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Pharmacology > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

undesired effects associated with a drug

A

side effects

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2
Q

What can result from drug interacting with multiple tissue types, multiple cellular targets, alteration in patients physiology and/or drug pharmacokinetics?

A

side effects

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3
Q

What can occur at standard or inappropriate doses, arise when other drugs are given concurrently, or occur as result of altered drug PK?

A

adverse reactions

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4
Q

drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs of toxicity

A

therapeutic range

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5
Q

What are the 3 major drug factors that keep drugs in their therapeutic range?

A

route of administration, drug dose, dosage interval

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6
Q

What are the most common disease that impact drug PK?

A

liver disease, kidney disease, cardiovascular disease

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7
Q

What does cardiovascular disease do to blood flow to tissues?

A

alters it

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8
Q

More of what is distributed to the brain and heart in cardiovascular disease?

A

blood

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9
Q

Patients are often on what during cardiovascular disease?

A

multiple drugs

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10
Q

Decreased drug elimination happens during what disease?

A

kidney

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11
Q

What increases in kidney disease?

A

plasma drug concentrations and fluid retention

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12
Q

What potential interactions happens in kidney disease?

A

drug interactions

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13
Q

The liver is the primary site of what?

A

drug metabolism

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14
Q

What decreases in drug pharmacokinetics when aging occurs?

A

drug absorption, hepatic metabolism, renal excretion

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15
Q

What has the most significant impact on drug disposition when aging occurs?

A

reduced kidney function

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16
Q

Dose dependent drug reactions affect who?

A

all members of a species

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17
Q

Idiosyncratic drug reactions are what?

A

unpredictable

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18
Q

Idiosyncratic drug reactions affect who?

A

only small portion of treated animals

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19
Q

Idiosyncratic drug reactions may or may not do what?

A

affect multiple species

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20
Q

Idiosyncratic drug reactions are not what?

A

dose dependent

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21
Q

in idiosyncratic drug reactions, risk of reaction increases with what?

A

the dose

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22
Q

How do you prevent idiosyncratic drug reactions?

A

drug withdrawal and drug avoidance

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23
Q

Periodic measurement of amount of drug in the blood

A

therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)

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24
Q

Reliability of TDM is dependent on what?

A

timing and number of blood samples collected

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25
Q

Reliability of TDM is appropriate for what?

A

sample collection and handling

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26
Q

What is the target of immunosuppressive drugs?

A

immune system

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27
Q

What is the goal of immunosuppressive drugs?

A

control disease without significant side effects

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28
Q

Which immune-mediated disease is most commonly used, short acting, intermediate acting, long acting, eliminated from the body very slowly?

A

glucocorticoids

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29
Q

What is used to either kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms?

A

antimicrobials

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30
Q

Which substances kill or inhibit growth of bacteria?

A

antibacterial

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31
Q

What drugs are divided into two groups based on their chemistry?

A

antifungal

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32
Q

What is the duration of anti fungal drugs?

A

weeks to months

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33
Q

What must you do with the patient when they’re on anti fungal drugs?

A

monitored for side effects

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34
Q

What do anti fungal drugs do to the appetite?

A

decreases it

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35
Q

Which disease has nonspecific therapies and targeted therapies and symptomatic supportive care?

A

gastrointestinal disease

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36
Q

Which disease is treated with combination of surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy?

A

neoplastic diseases (cancers)

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37
Q

Which drugs are subdivided into different groups and target tumor cells?

A

chemotherapy

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38
Q

What are the 3 classes of endoparasites?

A

nematodes, cestodes, and trematodes

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39
Q

What are some ectoparasites?

A

insects and ascrines

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40
Q

What do ectoparasiticides risk?

A

toxicity

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41
Q

What does the structures of the urinary system include?

A

paired kidneys, paired ureters, a single urinary bladder, and a single urethra

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42
Q

Within each kidney are millions of individual structures called what?

A

nephrons

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43
Q

What does the urinary system filter from blood?

A

waste

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44
Q

What does the urinary system help control?

A

system pH

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45
Q

What does the urinary system help produce?

A

blood

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46
Q

What does the urinary system help control?

A

blood pressure, blood volume, and system ion concentrations

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47
Q

What are some urinary system disorders?

A

UTI’s, inflammation and irrigation of urinary tract, renal failure, urinary incontinence and uroliths

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48
Q

Bacterial infections of the urinary system may lead to what?

A

inflammation, pollakiuria, dysuria

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49
Q

What is pollakiuria?

