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Test 1 quizzes Flashcards

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1
Q

… was a Dutch clothing inspector and the first to view bacteria (“wee animalcules”) in 1684.

A

Antoni van Leeuwenhoek

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2
Q

The idea of miasmas (spontaneous generation of life) was disproven through the use of a swan neck flask in 1864 by _______, who showed that life only comes from life.

A

Louis Pasteur

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3
Q

The higher the _____ of a microscope’s objective lens, the better the resolution.

A

Numerical aperture

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4
Q

You are working at Bye-Bye Biofilms, Inc., a biotech company investigating how to prevent the growth of microorganisms on ship hulls. You have samples of thick biofilms from cargo ships and need to visualize the different layers of the sample to identify the organisms involved in its formation. The BEST microscopy technique for your project is _____.

A

Confocal laser scanning microscopy

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5
Q

Cell size has important implications for bacteria. Smaller cells have higher surface-volume ratios, resulting in _____.

A

Faster growth rates and rapid genome evolution

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6
Q

Streptococcus mutans is a facultatively anaerobic, Gram-positive bacterium that plays a key role in tooth decay in the oral cavity. If you were examining this bacterium under a microscope, what cell morphology would you expect to see?

A

A chain of spherical cells in line

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7
Q

Instead of using ATP, the phosphotransferase system (an example of group translocation) uses _____ as the energy source to transport glucose into the cell.

A

Phosphoenolpyruvate (PE-P)

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Gram-positive bacteria?

A

(D) Presence of two membranes (outer and inner)

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9
Q

_____ are protein filaments that extend from bacterial cells and function in surface attached and the exchange of genetic material between cells.

A

Pili

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10
Q

Which cell structure helps bacteria avoid desiccation (water loss)?

A

Capsules

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11
Q

Small acid-soluble proteins (SASPs) protect DNA from ultraviolet light and are found in high numbers within _____.

A

Endospores

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12
Q

Characteristics of gliding motility include _____.

A

Contact with surface

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13
Q

You are working at Novel Bugs Inc. to culture a newly discovered bacterium with unknown nutritional requirements. You decide to use a _____ medium as the simplest approach that is mostly likely to grow the new bacterium.

A

Complex

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14
Q

Compounds at the bottom of the redox tower represent the strongest electron _____ in redox reactions.

A

Acceptors

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15
Q

During fermentation, pyruvate molecules are further catabolized yet no additional energy is produced. Fermentation is still critical to ATP yield because _____.

A

NADH is recycled (oxidized) to NAD+ for subsequent rounds of glycolysis

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16
Q

Which feature of anaerobic and aerobic respiration is different between the two catabolic strategies?

A

Electron acceptor

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17
Q

Feedback inhibition regulates the enzymes of anabolic reactions, occurring when the end product of the biosynthetic pathways binds to the _____ of the enzyme.

A

Allosteric site

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18
Q

The divisome complex includes the protein _____, which functions in peptidoglycan synthesis during cell division and represents a new target for antibiotic drugs.

A

Ftsl

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19
Q

During station phase of the microbial growth cycle, the growth rate of the population is zero because ______.

A

Of cryptic growth, where some cells are growing and others are dying

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20
Q

You are working for BugPower Probiotics Inc. and studying how long probiotic bacteria stay viable (alive) in your products. Your probiotics are easy to grow in culture and you want to count only living cells in your products. What would be the BEST method for measuring growth?

A

Viable count

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21
Q

Exceeding the maximum temperature of a microorganism results in _____, where exposure below the minimum temperature results in _____.

A

Cell death, no growth

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22
Q

Molecular adaptations that allow thermophiles to thrive in extreme environments include all the following EXCEPT _____.

A

Cryoprotectant molecules

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23
Q

The study of fungi is called ______?
(A) Phycology
(B) Mycology
(C) Virology
(D) Prokaryotes
(E) None of the above

A

B

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24
Q

Fungi are ______ organisms.
(A) heterotrophic
(B) saprophytic
(C) autotrophic
(D) photosynthetic
(E) viruses

A

B

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25
Q

What field of microbiological studies are exclusive to ONLY eukaryotes?
(A) Bacteriology
(B) Myology
(C) Phycology
(D) B and C
(E) All of the above

A

D

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26
Q

Which of the following naturally produces the antibiotic penicillin?
(A) Mold
(B) Yeast
(C) Bacteria
(D) Archaea
(E) None of the above

A

A

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27
Q

Three examples of applied microbiology are __.
(A) Agriculture, taxonomy, evolution
(B) Agriculture, industrial, biotechnology
(C) Agriculture, taxonomy, biotechnology
(D) Medicinal, evolution, biotechnology
(E) None of the above

A

B

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28
Q

Which process allows scientist to develop new types of products, technologies, and
processes?
(A) Laboratory culturing
(B) Incubation
(C) Biotechnology
(D) Biochemistry

A

C

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29
Q

Laboratory culture advantages include ______?
(A) Large stock of target organisms
(B) Biochemical tests
(C) Access to all organisms
(D) A and B only
(E) All the above

A

D

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30
Q

Over the past 100 years, the leading cause of death has gone from _____ to ______.
(A) Tuberculosis, stroke
(B) Gastroenteritis, cancer
(C) Influenza and Pneumonia, heart disease
(D) Cancer, tuberculosis
(E) None of the above

A

C

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31
Q

Within the history of microbial agents of disease, what trend BEST fits disease prevalence
within modern society?
(A) Increase in infectious disease, decrease in genetic disease
(B) Increase in genetic disease, decrease in infectious disease
(C) Decrease in infectious disease, decrease in genetic disease
(D) Increase in genetic disease, increase in infectious disease
(E) None of the above

A

B

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32
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage to DNA or Genome sequencing?
(A) It is difficult to access all microorganisms
(B) No biochemical tests can be conducted
(C) It is a very long process
(D) Genetic blueprints cannot be obtained
(E) All of the above

A

B

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33
Q

The first medicinal microbiologist is ___ ___, and they are credited with debunking the
theory of spontaneous generation in 1864.
(A) Alexander Fleming
(B) Joseph Lister
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) Louis Pasteur
(E) None of the above

A

D

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34
Q

Who contributed to the development of vaccines, specifically for Smallpox?
(A) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
(B) Ignaz Semmelweis
(C) Louis Pasteur
(D) Robert Hooke
(E) Edward Jenner

A

E

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35
Q

Which of the following scientists discovered microbes?
(A) Alexander Fleming
(B) Robert Hooke
(C) Edward Jenner
(D) Ignaz Semmelweis
(E) Louis Pasteur

A

B

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36
Q

One day _________ accidentally left out his culture plate and instead of throwing the plate
he noticed something interesting about the mold leading to the discovery of the first
antibiotic ________ .
(A) Joseph Lister, Antiseptics
(B) Alexander Fleming, Penicillin
(C) Robert Koch, Tuberculosis
(D) Ignaz Semmelweis, Amoxicillin
(E) None of the above

A

B

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37
Q

The Hungarian physician that introduced hand washing to hospitals in 1847 was ___
(A) Ignaz Semmelweis
(B) Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) Louis Pasteur
(E) None of the above

A

A

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38
Q

Which definition most closely defines the term “contrast” within microscopy?
(A) The ability to enlarge a visual.
(B) The ability to better visualize a sample.
(C) The ability to distinguish a sample from the background.
(D) The measure of light capturing ability.
(E) None of the above

A

C

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39
Q

What does the oil immersion technique do?
(A) Increases the magnification
(B) Increases the amount of light
(C) Increases the resolution
(D) Increases contrast
(E) None of the above

A

C

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40
Q

When looking at a microscope, the oil-immersion technique _____ the numerical aperature
by altering the light rays to become _____.
(A) Decreases; Less refracted
(B) Decreases; More refracted
(C) Increases; Less refracted
(D) Increases; More refracted
(E) None of the above

A

C

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41
Q

A scientist is looking to see if there are too different cell types present in a culture. The
BEST technique to use is ___
(A) Phase-contrast microscopy
(B) Differential dyes
(C) Basic dyes
(D) Dark-field microscopy
(E) None of the above

A

B

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42
Q

A Microbiologist is using a differential stain to study bacteria under a microscope. What is
the purpose of using a differential stain?
(A) To give you a 3-D image
(B) To differentiate between two different cell types
(C) To increase the resolution of the image
(D) To give all the cells fluorescence
(E) None of the above

A

B

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43
Q

You obtain a specimen that you must observe under the microscope while the cells are still
alive. Additionally, this specimen is light, so it requires a dark background to be efficiently
studied. This specimen requires _____ microscopy.
(A) Scanning Electron
(B) Dark Field
(C) Bright Field
(D) Phase Contrast
(E) None of the above

A

B

44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of light microscopy?
(A) Bright field
(B) Phase contrast
(C) Transmission electron
(D) Fluorescence
(E) All of these are types of light microscopy

A

C

45
Q

If you wanted to view a 2-D image of a cell and see the internal features, what would you
use?
(A) Transmission electron Microscope
(B) scanning electron Microscope
(C) atomic force microscopy
(D) Fluorescence microscopy
(E) all the above

A

A

46
Q

Which microscope would be best suited to observe a cell at High Resolution, in 2-D, and
view internal structures_______?
(A) Dark-Field Microscopy
(B) Atomic Force Microscopy
(C) SEM (Scanning Electron Microscope)
(D) TEM (Transmission Electron Microscope)
(E) None of the above

A

D

47
Q

Embarking on a microscopic adventure, which high-tech tool unleashes the magic of
“Microscopic Reality TV”, granting a front-row seat to live specimens without the fuss of
fixatives or coatings?
(A) Quantum Entanglement Module
(B) Nano Dance Party Sensor
(C) Holographic Cantilever System
(D) Viewing Live Specimens
(E) None of the above

A

D

48
Q

You are trying to study a wide array of marine bacteria. ______ would be an example of a
technique you would NOT be interested in using.
(A) Molecular techniques
(B) Lab culture
(C) Phase contrast microscopy
(D) Dark field microscopy
(E) All of the above

A

C

49
Q

______ is the heavy metal coating needed for the Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) to
work properly?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Iron
(D) Platinum
(E) None of the above

A

B

50
Q

Which of the following morphology and cluster would best describe a grouped spherical
bacterium?
(A) Coccus and Diplo
(B) Bacillus and Diplo
(C) Coccus and Staphylo
(D) Bacillus and Staphylo
(E) Coccus and Strepto

A

C

51
Q

A chain of rod-shaped cells would be considered…
(A) streptobacillus
(B) streptococcus
(C) staphylococcus
(D) diplococcus
(E) diplobacillus

A

A

52
Q

Which is NOT a main shape for cells?
(A) Filamentous
(B) Spirochete
(C) Coccus
(D) Diplo

A

D

53
Q

When observing ______ under a microscope you notice tiny clusters of spherical cells.
(A) Streptococcus pyogenes
(B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Clostridium tetani
(D) Both A and B
(E) None of the above

A

B

54
Q

Which definition most closely defines the term “hydrophobic”?
(A) Water hugging
(B) Water attraction
(C) Water fearing
(D) Water moving
(E) None of the above

A

C

55
Q

The cytoplasmic membrane acts as a protein anchor holding ____.
(A) Enzymes
(B) Antibodies
(C) Transport Proteins
(D) ATP
(E) None of the above

A

C

56
Q

Which of the following is a unique component of some archaeal cytoplasmic membranes?
(A) Phospholipid bilayer
(B) Ester linkage
(C) Phospholipid monolayer
(D) Both A and B
(E) None of the abov

A

C

57
Q

In which type of transport is the substance chemically modified?
(A) Group translocation
(B) ABC system
(C) Protein export
(D) Diffusion
(E) None of the above

A

A

58
Q

Where does the ABC system occur?
(A) Inner membrane
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Cell wall
(D) Periplasm
(E) None of the above

A

D

59
Q

______ are the transport proteins involving periplasmic binding proteins where energy comes
from ATP
(A) Simple
(B) Group Translocation
(C) ABC transporter
(D) Lac Permease
(E) None of the above

A

C

60
Q

Lac Permease is a type of ______ Transport Protein.
(A) Simple
(B) Group Translocation
(C) Periplasmic ABC
(D) PE-P
(E) None of the above

A

A

61
Q

The Phosphotranspherase system in group translocation requires _____ proteins
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 3
(E) 2

A

A

62
Q

Which of the following are systems of transportation within the cytoplasmic membrane?
(A) Simple Transport
(B) Electron Transport
(C) Group Translocation
(D) Periplasmic (ABC) Transport
(E) All of the above

A

E

63
Q

In Archaea cell walls, ______ makes up the walls.
(A) Cellulose
(B) Peptidoglycan
(C) Pseudomurein
(D) Exposorium
(E) None of the above

A

C

64
Q

What is the difference between different types of peptidoglycan found in bacteria?
(A) Peptide cross-links
(B) Glycosidic bonds
(C) Sugar backbone
(D) Sugar derivatives
(E) None of the above

A

A

65
Q

You are a microbiologist studying a newly discovered microbe. From your research, you can
determine that this microbe’s cell wall contains peptidoglycan. Based on this, how would you
classify this microbe?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Archaea
(C) Fungi
(D) Algae
(E) None of the above

A

A

66
Q

______ is not a characteristic of Gram-Negative bacteria.
(A) Teichoic acids embedded in cell wall
(B) A second lipid bilayer
(C) Periplasm
(D) Porins
(E) None of the above

A

A

67
Q

What anchors the outer membrane to the peptidoglycan layer?
(A) Peptidoglycan
(B) Lipopolysaccharide
(C) Lipoproteins
(D) Phospholipids
(E) None of the above

A

C

68
Q

Gram positive bacteria will stain ______ after the last re-staining process.
(A) Pink
(B) Blue
(C) Purple
(D) A and C
(E) It depends on the type of bacteria.

A

C

69
Q

Gram-negative bacterial cell walls contain ______?
(A) Thin Peptidoglycan
(B) Thick Peptidoglycan
(C) Outer Membrane
(D) Both A and C
(E) Only A

A

D

70
Q

The ______ is located in between the outer membrane and the cytoplasmic membrane.
(A) Phospholipid bilayer
(B) lipopolysaccharide
(C) Periplasm
(D) polysaccharides
(E) Porin

A

C

71
Q

All of the following are located in the outer membrane of Gram (-) bacteria EXCEPT:
(A) Lipoproteins
(B) Periplasm
(C) Teichoic Acids
(D) Porins
(E) None of the above

A

C

72
Q

What is the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria composed of?
(A) Peptidoglycan
(B) Lipopolysaccharide
(C) Proteins
(D) Iron
(E) None of the above

A

B

73
Q

Which of the following is a main function of the cytoplasmic membrane?
(A) Serves as permeability barrier
(B) Serves as protein anchor
(C) Provides energy conservation
(D) A and B
(E) A, B, and C

A

E

74
Q

Which of the following are examples of Gram positive bacteria?
(A) Staphlyococcus
(B) Streptococcus
(C) Bacillus
(D) Clostridium
(E) All of the above

A

E

75
Q

Which of the following is a function of the cell wall in bacteria?
(A) Prevents osmotic lysis
(B) House teichoic acids in some bacteria
(C) Give cell shape and rigidity
(D) A and C
(E) A, B, and C

A

E

76
Q

How do the cytoplasmic membranes of archaea and bacteria differ?
(A) One has an ester group and one has an alcohol group
(B) Only bacteria can have a monolayer membrane
(C) Their fatty acid composition
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above

A

C

77
Q

Functions of slime layers include ______?
(A) Attachment to Surfaces
(B) Avoid Phagocytosis
(C) Avoid Desiccation
(D) All the above
(E) None of the above

A

D

78
Q

Pili are unique hollow structures that allow cells to _______?
(A) Store carbon
(B) Survive extreme heat
(C) Exchange genetic information
(D) Avoid desiccation
(E) Create a negative magnetic attraction

A

C

79
Q

On your way to the Seahawks basketball game, you step on a nail that pierces your foot. You
suddenly realize that you are not current on your tetanus shots and could develop a
Clostridium tetani infection. Since you are taking Microbiology this semester you know that
getting this infection is very serious because Clostridium tetani makes ______ that make it a
highly resistant bacterium and almost impossible to kill.
(A) Endospores
(B) Teichoic Acids
(C) Peptidoglycan
(D) PE-P
(E) None of the above

A

A

80
Q

ll of the following are physical protection properties of endospores except…
(A) Exosporium (protein)
(B) Spore Coat (protein)
(C) Cortex (peptidoglycan)
(D) Small Acid-Soluble Proteins (SASPs)
(E) None of the above

A

D

81
Q

______ allow bacteria to survive in very harsh conditions
(A) magnetosomes
(B) Proton motive force
(C) Periplasmic membrane
(D) endospores
(E) None of the above

A

D

82
Q

____ are present in bacteria and archaea that allows for ___ and flotation.
(A) Endospores, vegetative
(B) Gas Vesicles, buoyancy
(C) Pili, attachment
(D) Capsule, gene transfer
(E) None of the above

A

B

83
Q

Are pili and flagella synonymous (the same)? Why or why not?
(A) Yes, they are both appendages.
(B) Yes, they both transport genetic information.
(C) No, flagella are for locomotion, pili is for protection.
(D) No, flagella are for locomotion, pili transport genetic information between cells.
(E) None of the above

A

D

84
Q

Which of the trace elements are targeted and scavenged by siderophores?
(A) Chromium (Cr)
(B) Selenium (Se)
(C) Copper (Cu)
(D) Iron (Fe)
(E) None of the above

A

D

85
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the process of life in metabolic diversity?
(A) Acquiring Nutrients
(B) Making Polymers
(C) Producing Endospores
(D) Assembling Macromolecules
(E) None of the above

A

C

86
Q

In the quest to cultivate a bacterium with mysterious taste preferences, which medium would
you employ?
(A) Complex
(B) Defined
(C) Selective
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above

A

A

87
Q

In the microbiology laboratory, you realize you are starving for a muffin. After some
contemplation, you realize the closest thing you can get to a muffin at the moment is
culturing some yeast extract. Since yeast extract includes extracts of impure substances, it
would be classified as _________
(A) Complex media
(B) A virus
(C) Defined media
(D) Pure culture
(E) None of the above

A

A

88
Q

______ is the catabolic process that is usually aerobic and produces ATP from both
Substrate-Level Phosphorylation and Oxidative Phosphorylation?
(A) Metabolism
(B) Respiration
(C) Fermentation
(D) Glycolysis
(E) None of the above

A

B

89
Q

Chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs are similar but are differentiated by _______.
(A) How they process energy
(B) Their source of carbon
(C) Their source of energy
(D) Both A and B
(E) None of these are correct

A

C

90
Q

______ use light as an energy source along with inorganic CO2.
(A) Photoheterotrophs
(B) Photoautotrophs
(C) Chemheterotrophs
(D) Chemoautotrophs
(E) None of the above

A

B

91
Q

As humans, we use chemicals as an energy source along with organic carbon, making us
_______.
(A) Photoautotrophs
(B) Chemoautotrophs
(C) Photoheterotrophs
(D) Chemheterotrophs
(E) None of the above

A

D

92
Q

As humans, our energy source comes from chemicals, and our carbon source comes from
organic carbon. Under which category of metabolism would humans fall under?
(A) Photoheterotrophs
(B) Photoautotrophs
(C) Chemoautotrophs
(D) Chemoheterotrophs
(E) Chemoautoheterotrophs

A

D

93
Q

Within the redox tower, the ______ reside at the top.
(A) Strongest electron acceptors
(B) Strongest electron donors
(C) Weakest electron donors
(D) Weakest electron acceptors
(E) Electron carriers

A

B

94
Q

The type of metabolism that uses CO2 along with chemical energy is ___?
(A) Photoautotrophs
(B) Chemoautotrophs
(C) Photoheterotrophs
(D) Chemoheterotrophs
(E) None of the above

A

B

95
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain during aerobic respiration?
(A) Oxygen
(B) ATP
(C) Glycogen
(D) NADH
(E) Pyruvate

A

A

96
Q

Which electron acceptor is used first (preferred) in anaerobic respiration?
(A) oxygen
(B) Nitrate
(C) Iron
(D) Sulfate
(E) none of the above

A

B

97
Q

Which of the following could be considered an alternate electron receptor for anaerobic
respiration?
(A) Nitrate
(B) Iron
(C) Sulfate
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above

A

D

98
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about anaerobic respiration?
(A) Anaerobic respiration produces more energy than aerobic respiration
(B) Oxygen is used as a final electron acceptor
(C) One of the processes in anaerobic respiration is fermentation
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above

A

E

99
Q

As a microorganism, you realize you are detrimentally low on energy! You use your cellular
processes to start fermentation to break down glucose into _______
(A) Smaller pieces of glucose that the cells can take in easier
(B) Ammonia
(C) Oxygen
(D) Pyruvate
(E) None of the above

A

D

100
Q

The major purpose(s) of fermentation includes
(A) Replenish NAD+
(B) Produce by-products used in various foods
(C) Create short-term energy in form of ATP
(D) Support the electron transport chain
(E) A and B

A

E

101
Q

______ is not a final electron acceptor in anaerobic respiration.
(A) Nitrate
(B) Iron
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sulfate
(E) All choices are final electron acceptors in anaerobic respiration

A

C

102
Q

We as humans are ______ and mainly use _______ respiration that produces carbon dioxide.
(A) Chemoautotrophs, aerobic
(B) Chemoheterotrophs, aerobic
(C) Chemoheterotrophs, anaerobic
(D) Photoheterotrophs, anaerobic
(E) None of the above

A

B

103
Q

Which of the following are functions of the Electron Transport Chain?
(A) Separate protons and electrons
(B) Synthesize ATP
(C) Export proton from the cell
(D) Assist constructing polymers
(E) A and C

A

E

104
Q

What is the role of the active site of an enzyme?
(A) Binding site for the substrate
(B) Binding site for the end product
(C) Binding site for the allosteric effector
(D) A and B
(E) A, B, and C

A

A

105
Q

Which of the following is used for long-term energy storage from redox reactions?
(A) Poly-b-hydroxybutryate (PHB)
(B) ATP
(C) Glycogen
(D) Both A and C
(E) Both A and B

A

D

106
Q

How do cells store energy long-term from redox reactions?
(A) PHB, Glycogen
(B) ATP, PE-P, acetyl-CoA
(C) PE-P, Co-A
(D) Glycogen, Co-A
(E) ATP, PE-P, acetyl-CoA

A

A

107
Q
A

Micro Bio (11 decks)

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