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Pharmacology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 layers of the skin?

A

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous

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2
Q

What is the most superficial layer that contains cells, but not blood vessels?

A

epidermis

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3
Q

What is the middle layer of skin that is composed of blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, and the accessory organs of skin such as glands and hair follicles?

A

dermis

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4
Q

What is the deepest layer of the skin that is composed of connective tissue?

A

subcutaneous

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5
Q

What are topical skin treatments?

A

agents applied to a surface; they affect the area to which they are applied

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6
Q

What do systemic skin treatments consist of?

A

drugs given systemically that affect many areas of the body

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7
Q

What do topical antipruritics do?

A

provide moderate relief of itching

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8
Q

What are some topical nonsteroidal antipruritics?

A

Local anesthetics such as lidocaine, tetracaine, benzocaine, and pramoxine

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9
Q

What has soothing and anti-inflammatory effects for the skin?

A

oatmeal

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10
Q

What are antihistamines?

A

products containing diphenhydramine calm pain and itching due to allergic reactions and sensitive skin

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11
Q

What are some topical corticosteroids?

A

hydrocortisone, fluocinolone, triamcinolone, and betamethazone

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12
Q

What is an example of an antiseptic?

A

chlorhexidine

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13
Q

What do systemic antipruritics treat?

A

canine atopy, food allergy dermatitis, flea allergy, contact dermatitis

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14
Q

What are some examples of systemic antipruritics?

A

cyclosporine and oclacitinib

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15
Q

What is the trade name for cyclosporine?

A

atopica

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16
Q

What is the trade name for oclacitinib?

A

apoquel

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17
Q

What is seborrhea characterized by?

A

abnormal flaking or scaling of the epidermis and may be accompanied by increased oil production or not

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18
Q

What is seborrhea accompanied by increased oil production called?

A

seborrhea oleasa

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19
Q

What is seborrhea called when it is not accompanied by oil?

A

seborrhea sicca

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20
Q

What are keratolytics?

A

an important group of antiseborrheics

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21
Q

What do keratolytics do?

A

remove excess keratin and promote loosening of the outer layers of the epidermis

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22
Q

What do keratolytics break down?

A

the protein structure of the keratin layer, permitting easier removal of this material

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23
Q

What are some examples of topical antiseborrheics?

A

sulfur, salicylic acid, coal tar, benzoyl peroxide, and selenium sulfide

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24
Q

What are some other agents used to treat skin disorders?

A

astringents, antiseptics, soaks and dressings, caustics, and fatty acid supplements

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25
Q

What are astringents?

A

agents that constrict tissues, decrease secretions

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26
Q

What are antiseptics?

A

substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microbes on living tissue

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27
Q

What are soaks and dressings?

A

substances applied to areas to draw out fluid or relieve itching

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28
Q

What are caustics?

A

substances that destroy tissue

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29
Q

What do fatty acid supplements do?

A

improve condition of skin and hair and reduce pruritus

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30
Q

What is erythropoietin?

A

a protein made by the kidneys that stimulates the differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

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31
Q

What is erythropoietin used for?

A

to treat anemia in animals with chronic renal failure

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32
Q

What is sometimes seen with erythropoietin products?

A

allergic reactions

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33
Q

What should you do with erythropoietin products?

A

refrigerate, do not freeze or shake

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34
Q

What is an example of an erythropoietin product?

A

epogen

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35
Q

What is anemia?

A

condition in which the blood doesn’t have enough healthy red blood cells

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36
Q

What is the cause of anemia?

A

body doesn’t make enough rbc’s, loss of blood, body destroys rbc’s

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37
Q

What is a treatment for anemia?

A

iron supplements, blood transfusions

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38
Q

What do anticoagulants do?

A

inhibit clot formation by inactivating one or more clotting factors

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39
Q

What are anticoagulants used for?

A

to inhibit clotting in catheters, to prevent blood samples from clotting, to preserve blood transfusions, and to treat emboli

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40
Q

What are some examples of anticoagulants?

A

heparin, EDTA, coumarin derivatives, aspirin, and blood transfusion anticoagulants

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41
Q

What do anticoagulants not do?

A

break down existing clots

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42
Q

What anticoagulant is not affective orally?

A

heparin

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43
Q

What is an example of a thrombolytic drug?

A

streptokinase

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44
Q

What do hemostatic drugs do?

