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MicroBIO > TEST 2 > Flashcards

TEST 2 Flashcards

1
Q

decontamination

A

treatment of object to make safe to handle

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2
Q

disinfection

A

targets death of pathogens not all microbes or endospores

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3
Q

sterilization

A

kills all microbes and viruses

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4
Q

heat sterilization

A

wet heat better than dry heat

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5
Q

pastuerization

A

-uses heat to reduce microbial load but not all microbes
-kills pathogens

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6
Q

UV sterilization

A

used to sterilize food surgical tools lab equipment

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7
Q

D10 value

A

ionizing radiation needed to reduce bacteria 10 fold

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8
Q

filter sterilization

A

-used on heat sensitve liquids and gases
-pores are to small for microbes to go through

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9
Q

membrane filters

A

common for liquids

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10
Q

nucleopore filters

A

thin irradiated film used to visualize microbes for electron microscopy

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11
Q

-cidal

A

kills microbes

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12
Q

-static

A

stops growth of microbes

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13
Q

sanitizers

A

reduce microbial number but doesnt sterilize

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14
Q

antiseptic

A

kills/inhibits growth of microbes nontoxic to living tissue

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15
Q

purines

A

G A 2 ringed

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16
Q

pyrimidines

A

T C 1 ring

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17
Q

GC bond

A

3 h bonds

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18
Q

TA bond

A

2 h bonds

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19
Q

-lytic

A

lyses all cells destroying even dead cells

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20
Q

negative supercoiling

A

coils increase becoming tightly wound

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21
Q

positive supercoiling

A

coils decrease becoming loosely wound

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22
Q

topoisomerase

A

inserts and removes supercoiles

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23
Q

DNA gyrase

A

introduces supercoils via double strand breaks

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24
Q

3 rnas and functions

A

mRNA- carries info of DNA gene to ribosome

tRNA-brings amino acid to mRNA converting it into amino acid sequence

rRNA-ribosomal rna, ribosome component

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25
Q

3 stages of biologic information flow

A

replication
transcription
translation

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26
Q

eukaryotic transcription

A

1 gene to 1 mRNA
mRNA exported to cytosol

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27
Q

prokaryotic transcription

A

several genes to 1 mRNA
transcription and translation in cytosol

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28
Q

plasmids

A

circular and double stranded

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29
Q

transposable elements

A

-segments of DNA inserted into other DNA molecules
-moves site to site

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30
Q

R plasmids

A

grants antibiotic resistance to bacteria

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31
Q

bacteriocins

A

proteins killing closely related species of same species
can be encoded by plasmids

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32
Q

rhizobia

A

plasmid encoded function is to fix nitrogen

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33
Q

semiconservative dna replication

A

2 of the 4 DNA strands in the new cells are the DNA strands from the original cell

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34
Q

DNA pol Family A

A

-DNA repair and Okazaki fragment maturation
-exonuclease activity

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35
Q

DNA pol Family B

A

-Main polymerase in eukaryotes
-exonuclease activity

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36
Q

DNA pol Family C

A

-Main polymerase in bacteria
-exonuclease activity

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37
Q

DNA pol Family X

A

-monomeric
-fills gaps for DNA repair

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38
Q

DNA pol Family Y

A

-low fidelity, translesion synthesis
-no exonuclease activity

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39
Q

DNA pol Family RT

A

-reverse transcriptase
-uses RNA to make DNA to produce more RNAs

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40
Q

Archaeal DNA polymerases

A

Family B&D
PolB3 present in all archaea
PolB1/2 in some archaea

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41
Q

virus DNA polmerases

A

-DNA viruses utilize host DNA polymerase for proliferation

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42
Q

DNA helicase

A

unwinds DNA for replication

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43
Q

Prokaryote vs Eukaryote origin of replication

A

-prokaryotes-have one origin of replication on circular chromosome
-eukaryotes- have multiple origins of replications on 1 linear chromosome out of all of the linear chromosomes

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44
Q

DNA ligase

A

seals the nicks in the DNA backbone after primers have been removed and filled with DNA

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45
Q

leading strand

A

continuous
5>3 strand synthesis
1 primer

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46
Q

lagging strand

A

discontinuous
5>3 strand synthesis
multiple primers

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47
Q

replisome

A

large replication complex of proteins

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48
Q

DNA vs RNA

A

-DNA-
deoxyribose-2’ H bond
thymine
-RNA-
ribose-2’ OH bond
uracil

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49
Q

primosome

A

helicase and primase subcomplex within the replisome

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50
Q

holoenzyme

A

RNA polymerase complex of 5 proteins

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51
Q

sigma factor

A

recognizes promoter sequences on DNA

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52
Q

pribnow box

A

TATA
promoter sequence

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53
Q

number of Eukaryotic RNA polymerases

A

3

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54
Q

number of archaeal RNA polymerases

A

1

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55
Q

B recognition element

A

-BRE for short
-upstream of TATA box
-the binding of the transcription factor to the BRE allows for initation of RNA transcription

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56
Q

termination method

A

inverted repeats of TA, creates loops of RNA that fall off of DNA strand

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57
Q

exons

A

gene coding element of RNA

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58
Q

introns

A

nongene coding element of RNA

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59
Q

splicing

A

removal of introns
in eukaryotes this happens in nucleus

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60
Q

capping

A

-addition of methylated guanosine to end of mRNA, other end will start translation
-needed for translation

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61
Q

3 protein functions

A

-catalysts-enzymes
-structure-integral membrane proteins
-regulatory-DNA binding

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62
Q

peptide bond

A

carboxylic acid bonded to nitrogen

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63
Q

degenerate code

A

64 codons to 20 amino acids

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64
Q

shine-delgaro sequence

A

ensures proper reading frame in bacteria and archaea

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65
Q

open reading frame

A

start codon- AUG
followed by a number of codons then the stop codon

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66
Q

Subunits of ribosomes in prokaryotes

A

-has 30s and 50s subunits to from 70s subunits
-needs GTP

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67
Q

chaperones

A

catalyze molecular folding of proteins
found in all domains

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68
Q

heat shock proteins

A

attempts to refold partially denatured proteins for reuse before proteases destroy them

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69
Q

cold shock proteins

A

prevent secondary structure formation in RNA or refold cold-sensitive proteins

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70
Q

Translocases

A

transport proteins into or through bacterial & archaeal membranes

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71
Q

translocation systems

A

sec and tat system

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72
Q

sec system

A

unfolded proteins to be exported are recognized by
-SecA (periplasmic)
-signal recognition particle (SRP;
for membrane-inserted proteins

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73
Q

tat system

A

TatBC recognizes signal sequence, carries folded protein to TatA
membrane transporter

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74
Q

common DNA binding protein characteristic

A

binds to major groove
homodimeric

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75
Q

structure of DNA binding protein

A

helix turn helix

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76
Q

zinc finger

A

DNA-protein binding technique utilizing a zinc ion

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77
Q

leucine zipper

A

DNA-protein binding technique
-Contains regularly spaced leucine residues
-Hold two recognition helices in the correct orientation to bind DNA

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78
Q

transcription factor

A

Proteins that control the rate of transcription by binding to specific DNA

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79
Q

activator protein

A

turns on transcription

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80
Q

repressor protein

A

turns off transcription

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81
Q

Allosteric proteins

A

Conformation altered when effector
molecule binds

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82
Q

Effectors

A

Small molecules that control binding of activators and repressors

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83
Q

Inducers

A

turn on transcription

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84
Q

corepressors

A

turns of transcription

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85
Q

Enzyme repression

A

-preventing the synthesis of an
enzyme unless the product is absent from culture medium
-excess of product decreases enzyme
synthesis

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86
Q

Dual functionality

A

used as positive and negative control

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87
Q

two component regulatory system components

A

Sensor kinase
Response regulator

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88
Q

how does the 2 component regulatory system terminate the responce?

A

A phosphatase removes phosphate from the response regulator

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89
Q

sensor kinase

A

-detects environmental signals and autophosphorylates at
specific histidine residue
-integral to cell membrane

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90
Q

response regulator

A

-DNA-binding protein that regulates transcription
-receives phosphate from sensor kinase
-in cytoplasm

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91
Q

what is this picture depicting?

