urinary and gastrointestinal tracts
Open wounds/breaks in skin
Mucous membranes of the eyes, nose or mouth
Bloodstream

A

Portal of entry

113
Q

Healthcare workers acquire a nosocomial infection

A

Occupationally acquired/healthcare associated infections (HAIs)

114
Q

6 main routes of transmission from the reservoir to the host (most effective way to stop the cycle of infection is to prevent transmission)

A 
Direct and indirect contact including:
Fomites
Vectors
Vehicles
Airborne means
Droplet contamination
115
Q

Requires the host is touched by an infected person and the organisms are placed in direct contact with susceptible tissue

A

Direct contact

116
Q

Objects that have been in direct contact with pathogenic organisms; ex: fork, urinary catheter

A

Fomites

117
Q

Arthropod which harbors infectious organisms before eventually infecting a host, its bite can transmit disease to humans
Ex: malaria, dengue fever

A

Vectors

118
Q

Any medium that transports organisms

Ex: food, drugs or blood

A

Vehicles

119
Q

Large droplets come in contact with mucous membranes of the eyes, nose, or mouth of a susceptible person
Particles do not remain suspended in air and travel short distances
Ex: influenza, meningitis, diphtheria, pertussis, streptococcal pneumonia

A

Droplet contamination

120
Q

Occurs from dust that contains spores or droplet nuclei
Particles of evaporated droplets that remain suspended in air for long periods
Dispersed by air currents and special handling and ventilation are required for prevention
Ex: M. tuberculosis, rubeola, varicella viruses

A

Airborne transmission

121
Q

3 ways the body is protected from the invasion of microorganisms

A

Natural resistance
Acquired resistance/active immunity
Short-term passive immunity

122
Q

Provided by mechanical barriers such as intact skin and mucous membranes
Mucous secretion by respiratory, urinary, gastrointestinal and reproductive system
pH, salt content and dryness of skin limit the number of bacteria
Normal flora prevent overgrowth of undesirable organisms

A

Natural resistance

123
Q

Can become resistance to a disease by becoming infected with a specific organism
Can also be conferred via vaccines from dead or weakened strains of the microorganism

A

Acquired immunity

124
Q

aProtein substances for medicine to a specific antigen, produced by the white blood cell (B-cell)

A

Antibodies

125
Q

Injection of antibodies to a particular infection are given

The antibodies act immediately but will weaken over time since the body does not produce them on its own

A

Passive immunity

126
Q

Appearance of an infectious disease or condition that affects many people at the same time in the same geographical area

A

Epidemic

127
Q

Keeps track of infection and develops information control policies to protect staff and patients based on recommendations from the CDC

A

Infection Control Department

128
Q

Monitors and studies infection types occurring in the US and compiles stat data then publishes it

A

Centers for Disease Control (CDC)

129
Q

Studies, collects and compiles infection data from every country in the world

A

WHO (World Health Organization)

130
Q

8 factors disease emergence is precipitated by

A

Increased human exposure to vectors (Reforestation leads to more deer -> vector for Lyme disease)
Population growth and migration to crowded cities
Rapid international travel and transportation of goods
Contact with new strains of dangerous pathogens
Pathogen mutation
Breakdown in public health measures (South America and Africa: cholera outbreaks from poor sanitation and low chlorine levels in water)
Climate change (SW US: Hantavirus respiratory syndrome due to drought followed by a mild wet winter and spring, lead to rise of deer and mice population)
Bioterrorism (Anthrax outbreak in US due to terrorism)

131
Q

Widespread epidemic

A

Pandemic

132
Q

Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus

A

MRSA

133
Q

Vancomycin-resistant enterococci

A

VRE

134
Q

Gram positive bacillus that makes spores which are difficult to control, occurs when normal flora are killed off; clostridium difficile

A

C. Diff

135
Q

RNA/retrovirus (replicated in a backwards manner

Can be transmitted several days after being acquired

A

HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus)

136
Q

Has specificity for receptors on CD4 lymphocytes

A

AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)

137
Q

Inflammation of the liver, classified as A, B, C, D and E

A

Hepatitis

138
Q

Hepatitis transmitted by food and water

A

A and E

139
Q

Bloodbourne hepatitis

A

B, C, and D

140
Q

Hepatitis that has been shown to survive in dry blood for up to a week

A

B

141
Q

Most common form of hepatitis

A

A

142
Q

What should you do in case of needle stick?

A

Allow skin to bleed under cold water and wash with soap

143
Q

What should you do if eyes, nose or mouth are splashed with body fluids?

A

Rinse mucous membranes with water

144
Q

Contagious, airborne lung disease caused by M. tuberculosis
Most common among homeless, recent immigrants and immunosuppressed
Transmitted when an infected person coughs droplets into the air
Can be infected but remain dormant until the immune system weakens
Therapy consists of isoniazid for 6-9 months to prevent active disease

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

145
Q

Simplest and most common test for tuberculosis, intradermal injection or anterior forearm and is measured 2-3 days later

A

Tuberculin skin test (TST)

146
Q

Infected individuals were prevented from entering
No longer commonly used by US Public Health still has the authority to detain and do this to people to prevent the spread of serious infections
Diseases that may elicit this: cholera, diphtheria, infectious TB, plague, smallpox, yellow fever, SARS

A

Quarentine

147
Q

All patients treated as reservoirs of infection
Emphasis placed on blood and body fluids being potential sources of infection
Introduced by the CDC in 1985

A

Universal precautions

148
Q

Focused on barriers for all moist substances from all patients

A

Body substance precautions

149
Q

Combination of universal and body substance precautions
Infection control to reduce infection transmission
Reduces the risk for airborne, droplet and contact precautions

A

Standard precautions

150
Q

Absence of microorganisms

A

Asepsis

151
Q

Second level of microbial dilution that involves destruction of pathogens by using chemical materials

A

Disinfection

152
Q

Free of living microorganisms, the process of destroying all microorganisms
Accomplished via: heat, gas or chemicals

A

Sterilization

153
Q

Reduce risk of transmitting dust particles of infectious organisms or airborne droplet nuclei
Protect against diseases such as TB and measles (rubeola)
Must wear particulate respirators which are fit tested
These patients are in negative air pressure rooms (do not let in a draft)

A

Airborne precautions

154
Q

Protect against large particle droplets
Protect against diphtheria, pneumonia and influenza
Must wear surgical masks but no special air circulation for the room

A

Droplet precautions

155
Q

Reduce infection by direct contact with skin or mucous membranes; MRSA, VRE, E. Coli and C. Diff

A

Contact precautions

156
Q

Patients with low immune systems; includes burn victims, neonate and organ transplants

A

Compromised patients

Radiology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions