Test 1 Review Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the name of the two domains that cells exist in?

A

Apical and Basolateral

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2
Q

Do epithelial cells contain blood vessels, and which form of dermis are epithelial cells derived from?

A

No and All (meso, ecto, endo)

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3
Q

What are the two components of the basement membrane?

A

basal lamina and reticular lamina

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4
Q

Which of the following are functions of the basement membrane?

A. Selective filtration barrier

B. Scaffold for embryogenesis and regeneration

C. Stabilization of tissue shapes

D. All

A

D. All.

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5
Q

Where would lightly keratinized cells likely be found?

A

esophagus and vagina

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6
Q

Where would heavily keratinized cells be likely found?

A

epidermis

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7
Q

Transitional epithelium would likely be found where?

A

bladder, urinary track

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8
Q

Which domain is characterized by modifications such as cilia or microvilli?

A

Apical

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9
Q

Which domain is characterized by intercellular junctions?

A

basolateral domain

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10
Q

What type of cell forms the walls of the alveoli, Bowman’s capsules, lines the lumina of ducts, vessels and other tubular surfaces?

A

Simple squamous

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11
Q

What type of cell may be found on the surface of the ovary, kidney tubules, and may have a brush border?

A

Simple cubuidal

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12
Q

What type of cell may have a striated border on the apical surface composed of microvilli? It is typically found in the uterine tubes, uterous, central canal of spinal cord.

A

Simple columnar

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13
Q

What type of cell is typically found in the esophagus, vagina, lining of mouth and tongue?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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14
Q

What type of ciliated cell is found in the trachea?

A

pseudostratified epithelium

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15
Q

Which of the following are a kind of epithelium?

A. Stretching

B. Covering and lining

C. Glandular

D. Protective

A

B and C

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16
Q

Which of the following are functions of epithelial tissues?

A. Protection

B. Sectretion and Absorption

C. Maintaining concentration differences

D. Signal propogation

A

A, B, C

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17
Q

The basal lamina is produced by:

A

the epithelium

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18
Q

The reticular lamina is produced by:

A

connective tissue

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19
Q

Which of the following types of cell adhesion molecules is associated with zonula occludens and desmosomes?

A. Cadherins

B. Integrins

C. Selectins

D. Immunoglobin superfamily

A

A. Cadherins

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20
Q

Which of the following is not a component of the basal lamina:

A. Laminin

B. Type IV Collagen

C. Entactin (nidogen)

D. Proteoglycans

E. Fibronectin

A

E. Fibronectin

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21
Q

Which of the following are molecular complexes that primarily serve to prevent paracellular transport?

A. Zonula adherens

B. Zonula Occludens

C. Hemidesmosomes

D. Connexons

A

B. Zonula Occludens

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22
Q

Which of the following are ONLY associated with the basal domains?

A. Zonula adherens

B. Zonula occludens

C. Hemidesmosomes

D. Desmosomes

A

C. Hemidesmosomes

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23
Q

Which of the following recognized extracellular matrix molecules as their ligand?

A. Caherins

B. Selectins

C. Integrins

D. Ig Superfamily

A

C. Integrins

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24
Q

Desmocollins and desmogleins belong to which of the following groups of CAMS?

A. Cadherins

B. Integrins

C. Selectins

D. Ig superfamily

A

A. Cadherins

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25
Q

The extracellular domains of which of the following bind to molecules in the extracellular matrix such as fibronectin and laminin?

A. Cadherins

B. Integrins

C. Selectins

D. Ig Superfamily

A

B. Integrins

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26
Q

State where each of the following are found:

E-Cadherins

N-Cadherins

P-Cadherins

A

Epithelial tissues

Nerve cells

Placenta

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27
Q

What is typically found at the tip of extracellular end of cadherin molecules and facilitates the formation of trans-homophilic dimers with cadherins of opposite cell membranes?

A. HLA binding face

B. HLK binding face

C. HVA binding face

D. RGN binding face

A

C. HVA (Histidine, Valine, Alanine)

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28
Q

What is facilitates the binding of cis homophilic dimers?

A. HVA binding face

B. Calcium Ions

C. HVB binding face

C. HLK binding face

A

B. Calcium ions - bind to four extracellular domains

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29
Q

Which of the following serve as a major interface between the cadherins that hold adjacent cells together and their actin cytoskletons?

A. Proteoglycans

B. Catenins

C. Laminins

D. Keratins

A

B. Catenins

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30
Q

Which of the following forms of catenins attach to the cytoplasmic end of cadherin and may also serve as a transcription cofactor?

A. Beta catenins

B. Gamma/plakoglobin catenins

C. Alpha catenins

A

A. Beta catenins

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31
Q

Which of the following are involved in the movement of leukocytes from blood to tissues (extravasation)

A. Catenins

B. Selectins

C. Ig superfamily

D. Integrins

A

B. Selectins

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32
Q

State where each of the following are found:

P-Selectins:

E-Selectins:

L-Selectins

A

P-platelets

E-endothelial cells

L- leukocytes

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33
Q

Which of the following are molecular complexes that anchor cells together and reinforce the physical integrit of tissues and the cells that make up the tissue?

A. Zonula adherens

B. Zonula occludens

C. Hemidesmosomes

D. Connexons

A

A. Zonula adherens

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34
Q

Integrins interact with which sequence in fibronectin and laminin:

A. HVA sequence

B. RGD sequence

C. HVL sequence

D. RGN sequence

A

B. RGD sequence

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35
Q

Which of the following is NOT a protein through which integrins bind to actin filaments with:

A. Talin

B. Sphectomyesin

C. Vinculin

D. Alpha-actinin

A

B. Sphectomyesin

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36
Q

Which of the following are part of the cytoplasmic plaques through which cadherins proteins bind:

A. Keratin

B. Plakophilin

C. Desmoplakin

D. Plakoglobin

A

B and C and D

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37
Q

Which of the following are transmembrane proteins associated with junctional complexes and are responsible for the occlusive properties of the tight junction?

A. Catenins

B. Claudins

C. Occludins

D. Nectin

A

B and C

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38
Q

JAMs and Nectin are considered:

A. Cadherins

B. Selectins

C. Integrins

D. Ig superfamily

A

D. Ig superfamily

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39
Q

Focal adhesions are spots that anchor the cell to the ECM via:

A. Keratin

B. Actin

C. Laminin

D. fibronectin

A

B. Actin

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40
Q

Each connexon consists of how many connexins?

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 7

A

C. 6

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41
Q

Gap junctions close when which ion concentration is high?

A. Calcium

B. Sodium

C. Potassium

D. Chloride

A

A. Calcium

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42
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT inhibit microtubular polymerization?

A. Colchicines

B. Colcemid

C. Vincristine

D. Taxol

E. Vinblastin

A

D. Taxol

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43
Q

Nuclear lamins are intermediate filaments that:

A. Bind to the nuclear envelope and prevent disassembly during mitosis

B. Form the channel of the nuclear pore complex

C. Form the membrane of the nucleolus

D. Line the inner aspect of the nuclear envelope

A

D. Line the inner aspect of the nuclear envelope

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44
Q

Which of the following initiates growth of the F-actin from the sides of the existing filament and causes branching?

A. Spectrin

B. Cytochalasin

C. Arp 2/3

D. Cofilin

A

C. Arp 2/3

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45
Q

Which of the following IS NOT a type of intermediate filament?

A. keratins

B. fibronectin

C. neurofilaments

D. desmin

A

B. fibronectin (extra cellular therefore not a intermediate filament)

desmin - found in muscle tissue

keratin - found intercellularily

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46
Q

Microfilaments are made up of predominately:

A. Keratin

B. Laminin

C. Amino acids

D. Actin

A

D. Actin

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47
Q

Mreb is the prokaryotic ancestor of:

A. Keratin

B. Laminin

C. Actin

D. Mitochondria

A

C. Actin

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48
Q

Actin exists as monomers and long chains in which two forms?

A. F actin, G actin

B. G actin, F actin

C. ADP bound

D. ATP bound

A

B. G actin, F actin

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49
Q

Actin microfilaments consists of a double helical chain of:

A. F actin

B. G actin

A

B. G actin

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50
Q

High concentrations of G-actin favor:

A. treadmilling

B. addition at both the barbed and pointed end

C. addition at the barbed end (plus)

D. addition at the pointed end (minus)

A

B. addition at both the barbed and pointed end

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51
Q

Actin binding protein, Cytochalasins:

A. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

B. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

C. Found in RBCs

D. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

E. cross-links microvilli

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

H. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

A

B. Blocks elongation, preventing mitosis

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52
Q

Actin binding protein, Phalloidin:

A. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

B. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

C. Found in RBCs

D. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

E. cross-links microvilli

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

H. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

A

A. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

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53
Q

Actin binding protein, Spectrin:

A. Found in RBCs, binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

B. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

C. cross-links microvilli

D. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

E. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

H. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

A

A. found in RBCs, binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

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54
Q

Actin binding protein, Dystrophin:

A. Found in RBCs

B. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

C. cross-links microvilli

D. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

E. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

H. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

A

H. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

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55
Q

Actin binding protein, Villin and Fimbrin:

A. Found in RBCs

B. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

C. Cross-links microvilli

D. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

E. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

H. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

A

C. cross-links microvilli

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56
Q

Actin binding protein, Calmodulin and Myosin I:

A. Found in RBCs, binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

B. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

C. cross-links microvilli

D. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

E. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

H. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

A

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

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57
Q

Actin binding protein, Alpha-actinin:

A. Found in RBCs, binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

B. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

C. cross-links microvilli

D. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

E. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

H. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

A

D. Cross-links stress fibers

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58
Q

Actin binding protein, Filamin:

A. Found in RBCs, binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

B. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

C. cross-links microvilli

D. Cross-links stress fibers and connects actin to protein-plasma membrane complexes

E. Bind to action filaments and prevent dissociation

F. Cross-links actin to plasma membrane in microvilli

G. Block elongation, preventing mitosis

H. Binds cortical cytoskeleton to plasma membrane

A

B. Cross-links actin at wide angles to form screen-like gels

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59
Q

Treadmill controlling protein, Thymosin:

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

D. Triggers depolymerization of ADP-bound actin at the minus end

E. Destabilizes F-actin and caps actin filaments, preventing loss and addition of G-actin. In Ca2+ fragments actin filament and remains bound to plus end.

A

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

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60
Q

Treadmill controlling protein, Profilin:

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

D. Triggers depolymerization of ADP-bound actin at the minus end

E. Destabilizes F-actin and caps actin filaments, preventing loss and addition of G-actin. In Ca2+ fragments actin filament and remains bound to plus end.

A

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

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61
Q

Treadmill controlling protein, Gelosin:

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

D. Triggers depolymerization of ADP-bound actin at the minus end

E. Destabilizes F-actin and caps actin filaments, preventing loss and addition of G-actin. In Ca2+ fragments actin filament and remains bound to plus end.

A

E. Destabilizes F-actin and caps actin filaments, preventing loss and addition of G-actin. In Ca2+ fragments actin filament and remains bound to plus end.

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62
Q

Treadmill controlling protein, Cofilin:

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

D. Triggers depolymerization of ADP-bound actin at the minus end

E. Destabilizes F-actin and caps actin filaments, preventing loss and addition of G-actin. In Ca2+ fragments actin filament and remains bound to plus end.

A

D. Triggers depolymerization of ADP-bound actin at the minus end

63
Q

Treadmill controlling protein, ARP2/3:

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

D. Triggers depolymerization of ADP-bound actin at the minus end

E. Destabilizes F-actin and caps actin filaments, preventing loss and addition of G-actin. In Ca2+ fragments actin filament and remains bound to plus end.

A

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

64
Q

Nucleation is:

A. Rate-limiting step for ARP2/3

B. Requires 2 actin monomers to come together, caused by random collisions

C. are destabilized by tropomyosins

A

A. Rate-limiting step for ARP2/3

B is wrong because 3 monomers have to come together.

65
Q

Treadmill controlling protein, Phalloidin:

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

D. Prevents deploymerization by binding to actin filaments

E. Destabilizes F-actin and caps actin filaments, preventing loss and addition of G-actin. In Ca2+ fragments actin filament and remains bound to plus end.

A

D. Prevents deploymerization by binding to actin filaments

66
Q

Treadmill controlling protein, Latrunculins:

A. Facilitates exchange of bound ADP for ATP - which favors polymerization

B. Captures actin monomers and prevents actin monomers from being polymerized

C. Initiates growth of F-actin from sides of existing filament (branching)

D. Prevents deploymerization by binding to actin filaments

E. Bind to G-actin and induce F-actin depolymerization

A

E. Bind to G-actin and induce F-actin depolymerization

67
Q

Actin-bundling protein, contractile bundles, are cross-linked by:

A. kerotin

B. laminin

C. alpha-actinin

D. beta-actinin

A

C. alpha-actinin

68
Q

Which is more widely spaced? Parallel bundles or Contractile bundles?

A

Contractile bundles (spaced by alpha-actinin)

69
Q

In Parallel bundles, actin filaments are:

A. pointed ends adjacent to the plasma membrane

B. barbed ends adjactent to the plasma membrane

C. Parallel to the plasma membrane

A

B. barbed ends adjactent to the plasma membrane

70
Q

Intermediate filaments are abundent in cells:

A. travelling through capillaries

B. subject to mechanical stress

C. Involved in mitosis

D. Involved in Meosis

A

B. subject to mechanical stress

71
Q

True or False: Intermediate filaments require ATP or GTP to form.

A

False, they form spontaneously

72
Q

How many protofilaments arrange to make up a microtubule?

A. 6

B. 9

C. 12

D. 13

A

D. 13

73
Q

Choose either inhibit or stabilize microtubules:

  1. Vincristine
  2. Colchicines
  3. Colemid
  4. Taxol
  5. Vinblastin
A
  1. Inhibit
  2. Inhibit
  3. Inhibit
  4. Stabilize
  5. Inhibit
74
Q

Cilium consist of:

A. 9 peripheral doublets and 3 central microtubules

B. 13 peripheral doublets and 2 microtubules

C. 9 peripheral doublets and 1 microtubule

D. 9 peripheral doublets and 2 microtubules

A

D. 9 peripheral doublets and 2 microtubules

75
Q

An alpha tubule of a cilium consists of how many protofilaments:

A. 9

B. 13

C. 10-11

D. 11-12

A

B. 13

76
Q

A Beta tubule of a cilium consists of how many protofilaments:

A. 9

B. 13

C. 10-11

D. 11-12

A

C. 10-11

77
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the cytoskeleton:

A. Cell movement

B. Extracellular transport

C. Spindle formation and function

D. Cytokinesis

A

B. Extracellular transport

78
Q

The structure of biologic membranes can BEST be described as:

A. a phospholibid bilayer covered on each face by a continuous sheet of proteins

B. A fluid-mosaic of proteins interspersed in a phospholibid bilayer

C. A phosolipid bilayer with hydrocarbon tails of the phospholibids oriented toward the cytoplasm

D. An internal layer of protein covered on iether side by a layer of phospholipid

A

B. A fluid-mosaic of proteins interspersed in a phospholibid bilayer

79
Q

Which of the following categories of membrane proteins is represented by proteins that have a hydrophobic domain and two hydrophilic domains?

A. Peripheral membrane proteins

B. Transmembrane proteins

C. Importins

D. Spectrin proteins

A

B. Transmembrane proteins

80
Q

Which of the following is located within the membrane phospholipid bilayer and moderates membrane fluidity by restricting movement of phospholipid fatty acid side chains at high temperatures?

A. Phosphatidylcholine

B. Phosphatidylethanolamine

C. Cholesterol

D. Phosphatidylserine

E. Sphingomyelin

A

C. Cholesterol

81
Q

What type of membrane transport molecule carries 2 molecules simultaneously or sequentially in opposite directions?

A. Unitransporter

B. Symporter

C. Antiporter

D. Co-transporter

A

C. Antiporter

82
Q

Which of the following is a member of the phospholipid bilayer outer leaflet:

A. Phosphatidylethanolamine

B. Phosphatidylcholine

C. Phosphatidylinositol

D. Phosphatidylserine

A

B. Phosphatidylcholine

83
Q

Glycolipids are found only where on the cell membrane?

A

outerleaflet with carbohydrate portion facing the extracellular environment.

84
Q

How can integral proteins be removed from the bilayer?

A

detergents ONLY

85
Q

Which of the following descriptions describes the location of the synthesis of all proteins?

A. On free ribosomes

B. On ribosomes bound to the endoplasmic reticulum

C. On the 80S ribosomomal subunit in the eukaryotic nucleus

D. In the cis-compartment of the golgi apparatus

A

A. On free ribosomes

86
Q

Vesicles being transported between Golgi stacks are coated with which of the following kinds of material?

A. COPI

B.COPII

C. Clathrin

D. Triskelions

A

A. COPI

87
Q

SNARE-V and SNARE-T are associated with which of the following processes involving membrane fusion?

A. Vesicle transport from the Golgi apparatus to the plasmalemma

B. Binding of membranes

C. Membrane recognition

D. Dissociation of membranes after initial fusion.

A

C. Membrane recognition

88
Q

During protein synthesis, the signal recognition particle performs which of the following functions?

A. Directs the ribosome to attach to the ER

B. Prevents further elongation of the nascent protein

C. Pulls the nascent protein through the translocon

D. Attaches the nascent protein to they cytoplasmic leaflet of the ER.

A

B. Prevents further elongation of the nascent protein

89
Q

Vesicles carrying newly synthesized proteins from the ER first enter which of the following domains of the Golgi apparatus?

A. Transitional domain

B. Trans face

C. Cis face

D. Intermediate domain

A

C. Cis face

90
Q

the TOM compled refers to which of the following?

A. A translocase that transports proteins across the outer mitochondrial membrane

B. A Transcription factor in the nucleus

C. A Transmembrane protein found in the Golgi apparatus

D. A Trans-domain binding protein which associates with vescicles leaving the Golgi-apparatus.

A

A. A translocase that transports proteins across the outer mitochondrial membrane

91
Q

In Cotranslational translocation:

A. After translated on free ribosomes, they are then translocated into the ER lumen.

B. Occurs most commonly in yeast

C. Proteins are being translated on membrane-bound ribosomes, they are translocated into the ER lumen

A

C. Proteins are being translated on membrane-bound ribosomes, they are translocated into the ER lumen

92
Q

In Posttranslational translocation:

A. After translated on free ribosomes, they are then translocated into the ER lumen.

B. Occurs most commonly in mammals

C. Proteins are being translated on membrane-bound ribosomes, they are translocated into the ER lumen

A

A. After translated on free ribosomes, they are then translocated into the ER lumen.

93
Q

Which of the following processes is non-selective:

A. Receptor-mediated endocytosis

B. Fluid-phase endocytosis

C. Receptor-mediated exocytosis

D. pinocytosis

A

B. Fluid-phase endocytosis (whatever is outside the cell is also brought in)

94
Q

Which of the following connect the clathrin to the receptor molecules?

A. Triskelions

B. HSP70

C. Actin

D. Adaptins

A

D. Adaptins

Triskelions are subunits which interlock to form the geometric shape (3 prong proteins) - make up clathrin

HSP70 is used to remove clathrin from the vesicle after it is released into the cytoplasm

95
Q

Which of the following are used to fuse the vesicle to the target membrane:

A. SNARE-v

B. SNARE-t

C. SNAPS and NSF

D. SNP and NSE

A

C. SNAPS and NSF

96
Q

Which of the following occurs first when a vesicle is docking:

A. SNAP binds to SNARE

B. Binding of synapsins to spectrin

C. Release of NSF and SNAP from SNARE

D. NSF/SNAP complex disassembles SNARE for reuse

A

B. Binding of synapsins to spectrin (happens right after vescicle coat is removed) - see figure 2-20

97
Q

What attaches to a ribosome and prevents any further elongation?

A. ATP

B. SRP

C. HVA

D. RBV

A

B. SRP - Signal recognition particle, consists of 6 proteins, 7S segment of RNA

98
Q

The signal sequence is inserted into a membrane channel called what:

A. Nucleoporin

B. Translocon

C. Desmoglein

D. Aquaporin

A

B. Translocon, consists of three transmembrane proteins (sec61 proteins)

99
Q

What protein pulls the polypeptide chain through the channel into the ER lumen?

A. HSP70

B. BiP

C. SRP

D. nascent protein

A

B. BiP - review figure 2-15.

HSP70 keeps the polypeptide chain unfolded so it can enter the channel

BiP pulls it through into the ER lumen

A sugar chain is then attached to an asparagine residue

The growing protein is moved into the lumen of the ER

100
Q

Which of the following is NOT a domain of the ER:

A. Transitional ER

B. Smooth ER

C. cytoplasmic ER

D. Rough ER

A

C. cytoplasmic ER

HOWEVER the cytoplasm of the ER is divided into two compartments

1) the luminal (endoplasmic compartment)
2) the cytoplasmic (cytosolic) compartment

101
Q

Which leaflet in the ER faces the cytoplasm of the cell?

A. protoplasmic leaflet

B. exocytoplasmic leaflet

C. reticular leaflet

D. cytoplasm leaflet

A

B. exocytoplasmic leaflet

the protoplasmic leaflet faces the lumen of the ER

102
Q

What is the name of the anchor that attaches to the carboxyl end of plasma membrane bound proteins?

A. HVA anchor

B. RBD anchor

C. CEP anchor

D. GPI anchor

A

D. GPI anchor = glycosylphosphatidylinositol

103
Q

What is the name of the chaperone that that attemps to re-fold mis-folded proteins once identified in the ER:

A) HSP70

B) Calreticulin

C) Progesterose

D) BiP

A

B) Calreticulin - attemps to refold after sensing protein adds glucose to misfolded protein

104
Q

What is the name of the protein that transfers phospholipids located in the luminal leaflet of the ER:

A) Flippase

B) Phostranstase

C)HSP70

D)BiP

A

A) Flippase

105
Q

Which of the following is the addition of carbohydrates to serine and threonine in the Golgi apparatus:

A) N-linked glycosylation

B) M-linked glycosylation

C) O-linked glycosylation

D) D-linked glycosylation

A

C) O-linked glycosylation

N-linked is the addition of carbohydrates to arginine

The golgi apparatus also synthesises sphingomyelin and glycosphingolipids

106
Q

Which secretory pathway secretes cargo continuously and does not require an extracellular signal?

A. Faculative secretion

B. Constitutive secretion

C. Continual secretion

D. Lysosomal secretion

A

B. Constitutive secretion

Faculative secretion are released in response to an extracellular signal such as a hormone or neurotransmitter

107
Q

What serves as the signal for lysosomal enzymes?

A. HSP70

B. glucose

C. phospate

D. mannose-6-phosphate

A

D. mannose-6-phosphate - review figure 2-21

108
Q

What is the pH of a secondary lysosome?

A. 7.3-7.4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 5

A

D. 5

109
Q

How does a protein know that it is bound to go to the nucleus?

A. the nascent protein coding

B. it contains an NLS

C. it contains a negatively charged code which directs it

D. It doesn’t, it is guided by a guiding protein.

A

B. it contains an NLS (consisting of 4-8 amino acids) - stands for nuclear localization signal

110
Q

How does a protein know that it is bound to go to the mitochondria?

A. the nascent protein coding

B. it contains an MLS

C. N-terminal sequence signal mark the proteins

D. It doesn’t, it is guided by a guiding protein.

A

C. N-terminal sequence signal mark the proteins (positively charged)

111
Q

Prior to import into the mitochondria, the proteins are maintained in an ulfolded state by:

A. HSP70

B. BiP

C. TOM complex

D. nascent protein

A

A. HSP70

112
Q

Anterograde transport along the axon involves what protein?

A

Kinesins

113
Q

Retrograde transport along the axon to the cell body involves what protein?

A

Dynein

114
Q

Which of the following descriptions best describes faculative heterochromatin?

A. Transcriptionally active chromatin

B. Condensed chromatin that is not transcriped in the specific cell being examined

C. Condensed chromatin that is not transcribed

D. Condensed chromatin that is associated with nuclear pore complexes

A

B. Condensed chromatin that is not transcriped in the specific cell being examined

115
Q

Which of the following descriptions best describes heterochromatin?

A. Transcriptionally active chromatin

B. Condensed chromatin that is not transcriped in the specific cell being examined

C. Condensed chromatin that is not transcribed

D. Condensed chromatin that is associated with nuclear pore complexes

A

C. Condensed chromatin that is not transcribed

116
Q

Which of the following descriptions best describes euchromatin?

A. Transcriptionally active chromatin

B. Condensed chromatin that is not transcriped in the specific cell being examined

C. Condensed chromatin that is not transcribed

D. Condensed chromatin that is associated with nuclear pore complexes

A

A. Transcriptionally active chromatin

117
Q

Which of the following proteins found on the inner membrane of the nucleus, are phosphorylated early in the cell cycle and become unstable?

A. Helicases

B. Nidogens

C. Lamins

D. Cyclins

A

C. Lamins

118
Q

In the interphase nucleus, concentrations of mRNA spicing machinery are referred to as which of the following?

A. Replication factories

B. Nuclear speckles

C. PML bodies

D. Cajal bodies

A

B. Nuclear speckles

119
Q

Which of the following is a distinct functional body where replication appears to take place:

A. Replication factories

B. Nuclear speckles

C. PML bodies

D. Cajal bodies

A

A. Replication factories

120
Q

Which of the following are sites of accumulation of transcription factors and chromatin modifying proteins, but function is unknown:

A. Replication factories

B. Nuclear speckles

C. PML bodies

D. Cajal bodies

A

C. PML bodies

121
Q

Which of the following contain the protein coilin and may be sites of ribonucleoprotein assembly:

A. Replication factories

B. Nuclear speckles

C. PML bodies

D. Cajal bodies

A

D. Cajal bodies

122
Q

The nuclear localization signal on a specific protein is recognized by which of the following components of the nucleocytoplasmic transport system?

A. importin a

B. importin b

C. Ran-GDP

D. Ran-GTP

A

A. importin a

123
Q

Which of the following are proteins that contain importin ab and exportin?

A. Niacins

B. Ran

C. Karyopherins

D. HP70

A
124
Q

The nuclear pore complex consists of how many spokes?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

A

C. 8

125
Q

Which of the following binds to importin B and moves through the pore into the nucloplasm?

A. importin a

B. importin b

C. Ran-GDP

D. Ran-GTP

A

C. Ran-GDP

126
Q

Which of the following associates with exportins?

A. importin a

B. importin b

C. Ran-GDP

D. Ran-GTP

A

D. Ran-GTP - GO OVER FIGURE 1-41

127
Q

Directionality of transport in the nucleus is determined by:

A. RAN/GTP concentration

B. nascent proteins

C. sodium concentration

D. potassium concentration

A

A. RAN/GTP concentration

128
Q

Nucleosomes are protein complexes that result in DNA packing into a 10nm diameter chromatin fiber. Which of the following classes of histones is responsible for linking the DNA to the nucleosome?

A. H1

B. H2A

C. H3

D. H4

A

A. H1

H2a, h2b, h3, h4 make up a histone (8 - 2 of each). DNA is wrapped around the histones 1.65 times.

129
Q

The solenoid chromosome packing mechanism’s ratio is:

A. 1:7

B. 1:30

C. 1:10,000

D. 1:20

A

B. 1:30

1:7 is for the nucleosome structure.

130
Q

Which of the following is involved in chromosome separation during mitosis and meiosis?

A. Telomeric sequence

B. Centromeric sequence

C. Replication initiation sequence

A

B. Centromeric sequence

Replication initiation sequence - is the initial site for the start of dna replication

Telomeric sequence is located at the ends of chromosomes and ensures chromosome integrity

131
Q

Where in the nucleus is rRNA transcribed?

A. nuclear membrane

B. nucleolus

C. nucleoplasm

D. cytoplasm

A

B. nucleolus

132
Q

Which region of the nucleolus is made up of tightly coiled non-transcribed chromatin?

A. Fibrillar center

B. Dense fibrils

C. Granules

A

A. Fibrillar center

Dense fibrils consist of RNPs and are the site of active transcription of RNA

Granules contain maturing ribosomal units and precursors of RNA containing RNPs

133
Q

The small ribosomal subunit is a 40S complex. It is composed of proteins plus which of the following rRNA assemblies?

A. 28S

B. 18S

C. 5.8S

D. 5S

A

B. 18S

large ribosomeal subunit(60S) contains the 28S, 5.8S and 5S

134
Q

Which of the following is the rRNA precursor that is cleaved into 28S, 18S, 5.8S

A. 40S

B. 45S

C. 60S

D. 32S

A

B. 45S

135
Q

At which of the following points in the cell cycle are chromosomes composed of a single chromatid?

A. End of G1

B. Beginning of G2

C. Prophase

D. Metaphase

A

A. End of G1

136
Q

Cytokinesis typically occurs during which of the following stages?

A. Interphase

B. Prophase

C. Anaphase

D. Telophase

A

D. Telophase

137
Q

Which of the following details the centrioles duplicating during interphase and sister centrioles separating during prophase.

A. Chromosomal cycle

B. Cytoplasmic cycle

C. Nuclear cycle

D. Centrosomal cycle

A

D. Centrosomal cycle

138
Q

Which of the following cycles details lamins being phosphorylated to become unstable and dephosphorylated to reform the membrane:

A. Chromosomal cycle

B. Cytoplasmic cycle

C. Nuclear cycle

D. Centrosomal cycle

A

C. Nuclear cycle

139
Q

Which of the following cycles details the increase in cell volume and during embriogenesis creating cells of less volume due to a shorter G1 period.

A. Chromosomal cycle

B. Cytoplasmic cycle

C. Nuclear cycle

D. Centrosomal cycle

A

B. Cytoplasmic cycle

140
Q

Which of the following details te replication of the DNA molecules through the unwinding of the DNA helix?

A. Chromosomal cycle

B. Cytoplasmic cycle

C. Nuclear cycle

D. Centrosomal cycle

A

A. Chromosomal cycle

141
Q

Which of the below, if not dephosphylated, will not allow the cell to continue to the S and M states?

A. CDK1

B. MPF

C. cyklin E

D. cyklin D

A

B. MPF - mitosis promotion factor (Cdk1 and Cyclin B)

142
Q

During G1 the cell has how many centrosomes for both maternal and daughter centrioles?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

A. 1

143
Q

Cdk4 and Cdk6 are activated by:

A. Cyclin A

B. Cyclin B

C. Cyclin C

D. Cyclin D

A

D. Cyclin D (early G1)

144
Q

Cdk2 is activated by:

A. Cyclin D

B. Cyclin A

C. Cyclin B

D. Cyclin E

A

D. Cyclin E (late G1)

145
Q

Cyclin A binds to what during S phase:

A. Cdk1

B. Cdk2

C. Cdk4

D. Cdk6

A

B. Cdk2 (initiation of S phase)

146
Q

And the end of G2, Which of the following bindings is required for the cell to go into prophase?

A. Cyclin B and Cdk1

B. Cdk4/6 and Cyclin D

C. Cyclin E and Cdk2

D. Cyclin A and Cdk1

A

D. Cyclin A and Cdk1

147
Q

Which of the following complexes actively participate and complete mitosis?

A. Cdk1 and Cyclin B

B. Cdk4/6 and Cyclin D

C. Cdk2 and Cyclin E

D. Cdk1 and Cyclin A

A

A. Cdk1 and Cyclin B

148
Q

Checkpoints 1 and 2 are located respectively at:

A. G1 start, G2 start

B. G1 end, G2 end

C. Mitosis start and S end

D. S end and G2 end

A

B. G1 end, G2 end

149
Q

Which of the following spend the least amount of time in the G1 stage?

A. Labile cells

B. Embryonic cells

C. non-dividing cells

A

B. Embryonic cells

150
Q

Karyokinesis refers to:

A. Physical division of nuclear material

B. Physical division of cytoplasmic material

C. Increase in ploidy

A

A. Physical division of nuclear material

B - is cytokinesis

C - is endomitosis when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

151
Q

In which phase does the nuclear membrane begin to disintegrate?

A. Prophase

B. Metaphase

C. Anaphase

D. Telophase

A

A. Prophase

152
Q

Which of the following spindle microtubules extend from pole to pole or aster to aster?

A. Astral microtubules

B. Polar microtubules

C. Kinetochore microtubules

A

B. Polar microtubules

A - radiate toward cell periphery

C - extend from one pole to a kinetochore

153
Q

Cytokinesis may begin during anaphase and is triggered by the inactivation of:

A. Cdk1

B. Cdk2

C. Cdk4

D. Cdk6

A

A. Cdk1

154
Q

Add in tumor suppressor gene questions?

A