A

help promote the clotting of blood

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45
Q

How can you administer hemostatic drugs?

A

parenterally or topically

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46
Q

What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer parenterally?

A

vitamin K1 and protamine sulfate

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47
Q

What are some examples of hemostatic drugs you administer topically?

A

silver nitrate, hemostat powder, gel foam gelatin sponges, thrombogen topical thrombin solution

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48
Q

How do Immunosuppressive drugs work?

A

by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers

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49
Q

What does Cyclosporine do?

A

inhibits the proliferation of T-lymphocytes

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50
Q

What is Cyclosporine used for?

A

managing KCS in dogs and immune-mediated skin disorders

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51
Q

What does Azathioprine do?

A

affects cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibits T- and B-lymphocytes

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52
Q

What is Azathioprine used for?

A

mainly in dogs for immune-mediated disease

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53
Q

What does Cyclophosphamide do?

A

interferes with DNA and RNA replication disrupting nucleic acid function

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54
Q

What is Cyclophosphamide used for?

A

immune-mediated diseases

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55
Q

What are some reasons you would use an immunosuppressive?

A
  1. Cancer
  2. Atopic dermatitis
  3. Pemphigus foliaceus
  4. Rhematoid arthritis
  5. Excessive allergic response
  6. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  7. Myasthenia gravis
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56
Q

What is Azathioprine often combined with?

A

steroids

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57
Q

What animal is more likely to develop severe side affects from Azathioprine?

A

cats

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58
Q

What can you use instead of Azathioprine in cats?

A

chlorambucil

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59
Q

What does Azathioprine cause in cats?

A

bone marrow suppression and infections

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60
Q

What can corticosteroids cause?

A

GI upset and ulcers

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61
Q

What are some serious side effects of cyclophosphamide?

A

bone marrow suppression, gastroenteritis, hemorrhagic cystitis

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62
Q

What are some indications for Cyclosporine?

A

organ transplants, KCS, Atopic dermatitis, other autoimmune diseases

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63
Q

What are some possible adverse effects of Cyclosporine?

A

vomiting and nephrotox

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64
Q

What is the trade name for Oclacitinib?

A

Apoquel

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65
Q

What is Apoquel?

A

JAK inhibitor

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66
Q

What is Apoquel approved for?

A

K9 allergic dermatitis

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67
Q

What is Apoquel an excellent alternative for?

A

long-term steroids

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68
Q

What does nonspecific immunity include?

A

things such as physical barriers, mucus production, inflammation, fever, and phagocytosis

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69
Q

What is nonspecific immunity directed against?

A

all pathogens

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70
Q

What is the initial defense against invading agents?

A

nonspecific immunity

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71
Q

When does specific immunity take over?

A

when the nonspecific mechanisms fail

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72
Q

What is specific immunity targeted for?

A

a specific antigen

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73
Q

What does specific immunity arise from?

A

B- and T- lymphocytes

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74
Q

What happens in cell-mediated immunity?

A

T-lymphocytes directly attack the invading antigen

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75
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity important for?

A

protecting against intracellular bacterial or viral infections, fungal diseases, and protozoal diseases

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76
Q

What happens in antibody-mediated immunity?

A

B-lymphocytes produce antibodies that react to antigen

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77
Q

What is antibody-mediated immunity important for?

A

extracellular phases of systemic viral and bacterial infections and protection against endotoxin and exotoxin-induced disease

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78
Q

When does active immunity arise?

A

when an animal receives an antigen that activates B- and T-lymphocytes

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79
Q

What does active immunity create?

A

memory

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80
Q

When does passive immunity arise?

A

when an animal receives antibodies from another animal

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81
Q

What does passive immunity provide?

A

immediate onset of immunity, but the animal is protected for a shorter time

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82
Q

When is natural immunity acquired?

A

during normal biological experiences

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83
Q

How is artificial immunity acquired?

A

through medical procedures

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84
Q

What is a vaccine?

A

a suspension of weakened, live, or killed microorganisms administered to prevent, improve, or treat an infectious disease

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85
Q

What types of vaccines are there?

A

inactivated, attenuated, live, recombinant, polynucleotides, antiserum, autogenous, polyvalent, and monovalent

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86
Q

What are inactivated(killed) vaccines made from?

A

microbes, microbe parts, or microbe by-products that have been chemically treated or heated to kill the microbe

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87
Q

What do inactivated(killed) contain?

