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4th Semester: Clin Path > Test 1: Example Questions > Flashcards

Test 1: Example Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Microcytic anemia in domestic animals

is most often associated with

A

Iron deficiency

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2
Q

Splenctomy is almost always required in the

pathogenesis of hemolytic anemia in

which pathogen?

A

Mycoplasma haemocanis

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3
Q

Which morphologic abnormality is seen

in RBCs 24-48 hours following

rattlesnake envenomation?

A

Echinocytes

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4
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells:

Neutrophils

Basophils

Eosinophils

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

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5
Q

How do you determine the percentage of

reticulocytes?

A

%retics/ #RBC

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6
Q

How do you best explain how neutrophils develop

toxic change?

A

Rapid multiplication and shortened maturation

time in bone marrow

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7
Q

What would indicate a “Left Shift”

on a CBC?

A

An increase in BAND neutrophils

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8
Q

The best explanation for the increase in MCV

in a dog with IMHA is

A

Agglutination and Reticulocytosis

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9
Q

The most probable cause of

thrombocytopenia in a dog with IMHA is

A

Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia

or

DIC

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10
Q

Which laboratory test is most likely to be helpful in determining whether a regenerative anemia is due to extravascular hemolysis or blood loss that occurred 3 days ago?

A

Plasma protein concentration

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11
Q

What do you look at on a leukogram

to determine prognosis?

What would indicate the worst prognosis

if you are comparing leukograms between

animals?

A

Bands>Segs = poor prognosis

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12
Q

What finding is the most diagnostically useful in dogs with immune mediated haemolytic anemia?

A

Spherocytosis

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13
Q

In which species is neonatal isoerythrolysis most common?

A

Equine

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14
Q

In which of the following conditions would you be LEAST likely to see an erroneously increased MCHC in a cat?

  • Failure to fast the patient before bleeding
  • Tylenol toxicosis
  • Onion toxicosis
  • Reticulocytosis following acute blood loss
  • Mycoplasma haemofelis infection
A

Reticulocytosis follwing blood loss

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15
Q

Which type of tube should be used for collection of a blood sample for a complete blood count?

A

EDTA- Lavender top tube

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16
Q

Iron injections would be most likely to be required in which species, assuming that the neonates are in an enclosed facility?

A

Baby pigs!

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17
Q

Which of the following disorders is LEAST likely to be associated with Heinz body anemia in a cat?

A. Diabetic ketoacidosis

B. Acetaminophen toxicosis

C. Onion toxicosis

D. Garlic toxicosis

E. Ethylene glycol toxicosis

A

Ethylene glycol toxicosis

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18
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with an inherited neutrophil abnormality?

A. Pelger huet anomaly

B. Dohle body

C. Birman cat neutrophil anomaly

D. Alder-Reilly bodies

E.. Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

Dohle Bodies (toxic change)

Alder- Reilly bodies are (neutrophil granules) in Mucopolysachharidosis, which is inherited

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19
Q

Which of the following will NOT result in a prolonged bleeding time?

  • von Willebrand disease
  • aspirin ingestion
  • Warfarin ingestion
  • DIC
  • Immune mediated thrombocytopenia
A

Warfarin (anticoagulant)

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20
Q

Which of the following tests is likely to be abnormal in a patient with severe immune mediated thrombocytopenia (2,000/µl)?

ACT

Fibrinogen

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

Prothrombin Time

Thrombin Time

A

ACT- Activated Clotting Time

ACT [<10,000 prolonged]

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21
Q

Where is urea synthesized and what is the precursor molecule?

A

Liver, Ammonia

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22
Q

What erythrocyte morphologic abnormalities are

associated with

Acetaminophen Toxicosis

A

Heinz bodies

Ghost cells

Hemoglobinemia

Methemoglobinemia

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23
Q

What erythrocyte morphologic abnormalities are

associated with

IMHA

A

Spherocytes (most important)

MCV normal or increased (regeneration)

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24
Q

What are the Hallmarks of Ehrlichiosis?

A

Lymphadenopathy

Large Granular Lymphocytes

Petechiation

Splenomegaly

Non-Regenerative Anemia

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25
Q

What are the components of the buffy coat?

A

Platelets

Nucleated RBCs

WBCs

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26
Q

What can account for an erroneously high MCHC?

A

Lipemia

Heinz bodies

Intravascular hemolysis

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27
Q

What can cause hypersegmented neutrophils?

A

Cushing’s Disease

Oral Prednisone

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28
Q

For specificity, if (x%) + (y%) = 100%unaffectedanimals

x% of unaffected animals will have a negative result

and the remaining y% of unaffected animals will have

________ result

A

a FALSE POSITIVE result

29
Q

For Sensitivity: (x%) + (y%) = 100%affectedanimals

(x%) will have a positive result

and the remaining (y%) will have a

________ result

A

FALSE NEGATIVE

30
Q

What is seen with EDTA (lavender) tube contamination?

What has been cross-contaminated?

A

Increased K+ concentration

Decreased Ca2+ concentration

K+ is ridiculously high, not compatible with life value

Could happen if you fill the Lavender before the Red

31
Q

What would happen if there was not enough

blood in the EDTA tube?