A

-This picture shows the 2 component regulatory system
-the sensor kinase gives its phosphate to the response regulator which then blocks transcription of certain genes

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92
Q

Methyl-accepting chemotaxis proteins (MCPs)

A

proteins that sense attractants and repellents and interact with cytoplasmic sensor kinases

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93
Q

chemoreceptors

A

clusters of thousands of MCPs

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94
Q

2 component regulatory system and flagella

A

counterclockwise-run
clockwise-tumble

-When MCPs bind repellent or release
attractant, a kinase is phosphorylated
interacts with flagellar motor to induce clockwise rotation and tumbling

-When MCPs bind attractant or release repellent, a kinase is unphosphorylated and not bound to the flagellar motor, resulting in
counterclockwise rotation and running

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95
Q

Quorum sensing

A

regulatory mechanism by which
Bacteria and Archaea
assess their population density near themselves

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96
Q

autoinducer

A

-molecule that indicates to a cell that other cells are nearby
-moves freely about membranes of cells
-reaches high concentrations in a cell when around other cells
-binds to sensor kinases which activates specific genes

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97
Q

Acyl homoserine lactone (AHL)

A

autoinducer
gram negative only

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98
Q

archaea uses what as an autoinducer

A

short peptides

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99
Q

Global control systems

A

regulates transcription of many
different genes in more than one regulon

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100
Q

lac operon

A

when in absense of glucose, this operon activates its genes to be able to use lactose as main energy source

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101
Q

diauxic growth

A

-two separate growth phases of bacteria
-once better energy source is expended a different energy source is utilized

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102
Q

lac operon regulation sequences

A

-lactose must be present to stop lac repressor from being present (negative control)
-cAMP must be present to bind to lac operon to activate (positive control)

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103
Q

heat shock responce

A

global control mechanism to
protect cells from protein denaturation resulting from heat, high solvent levels, osmotic stress, UV light

104
Q

heat shock proteins

A

proteins that counteract damage of denatured
proteins and help cell recover from stress

105
Q

ncRNA

A

RNA that does not code for a gene
rRNAs, sRNA, tRNA

106
Q

small RNA

A

regulates gene expression

107
Q

mechanisms of sRNA

A

1) decrease expression of mRNA
2)decrease mRNA degradation
4)increase mRNA stability through not letting it express
4)open up a ribosome binding site

108
Q

ribozymes

A

RNA that acts as a catalyst

109
Q

riboswitches

A

RNA that regulates gene expression

110
Q

mechanisms of riboswitches

A

-binds to RNA
-controls at transcription or translation
-changes secondary structure of RNA which can control if its translated or not
- remove stem-loop that terminates
transcription, increasing mRNA and protein levels

111
Q

Aptamer region

A

-riboswitch control region
-recognition domain that
binds small molecules

112
Q

Feedback Inihibition

A

mechanism for temporarily turning off the reactions in a biosynthetic pathway
End product of the pathway binds to an early enzyme in the pathway, thus shutting down the pathway because no intermediates are generated

113
Q

Reversible reaction

A

once levels of end product are limiting, pathway functions

114
Q

the feedback inhibition enzyme has two sites, what are they?

A

active sites, allosteric protein site for feedback inhibition

115
Q

isoenzymes

A

different proteins that catalyze
feedback inhibition but are subject to different
regulators

116
Q

post translational regulation for proteins

A

phosphoylation, methylation, covalent modification (AMP,ADP)

117
Q

PII Signal Transduction Proteins

A

-found in Bacteria & Archaea
-epigenetic attachments affect activity
-regulates nitrogen metabolism TFs, enzymes, and transport proteins

118
Q

Anti-sigma

A

factors can inactivate sigma factors

119
Q

Super-resolution microscopy

A

-Super-resolution microscopy
-Observes dynamic behaviors in real-time

120
Q

Fluorescent Tagging

A

-Reporter genes encode proteins that are easy to detect or
assay and fused to genes of interest
-Green fluorescent protein used