A

adjuvants

88
Q

What are adjuvants?

A

substances that enhance the immune response

89
Q

How do adjuvants enhance the immune response?

A

by increasing the stability of the vaccine in the body

90
Q

What may adjuvants cause?

A

vaccine reactions

91
Q

What are some advantages of inactivated vaccines?

A

safe; stable; unlikely to cause disease

92
Q

What are some disadvantages of inactivated vaccines?

A

need repeated doses; possible reactions

93
Q

What are some examples of inactivated vaccines?

A

FeLV and Rabies

94
Q

What happens in attenuated(modified-live) vaccines?

A

microorganisms go through a process of losing their virulence, but must be able to replicate within the patient to provide immunity

95
Q

What are some advantages of attenuated vaccines?

A

immunity lasts longer; has better efficacy and quicker stimulation of cell-mediated immunity than killed vaccines

96
Q

What are some disadvantages of attenuated vaccines?

A

possible abortion; can produce mild forms of the disease; can shed into the environment; proper handling/ storage is critical

97
Q

What are some examples of attenuated vaccines?

A

FVR/C/P, Bovine resp.

98
Q

What are live vaccines made from?

A

live microorganisms that may be fully virulent

99
Q

What are some advantages of live vaccines?

A

fewer doses needed; last longer; inexpensive; adjuvants not needed

100
Q

What are some disadvantages of live vaccines?

A

residual virulence that requires carefully handling

101
Q

What are some examples of live vaccines?

A

Brucella, Orf

102
Q

What are recombinant vaccines?

A

a gene or part of a microorganism is removed from one organism and inserted into another microorganism

103
Q

What are some advantages of recombinant vaccines?

A

fewer side effects; effective immunity; varied routes or administration

104
Q

What are some disadvantages of recombinant vaccines?

A

increased cost

105
Q

What are some examples of recombinant vaccines?

A

Lyme, Newcastle/ fowl pox

106
Q

What are polynucleotides?

A

DNA vaccines injects DNA that encodes for foreign antigens

107
Q

What are some advantages of polynucleotides?

A

that it is possible to select only the genes for the antigen of interest

108
Q

What are antiserum vaccines?

A

antibody-rich serum obtained from a hyper sensitized or actually infected animal

109
Q

What are some advantages of antiserum vaccines?

A

provides quick protection against a microorganism

110
Q

What are some disadvantages of antiserum vaccines?

A

shorter duration of effectiveness; may contain adjuvants

111
Q

What are autogenous vaccines?

A

vaccine produced for a specific disease in a specific area from a sick animal

112
Q

What are some advantages of autogenous vaccines?

A

provides protection against the specific organism in a specific area

113
Q

What are some disadvantages of autogenous vaccines?

A

may contain endotoxin and other by-products found in the culture

114
Q

What are polyvalent vaccines?

A

multiple-antigen vaccines

115
Q

What do polyvalent vaccines contain?

A

a mixture of different antigens and are more convenient to administer because fewer injection are needed

116
Q

What increases in polyvalent vaccines as the number of antigens increases?

A

adverse reaction

117
Q

To be approved, polyvalent vaccines must show what?

A

that each part of the polyvalent vaccine induces the same level of immunity as does the single-antigen vaccine

118
Q

What are monovalent vaccines?

A

vaccines with only a single antigen present

119
Q

What may occur in using several monovalent vaccines?

A

may expose the animal to higher levels of adjuvants

120
Q

What are maternally derived antibodies?

A

antibodies that offspring receive passively from their mothers, either from colostrum or via the placenta

121
Q

How long do maternally derived antibodies give the offspring disease resistance?

A

for a few days

122
Q

How long do maternally derived antibodies provide variable antibody levels?

A

up to nine weeks

123
Q

What must happen in order to enhance the protection of maternally derived antibodies?

A

young animals receive vaccinations and booster vaccinations to ensure appropriate immunity

124
Q

Why are booster vaccines needed?

A

because effective vaccination varies among individuals, because of variable levels or maternal antibodies

125
Q

What do booster vaccines also allow?

A

antibody levels to rise to satisfactory levels

126
Q

What can occur even though vaccines are considered safe?

A

vaccine reactions

127
Q

What must be done with all vaccine reactions?

A

recorded in the medical record

128
Q

What are some typical vaccine reactions?