A

increased frequency of urination

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50
Q

Urinary system disorders may result in what clinical signs?

A

inappropriate urination, inability to urinate, frequent urination, increased urination, or pain

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51
Q

What are antihypertensive drugs?

A

drugs that decrease hypertension

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52
Q

What do ACE inhibitors do?

A

block the conversion of angiotensin I and angiotensin II

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53
Q

What do calcium channel blockers do?

A

block the influx of calcium ions into the myocardial cells

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54
Q

What do direct-acting arteriole vasodilators do?

A

relax smooth muscles of blood vessels

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55
Q

What are side effects beta-adrenergic antagonists?

A

decreased blood pressure

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56
Q

What do alpha-adrenergic antagonists do?

A

block alpha-1 adrenergic receptors

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57
Q

What are some examples of ACE inhibitors?

A

enalapril, captopril, lisinopril, and benazepril

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58
Q

What are some examples of calcium-channel blockers?

A

amlodipine, verapamil, and diltiazem

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59
Q

What are some examples of direct-acting arteriole vasodilators?

A

hydrazine and minoxidil

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60
Q

What are some examples of beta-adrenergic antagonists?

A

propranolol

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61
Q

What is an example of alpha-adrenergic antagonists?

A

phenoxybenzamine and prazosin

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62
Q

What do diuretics increase?

A

the volume of urine excreted by the kidneys

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63
Q

What do diuretics promote the release of?

A

water from tissues

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64
Q

What do diuretics lower?

A

the fluid volume in tissues

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65
Q

What are diuretics used to decrease?

A

edema and lower blood pressure

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66
Q

What are some types of diuretics?

A

thiazides, loop diuretics, potassium-sparing diuretics, carbon anhydrase inhibitors and osmotics

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67
Q

What do thiazides act directly on?

A

the renal tubules to block sodium reabsorption

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68
Q

What do thiazides promote?

A

chloride ion excretion

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69
Q

What are some side effects of thiazides?

A

hypokalemia and cardiac dysfunction

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70
Q

What do loop diuretics influence?

A

the reabsorption action at the loop of henle

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71
Q

What are the side effects of loop diuretics?

A

electrolyte imbalances, especially hypokalemia

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72
Q

What do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do?

A

block the action of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase

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73
Q

What are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used for?

A

to decrease intraocular pressure with open-angle glaucoma

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74
Q

What do osmotic diuretics do?

A

increase the osmolality of the urine filtrate in the renal tubules

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75
Q

What are osmotic diuretics used for?

A

to prevent kidney failure and to decrease intracranial and intraocular pressure

76
Q

What are some examples of ACE inhibitors?

A

enalaril and benazepril

77
Q

What are some examples of calcium-channel blockers?

A

diltiazem and verapamil

78
Q

What is an example of beta-blockers?

A

propanolol

79
Q

What are some examples of alpha-adrenergic antagonists?

A

phenoxybenzamine and prazosin

80
Q

What are uroliths?

A

abnormal mineral masses in the urinary system

81
Q

What are some types of uroliths?

A

struvite, calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, urate, cystine, and mixed

82
Q

Each type of urolith may be treated differently and may include what?

A

dietary management as well as drug treatment

83
Q

Drug categories used to treat uroliths include what?

A

urinary acidifiers, urinary alkalinizers, and xanthine oxidase inhibitors

84
Q

Urinary acidifiers are used clinically to produce what?

A

acid urine

85
Q

What does acid urine do?

A

dissolves and helps prevent formation of struvite uroliths

86
Q

What are some examples of urinary acidifiers?

A

methionine and ammonium chloride

87
Q

Urinary alkalinizes are used clinically to treat what?

A

calcium oxalate, cystine, and ammonium urate uroliths

88
Q

What is an example of urinary alkalinizers?

A

potassium citrate

89
Q

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors decrease the production of what?

A

acid urine

90
Q

What is urinary incontinence?

A

the loss of voluntary control of micturition

91
Q

Urinary incontinence may be due to what?

A

neurologic disorders or non-neruologic disorders

92
Q

What results from trauma to the spinal cord, tumors of the nervous system, or degeneration of the nervous system tracts?

A

neurologic disorders

93
Q

What kind of disorder includes hormone responsive, stress, urge, ectopic ureter formation, or urinary bladder over-distention?

A

non-neurologic disorders

94
Q

What are some drugs used to treat neurologically caused urinary incontinence?