121
Q

Photoactivated localization microscopy

A

maps the movement of individual molecules

122
Q

hemimethylation after DNA replication

A

-only parental strand of DNA is methylated
-methylation allows for a protein to bind to the origin of replication to block DNA synthesis through binding of DNA initiating proteins

123
Q

par system

A

partitions the correct amount of DNA strands into two separate daughter cells

124
Q

Par S

A

centromere like sequence near oriC

125
Q

Par A

A

ATPase

126
Q

Par B

A

binds the Par complex to the DNA

127
Q

Pop Z

A

localized to old pole of DNA
anchors the DNA to one spot

128
Q

Decatenation

A

separation of
replicated sister chromosomes

129
Q

peptidoglycan synthesis

A

begins with preexsisting peptidoglycan
-rod shaped-
synthesis begins at several points along cell wall
-coccus-
cell walls grow in opposite directions outward
from the FtsZ ring

130
Q

Bactoprenol

A

has a major role in precursor
insertion of peptidoglycan synthesis

131
Q

biofilm formation steps

A

Attachment, colonization, development,
and dispersal

132
Q

attachment stage of biofilm

A

-Random collision accounts for the initial attachment
-Facilitated by flagella and pili or by cell surface proteins
-Attachment is a signal for expression of biofilm-specific genes
-Once committed to biofilm formation, the cell loses flagella and becomes nonmotile

133
Q

how does the metabolism change when switching to a biofilm?

A

Signals guide bacteria in transitioning from planktonic growth to life in a semisolid matrix
-Switch to biofilm growth triggered by accumulation c-di-GMP

134
Q

c-di-GMP

A

-Widely distributed only in Bacteria
-c-di-GMP removes cell surface proteins like flagella and pili
-initiates synthesis of peptidoglycan

135
Q

what do antibiotics target?

A

-Inhibition of protein synthesis
-Many antibiotics target DNA replication, RNA synthesis, and translation
-peptidoglycan synthesis

(targets DNA gyrase and topoisomerase to prevent DNA unwinding)
(targets RNA synthesis by blocking RNA polymerase active site or RNA elongation)
(can bind to ribosomal binding site to prevent translation)
(can bind to ribosomal subunit leading to error filled proteins)

136
Q

Endospore formation

A

-triggered by damaging external events
-monitors external environment through 5 sensory kinases (resembles 2 component regulatory system)
-initates when Spo0A gets phosphorylated a lot

137
Q

proteins emmited during endospore formation

A

-toxic protein that lyses other cells for nutrients
-protein that delays sporulation in other cells
-antitoxin protein to protect themselves from other sporulating cells

138
Q

3 stages of endospores

A

activation, germination,
outgrowth

139
Q

Germination Receptors

A

-within the inner membrane surrounding the endospore core exsists these receptors
-senses and binds nutrients

140
Q

Activation of endospore steps

A

-release of DPA
-rehydration of core
-transcription and translation increase

141
Q

Germination of endospore steps

A

-removal of the cortex is a
major event
-full rehydration of core
-metabolically active

142
Q

Outgrowth of endospore steps

A

-elongates allowing escape of spore from mother cell
-fully metabolically active

143
Q

heterocyst

A

-dedicated cells to nitrogen fixation
-anoxic

144
Q

heterocyst formation

A

-inactivation of photosystem
-grows thickened cell wall to prevent 02 diffusion
-expresses nitrogenase
-triggered by limited amount of fixed nitrogen

145
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa biofilm technique

A

-quorum sensing through acyl homoserine lactones in large amounts needed to begin colony growth

146
Q

Vibrio cholerae

A

-quorum sensing opposite of pseudomonas aeruginosa
-must be in low population density area to establish colony

147
Q

aquiring antibiotic resistance

A

-horizontal gene transfer through plasmids
-chromosomal mutations

148
Q

efflux pump

A

-transport molecules, including antibiotics, out of the cell
-lowers intracellular concentration allowing cell to survive at higher external cellular concentrations