A

RBC shrinkage

Decreased PCV and MCV

32
Q

What is the difference between serum and plasma

and what tubes should they be collected in?

A

Plasma- has clotting factors (fibrinogen). Collect it in the EDTA lavender tube

Serum- NO clotting factors. Collect it in the RED tube

33
Q

What tube is used to collect serum or blood for a biochem profile?

A

RED (no anticoagulant)

34
Q

What tube is used to collect plasma, and for CBCs?

A

EDTA- lavender

35
Q

What tube is used to test for Lead?

A

Green- Heparin

36
Q

Which tube is used to test coagulation?

A

Blue- citrate

37
Q

Which tube is used to measure glucose and lactate?

A

Gray- fluoride!

38
Q

What happens if blood for a CBC is not used within

1 hour?

A

Increase in MCV- cell swelling

39
Q

What are the steps, in order, for neutrophil maturation?

Which cell is responsible for specific granule formation?

A

Myeloblast–Progranulocyte–Myelocyte–Metamyelocyte–Band N0–Segmented N0

Myelocyte-specific granule formation: N0, E0, B0

40
Q

In the inherited neutrophil abnormality,

Mucopolysaccharidosis,

affected animals have flattened faces and cloudy corneas due to accumulation of

____________

A

Glycosaminoglycans

41
Q

What zone of a blood smear can you see

agglutination and rouleaux formation?

A

BODY

42
Q

Which zone of the blood smear do you

look at for morphology, and to do differential cell

counts?

A

MONOLAYER

43
Q

If you’re looking for RBC parasites or neoplastic large cells, what zone of the blood smear will you look at?

A

Feathered edge

44
Q

T/F:

Calcium is required in every step of primary hemostasis

A

TRUE!

45
Q

During which step of primary hemostasis

is a bridge formed between platelets and collagen

and what does this require?

A

Adhesion (step 1)

Requires vWF (von-Willebrand Factor)

46
Q

Describe what happens during platelet activation,

the 2nd step of primary hemostasis

A

Shape change- in response to thrombin

Flipping of membranes- neg charge on outer membrane

Secretion of Granule products- Factors V, VIII, Thromboxane A2, Calcium

47
Q

The 3rd step of primary hemostasis, Aggregation, is

an _________ process due to the

fibrinogen binding the platelets

A

irreversible!

48
Q

Which test is performed if you want to know

about the status of platelet production

in an animal?

A

Bone Marrow Aspirate

49
Q

What tests are performed to determine

platelet function?

A

Bleeding time tests

Specific platelet function tests

50
Q

If you see GREATER THAN 30-35,000 lymphocytes

on your CBC, what do you know the disease is?

A

Lymphoid Leukemia

51
Q

How is Fibrinogen concentration calculated?

A

Plasma protein – Serum protein= [fibrinogen]

52
Q

What is the platelet count if spontaneous bleeding is occurring?

A

LESS THAN 20,000 platelets

53
Q

What is the normal concentration of plasma proteins?

A

6 - 8 g/dL

54
Q

How do you figure out the hemoglobin concentration?

A

Hb concentration = 1/3 of the PCV

55
Q

Increased neutrophils and monocytes

Decreased lymphocytes and eosinophils

All tell you the same thing, which is

A

YOU HAVE A STRESS RESPONSE

56
Q

An increase in neutrophils and lymphocytes

tells you the same thing, which is

A

EXCITEMENT response

57
Q

Increased neutrophils and monocytes

tell you the same thing, which is

A

INFLAMMATION is present

58
Q

How is Iron-deficiency anemia

and

Anemia of inflammatory disease

differentiated?

A

Look at ferritin or hemosiderin levels

If increased, you have increased storage of iron

and it is

AID!

59
Q

Which type of anemia is considered

“normocytic”?

A

Anemia of Inflammatory Disease

60
Q

1/3 of platelet mass is in the _______

A

SPLEEN!

61
Q

Where is TPO (thrombopoietin)

continually produced? What is its function?

A

Liver, Bone Marrow, Epithelium

To regulate Megakaryocyte production and differentiation

62
Q

What is a megakaryocyte?

A

A large cell that breaks into individual platelets

63
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

A low platelet count in the blood

64
Q

In thrombocytopenia (low platelet count)

TPO (thrombopoietin) should be

________

A

increased

Decreased platelet count= increased TPO in blood

65
Q

In thrombocytopenia (decreased PLT count)

What happens to all aspects of the

megakaryocytes?

A

Increased # of megakaryocytes

Increased size of megakaryocytes

Increased ploidy of megakaryocytes

but

DECREASED maturation time!!!

66
Q

In which of the following species

would you see the highest platelet count

in a normal animal?

Dog, Cat, Horse, Cow

A

COW!

Has very high platelet counts normally

up to 800,000 is normal in a cow

67
Q

What granules are contained in plasma cells?

A

Factors 5, 8

TXA2

Calcium

68
Q

What does Adhesion require in primary hemostasis?

A

vWF

ADP

Calcium

Serotonin

4th Semester: Clin Path (5 decks)

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