A

Cholinergic agonists, Anticholinergics, Alpha-adrenergic antagonists, Estrogen, Testosterone, Alpha- and Beta-adrenergic agonists

95
Q

Cholinergic agonists treat animals with damage to the nerves that control what?

A

relaxation of the urinary bladder

96
Q

What do cholinergic agonists promote?

A

voiding of urine from the urinary bladder

97
Q

What is an example of a cholinergic-agonist?

A

bethanechol

98
Q

Anticholinergics treat urinary incontinence by promoting what?

A

urine retention in the urinary bladder

99
Q

What are some examples or anticholinergics?

A

propantheline

100
Q

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists decrease what?

A

the tone of internal urethral sphincters

101
Q

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists are used to treat what?

A

over-distention of the urinary bladder

102
Q

What are some examples of Alpha-adrenergic antagonists?

A

phenoxybenzamine and prazosin

103
Q

Estrogen and Testosterone treat what?

A

hormone-responsive urinary incontinence

104
Q

What is an example of estrogen?

A

diethylsilbestrol

105
Q

What is an example of testosterone?

A

testosterone cypionate and testosterone propionate

106
Q

Alpha and Beta-adrenergic agonists stimulate receptors which increases what?

A

urethral tone

107
Q

What are some examples of Alpha- and Beta-adrenergic agonists?

A

phenylpropanolamine and ephedrine

108
Q

Skeletal muscle relaxants treat what?

A

urge incontinence or urethral obstructions

109
Q

What is an example of skeletal muscle relaxants?

A

dantrolene, aminopropazine, and diazepam

110
Q

What are the functions of the cardiovascular system?

A

delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to various parts of the body

111
Q

What does the cardiovascular system also transport?

A

waste products

112
Q

What are the purposes of the cardiovascular system?

A

distribute metabolites and O2, collect wastes and CO2, thermoregulation, hormone distribution

113
Q

What are the components of the cardiovascular system?

A

heart, arteries, veins and capillaries

114
Q

Blood supplies body tissues with what?

A

oxygen, nutrients, and various chemicals

115
Q

Blood transports what?

A

waste products

116
Q

Blood cells also play an important role in what systems?

A

immune and endocrine

117
Q

The electrical impulses of the heartbeat originate where?

A

the sinoatrial node (SA node)

118
Q

Heart rate is controlled primary by what?

A

autonomic nervous system

119
Q

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system does what?

A

slows heart rate

120
Q

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system does what?

A

increases heart rate

121
Q

What are the 3 major types of blood vessels?

A

arteries, veins, and capillaries

122
Q

What is an artery?

A

a blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart

123
Q

What is a vein?

A

low-pressure collecting system that returns blood to the heart

124
Q

What are capillaries?

A

single-cell thick vessels that connect the arterial and venous systems

125
Q

What is systole?

A

contraction of heart chambers

126
Q

What is diastole?

A

relaxation of heart chambers

127
Q

What is normal heart beat called?

A

normal sinus rhythm

128
Q

Workload of the heart is divided into what?

A

preload and after load

129
Q

What is preload?

A

volume of blood entering the right side of the heart

130
Q

What is after load?

A

force needed to push blood out of the ventricles

131
Q

If the heart is not working properly it can compensate by what 4 mechanisms?

A
  1. increase heart rate
  2. Increase stroke volume
  3. Increase efficiency
  4. Enlarge itself
132
Q

Blood pressure flows how?

A

from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure

133
Q

Blood pressure is determined by what?

A

heart rate, stroke volume, peripheral resistance

134
Q

What is normal blood pressure considered to be?

A

130 to 180 mm or HG systolic and 60 to 95 mm of Hg diastolic

135
Q

Blood pressure usually refers to what?

A

pressure in large arteries or the systemic circulation

136
Q

Blood pressure is usually expressed in terms of what?

A

systolic pressure over diastolic pressure

137
Q

How is blood pressure measured?

A

millimeters of mercury (mmHg)

138
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

the amount of blood that the heart pumps/min

139
Q

How do you calculate cardiac output?

A

heart rate X stroke volume

140
Q

What is congestive heart failure?

A

a syndrome that can occur with any disorder that damages or overworks the heart muscle

141
Q

What are some conditions that lead to congestive heart failure?

A

cardiomyopathy, hypertension, valvular disease

142
Q

What are cardiac arrhythmias?

A

a disruption in the cardiac rate or rhythm

143
Q

What do arrhythmias interfere with?