149
Q

Selectable mutations

A

gives advantage
(ex antibiotic resistance)
requires screening to find the genes

150
Q

Auxotroph

A

has an additional nutritional
requirement for growth compared to prototroph

151
Q

prototroph

A

wild type bacteria, no additional requirement for life

152
Q

Complementation

A

isolation of several strains
followed by comparative genetic analyses

153
Q

Replica plating

A

-screens for nutritionally defective mutants

-transfers colonies from main plate
-if colony is unable to grow on medium
lacking a nutrient indicates mutation

154
Q

Spontaneous mutations

A

-Occur without external intervention
-most result from occasional errors by DNA
polymerase during replication

155
Q

Induced mutations

A

-Caused environmentally or deliberately
-Can result from exposure to natural radiation or chemicals that chemically modify DNA

156
Q

point mutations

A

-Change only one base pair
-Occurs via single base-pair substitution
-Phenotypic change depends on the exact location of the mutation

157
Q

Silent mutations

A

do not affect the sequence of encoded polypeptide or phenotype

158
Q

Missense mutation

A

changes the sequence of amino acids in
polypeptide

159
Q

Nonsense mutation

A

mutates a stop codon into the amino acid chain

160
Q

Transitions

A

-base pair substitution switches it with another base pair of its own kind
-purine to purine
-pyrimidine to pyrimidine

161
Q

Transversions

A

-base pair substiution switches it with a base pair of a different kind
-purine to pyrimidine & vice versa

162
Q

Frameshift mutations definition

A

single base pair deletions
or insertions that result in a shift in the reading
frame

163
Q

frameshift mutation effects

A

-changes entire polypeptide sequence downstream
-can gain/lose thousands of codons
-can be lethal

164
Q

Mutagens

A

chemical, physical, or biological agents that
increase mutation rates, induce mutations

165
Q

Nucleotide base analogs

A

-resemble nucleotide bases
but have faulty base pairing

166
Q

chemical mutagens

A

intercacalating agents
alkylating agents

167
Q

Nonionizing radiation

A

-base pairs absorb UV
-forms pyrimidine dimers
-UV kills cells due to its effects on DNA

168
Q

Ionizing radiation

A

-more powerful than nonionizing (UV)
-creates free radicals which are damaging
-creates double/single stranded breaks in DNA backbone

169
Q

SOS repair system

A

-Initiates many DNA repair processes
-Also allows DNA repair to occur without a template (translesion synthesis; high error rate)
-E Coli’s SOS system controls ~40 genes

170
Q

3 mechanisms of bacterial genetic exchange

A

Transformation, transduction,
conjugation

171
Q

Homologous recombination

A

-A process that results in genetic exchange between homologous DNA from two different sources

172
Q

3 fates of bacterial genetic exchange

A

-uptake of the genetic info as separate from host genome
-degredation of genetic info
-integrated into host genome

173
Q

Endonuclease

A

-nicks one strand of the donor molecule for crossing over of genetic info

174
Q

Strand invasion

A

-single-stranded DNA molecule pairs with and displaces a similar or complementary strand in a double-stranded DNA molecule
-occurs in genetic recombination

175
Q

heteroduplex

A

-double-stranded DNA molecule formed by the base pairing of two complementary single-stranded DNAs from different chromosomal sources

-can differ slightly in sequence, leading to mismatches within the heteroduplex

-observed during genetic recombination

176
Q

Merodiploid

A

-strain carries two copies of a chromosomal segment

-(usually one copy on the chromosome, other on plasmid or phage)

177
Q

Complementation

A

-occurs if a functional wild-type copy is
supplied on a plasmid or bacteriophage, restoring wild-type phenotype

178
Q

Transformation

A

-Genetic transfer process where
DNA is incorporated into a recipient cell and brings about genetic change

179
Q

Competent

A

-a cell that can take up DNA and be
transformed; genetically determined
-this is regulated

180
Q

Gram negative sex pilus

A

-proteins within pilus recognize
and bind extracellular DNA, pilus retraction pulls DNA in

181
Q

Gram positive sex pilus

A

-pili or secretion system binds DNA and bring it in

182
Q

virus

A

genetic element that can multiply
only in a living (host) cell

183
Q

Obligate intracellular parasite

A

Needs host cell for energy, metabolic
intermediates, protein synthesis

184
Q

virion

A

singluar virus outside of a cell

185
Q

virus structure

A

head & tail pilus

186
Q

attachment of virus

A

-requires complementary receptor
(proteins, carbs, other cell structures)

187
Q

Virulence

A

-relative ability of a pathogen to cause
disease

188
Q

virulence factor

A

-toxic/destructive substances produced by the pathogen
-enhances invasiveness

189
Q

Transduction

A

transfer of DNA from one cell to another by a
bacteriophage

190
Q

Generalized transduction

A

-DNA from any portion of the
host genome is packaged inside the virion
-Donor genes cannot replicate independently
-Will be lost without recombination

191
Q

Specialized transduction

A

-DNA from host genome is integrated directly into the virus genome
-typically replacing some viral genes

192
Q

what genes can be tranduced

A

all of them

193
Q

transducing particle

A

-host DNA packaged into a phage produces this
-makes the DNA defective, wont be able to lead to viral lytic infection
-can be transduced into host cells genoome

194
Q

Gene Transfer Agents (GTAs)

A

-Defective bacteriophages that transfer DNA between prokaryotic cells

195
Q

Conjugation

A

-Horizontal gene transfer that
requires cell-to-cell contact

196
Q

Donor cell

A

contains conjugative plasmid

197
Q

Recipient cell

A

does not contain plasmid

198
Q

F plasmid

A

-Contains genes that regulate DNA replication
-contains transposable elements that allows plasmid to integrate into the host chromosome
-contains tra gene that encode transfering functions

199
Q

mechanism of conjugation

A

-starts w/cell to cell contact
-tra gene nicks plasmid
-plasmid is transferred and replicated in both cells
-takes place in favorable conditions

200
Q

Mobile DNA

A

-segments of DNA that move from one location to another in other DNA molecules
(TRANSPOSABLE ELEMENTS)
-utilizes inverse repeats for easy movement

201
Q

transposase

A

enzyme required for transposition

202
Q

insertion sequences

A

-simplest transposable element
-1000bp
-10-50 inverted repeats
-only gene codes for transposase

203
Q

transposons

A

-genes vary widely on transposons
-transposase recognizes inverted repeats and moves the transposon
-can create mutant

204
Q

transposase functions

A

-recognizes cuts and ligates DNA

205
Q

Conservative transposition

A

-Transposon is excised from one
location and reinserted at a second location
-no duplicates of transposon made

206
Q

Replicative transposition

A

-A new copy of the transposon is
produced and inserted at a second location
-2 transposons are present, one at old and new spot

207
Q

Sequencing

A

determining the precise order of
nucleotides in a DNA / RNA molecule

208
Q

Genome annotation

A

converts sequencing data into a list of genes & functional sequences present in the genome

209
Q

Bioinformatics

A

storing and analyzing sequences
and structures of nucleic acids and proteins

210
Q

first generation of DNA sequencing

A

sanger sequencing
able to sequence ~800 bp

211
Q

second generation of DNA sequencing

A

pyrosequencing- ~700 bp
Ilumina method- ~100bp
SOLiD method- ~100bp
Ion torrent- 300bp

212
Q

third generation of DNA sequencing

A

Pacific Biosciences SMRT- 2500-3000bp
Oxford nanopore- ~9000bp

213
Q

Functional Open reading Frames

A

-encodes a protein, can be
identified by computer

214
Q

Codon Bias

A

Some codons are used more than others

215
Q

Hypothetical proteins

A

uncharacterized open reading frames
-protein likely exsists, function unknown

216
Q

minimum number of genes for a viable cell

A

250-300

217
Q

Archaeal Genome composition

A

-higher # of genes devoted to energy and coenzyme production compare to bacteria
-fewer genes for carbohydrate metabolism and membrane functions

218
Q

Metagenomics

A

-analyzes DNA or RNA
from environmental sample containing organisms which have not been isolated/identified