A

the work of the heart and can disrupt cardiac output

144
Q

What causes arrhythmias?

A

changes in rate, stimulation from an ectopic force, or by alterations in conduction of the muscle

145
Q

Hypertension results in what?

A

prolonged force put on the vessels of the vascular system

146
Q

Hypotension results in what?

A

tissues of the body not receiving sufficient amount of oxygenated blood

147
Q

What are types of cardiovascular drugs?

A
  1. Positive inotropic drugs
  2. Negative inotropic drugs
  3. Positive chronotropic drugs
  4. Negative chronotropic drugs
  5. Positive dromotropic drugs
  6. Negative dromotropic drugs
148
Q

What do positive inotropic drugs do?

A

increase the force of myocardial contraction

149
Q

What do negative inotropic drugs do?

A

decrease the force of myocardial contraction

150
Q

What do positive chronotropic drugs do?

A

increase heart rate

151
Q

How do positive chronotropic drugs increase the heart rate?

A

by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node

152
Q

What do negative chronotropic drugs do?

A

decrease the heart rate

153
Q

How do negative chronoropic drugs decrease the heart rate?

A

by altering the rate of impulse formation at the SA node

154
Q

What do positive dromotropic drugs do?

A

increase the conduction of electrical impulses

155
Q

What do negative dromotropic drugs do?

A

decrease the conduction of electrical impulses

156
Q

What are some positive inotropes?

A
  1. cardiac glycosides
  2. catecholamines
  3. benzimidazoles-pyridazinones
157
Q

What do cardiac glycosides do?

A

increase the strength of cardiac contractions, decrease the heart rate, have anti arrhythmic effect, and decrease signs of dyspnea

158
Q

What are side effects of cardiac glycosides?

A

anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, and cardiac arrhythmias

159
Q

What are some examples of cardiac glycosides?

A

digoxin and digitoxin

160
Q

What do catecholamines do?

A

increase the force and rate of myocardial contraction, constrict peripheral blood vessels and increase blood glucose levels

161
Q

What are some examples of catecholamines?

A

epinephrine, dopamine, dobutamine, and isoproterenol

162
Q

What do benzimidazole-pyridazinones do?

A

increase force of contraction and cause widening of blood vessels

163
Q

What are bezimidazole-pyridazinones used for?

A

treatments of CHF in dogs

164
Q

What are side effects of benzimidazole-pyridazinones?

A

anorexia, lethargy, diarrhea, and dyspnea

165
Q

What is an example of benzimidazole-pyridazinones?

A

pimobendan

166
Q

What are anti arrhythmic drugs used for?

A

to correct variation in the normal beating of the heart

167
Q

What are some types of anti arrhythmic drugs?

A
  1. local anesthetics
  2. membrane stabilizers
  3. beta-adrenergic blockers
  4. action potential prolongation drugs
  5. calcium-channel blockers
168
Q

What are vasodilators?

A

drugs used to dilate arteries and/or veins

169
Q

What do vasodilators alleviate?

A

vessel constriction and improves cardiac output

170
Q

What are some examples of vasodilators?

A
  1. angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
  2. arteriole dilators
  3. ventilators
  4. combined vasodilators
171
Q

What are calcium-channel blockers used to treat?

A

CHF and hypertension

172
Q

What do calcium-channel blockers inhibit?

A

the movement of calcium through the myocardial cell membranes and vascular smooth muscle

173
Q

What are side effects of calcium-channel blockers?

A

hypotension and anorexia

174
Q

What do blood enhancing drugs affect?

A

RBC’s and the production or quality of RBC’s

175
Q

What are examples of blood enhancing drugs?

A

iron and erythropoietin

176
Q

What are the most common diseases that impact Pharmacokinetics?

A

liver, kidney, and cardiovascular disease

177
Q

What does cardiovascular disease alter?

A

the distribution of blood flow to tissues

178
Q

More blood is transferred to the brain and heart in what disease?

A

cardiovascular disease

179
Q

What decreases in kidney disease?

A

drug elimination

180
Q

What increases in kidney disease?

A

plasma drug concentration

181
Q

The liver is the primary site for what?

A

drug metabolism

182
Q

What are the structures of the GI tract?

A

oral cavity, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

183
Q

Structures of the GI tract vary from what?

A

mono gastric animals with simple stomachs to ruminant animals with multi chambered forestomachs

184
Q

What is mastication?

A

chewing

185
Q

What is deglutition?

A

swallowing

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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