219
Q

Metagenome

A

total gene content of microbial
community

220
Q

Heterologous expression

A

Expressing a gene in
a different host

221
Q

Genetic engineering

A

-using in vitro techniques to alter genes in the laboratory

222
Q

Thermocycler

A

automated PCR machine

223
Q

Quantitative PCR (qPCR)

A

-variation of pcr technique that quantifies initial amount of DNA

224
Q

Process of PCR

A

1) Denature
2)DNA polymerase extends primers using the original DNA template
3)Heat again with the target in twice the original amount, cool, and repeat 20–40 times, yielding a 106-108- fold increase

225
Q

gel electrophoresis

A

-uses agarose gel to separate nucleic acids by size and charge
-smaller nucleic acid chains move further up the gel

226
Q

Molecular cloning

A

-Movement of a gene from the original source to a small and manipulable genetic element

227
Q

palindrome

A

inverted repeats

228
Q

cloning vector

A

-Plasmids designed specifically for cloning DNA
products made by Taq in PCR

229
Q

YACs

A

yeast artificial chromosome
cloning vector
for cloning into yeast

230
Q

T7 expression vector

A

-cloned genes are place under this promoter to be able to control transcription/translation highly
-T7 under same controls as lac operon

231
Q

cloning genes via mRNA

A

-modify the gene expressed in mRNA
(easy to find due to polyA tail)
-use RT-PCR to create desired gene

232
Q

Fusion proteins

A

-joining target and carrier proteins can
simplify purification

233
Q

Reporter gene fusion

A

-Coding sequence from reporter is fused with regulatory region from another source to form hybrid gene

234
Q

Reporter gene

A

-Encodes protein easy to detect and
assay

235
Q

Gene Fusion

A
  • DNA segments from 2 different genes are fused
    -promoter can be changed
236
Q

Northern Blot Test

A

-Detects RNA in a sample

237
Q

Southern Blot Test

A

-Detects DNA in a sample

238
Q

vaccine creation

A

-virulence factor removed
-retains immune responce

239
Q

Polyvalent vaccine

A

-single vaccine that immunizes
against two different diseases

240
Q

Subunit vaccines

A

-contain only a specific protein from a pathogenic organism

241
Q

vaccinia virus

A

-used to prepare vaccines
-takes genes as a vector to insert DNA from pathogen that its immunizing against
-tdk (thymidine kinase) gene is used

242
Q

Commensal Bacteria

A

bacteria innate to the host organism
non pathogenic

243
Q

antibody as anticancer therapy

A

-antibody complex binds to receptor
and is taken up by cancer cell which triggers immune responce to destroy cell
-uses antibodies to target cancer cells to trigger apoptosis
-antigen has been engineered to carry anticancer antibody

244
Q

Gene mining

A

-process of identifying and isolating
potentially useful genes from the environment without culturing the organisms that contain them

245
Q

BACs

A

-bacterial artificial chromosomes
-used for large DNA inserts

246
Q

nonspecific immunity

A

innate immunity to pathogen

247
Q

specific immunity

A

adaptive immunity

248
Q

Phage exclusion

A

-variant of restriction enzyme systems
that recognize and modify incoming foreign DNA, preventing replication

249
Q

Abortive infection

A

-triggers host suicide, leads to
programmed cell death by toxin–antitoxin systems
(prevents viruses from infecting wider community)

250
Q

CRISPR domain

A

-domain of DNA where foreign infectious DNA is kept with spacers inbetween each infectious DNA portion

251
Q

CRISPR domain is used for waht

A

memory bank of DNA to prevent re-infection
adaptive immunity

252
Q

Cas proteins

A

-endonuclease activity
-Mediate defense and incorporate new spacers into CRISPR region

253
Q

PAM

A

-protospacers adjacent motif
-the DNA inbetween the spacers in the CRISPR domain but on the invading pathogen

254
Q

cas function

A

-cleaves the PAMs on the invading pathogen breaking up its DNA

255
Q

Pre-CRISPR RNA

A

-binds to cas protein
-acts as a complementary DNA strand to the pathogenic DNA, when it binds the protein destroys the DNA

256
Q
A

MicroBIO (6 decks)

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