A

Location reactions at the injection site, fever, lethargy, vomiting, salivation, difficulty breathing, vaccine- associated sarcomas in cats, autoimmune hemolytic anemia in dogs

129
Q

What is an antibody titer?

A

a serum test that reveals the level of antibody to a particular antigen in a particular individual

130
Q

How are antibody titers expressed?

A

as 1:2, 1:4, etc. a ratio that represents the dilution at which the immune response is still adequate

131
Q

What is recommended for all individual animals?

A

core vaccines

132
Q

What is recommended only for individual animals deemed to be at high risk for contact with the organism?

A

noncore vaccines

133
Q

What are some vaccine protocols for dogs?

A

distemper, parvovirus, rabies vaccine, adenovirus, infection tacheobronchitis, leptospirosis, coronavirus, giardia, lyme borreliosis

134
Q

What are some vaccine protocols for horses?

A

tetanus, rhinopneumonitis, influenza, strangles, viral arteritis, potomac horse fever, anthrax, west nile virus, rabies

135
Q

What are some vaccine protocols for cats?

A

panleukopenia, viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, rabies, chlamoydophila, leukemia virus, immunodeficiency virus, infection peritonitis

136
Q

What are some vaccine protocols for cattle?

A

bovine resp. disease complex, clostridial vaccines, brucella, trich, anthrax, moraxella

137
Q

What are some vaccine protocols for pigs?

A

erysipelas, lepto, TGE, porcine rotavirus, C. perfringens, PRRS, Colibacillosis

138
Q

What is fluid overload?

A

a condition in which the administration of fluid occurs at a greater rate than the rate at which the body can use or eliminate the fluid

139
Q

What is fluid overload condition associated with?

A

fluids administered via the parenteral route

140
Q

What are some signs of fluid overload?

A

respiratory changes, fluid deposition in the SQ space, or weight gain

141
Q

What are colloid solutions?

A

fluids with large molecules that enhance the oncotic force of blood

142
Q

What does colloid solutions cause?

A

fluid to move from the interstitial and intracellular spaces into the vascular space

143
Q

What are some natural colloid solutions?

A

plasma, albumin, and whole blood

144
Q

What are some synthetic colloid solutions?

A

dextrans and hydroxyethyl starch

145
Q

What can be supplemented to crystalloid solutions?

A

special additives

146
Q

When administering additives, it is important to remember what?

A

to withdraw and discard an amount of fluid equal to the amount of additive being supplemented

147
Q

What are some types of additives?

A

50% dextrose, potassium, sodium bicarbonate, calcium, vitamins

148
Q

Must consider that animals require fluids for what?

A

rehydration, maintenance, ongoing fluid loss

149
Q

When calculating fluid volumes what must you make sure are the same?

A

units of measure

150
Q

Rate of fluid replacement parallels what?

A

the severity of dehydrations

151
Q

When are fluids given ideally?

A

over a 24- hour period

152
Q

How are fluids stored and given?

A

fluid bags or bottles attached to administration sets

153
Q

How are fluids administered for adult administration?

A

set that delivers 15gtt/ml

154
Q

How are fluids administered for pediatric administration?

A

set that delivers 60gtt/ml

155
Q

What must the drug label contain?

A
  1. drug names
  2. drug concentration and quantity
  3. name and address of manufacturer
  4. manufacturers control or lot number
  5. expiration date of drug
  6. withdrawal time
  7. controlled substance status of drug
156
Q

What is a prescription?

A

an order to a pharmacist, written by a licensed veterinarian, to prepare the prescribed medicine, to affix the directions, and to sell the preparation to the client

157
Q

The label on the prescription should be complete and contain what?

A
  1. the name and address of the dispenser
  2. the clients names
  3. the animals name and species
  4. the drug name, strength and quantity
  5. the date of the order
  6. directions for use
  7. any refill information
158
Q

When you transfer a chemical to another container, you transfer it into a what?

A

secondary container

159
Q

What do anticancer drugs do?

A

stop the cancerous activity of malignant cells

160
Q

What are anticancer drugs also called?

A

antineoplastic agents or chemotherapeutic agents

161
Q

What are some characteristics of malignant cells?

A

rapid cell division and growth, different rates of cellular drug uptake, and increased cellular response to selected anticancer drugs

162
Q

What are some factors that are found in malignant cells that can also be found in normal cells?

A

rapid cell division and growth occur in cells of the GI tract, bone marrow, reproductive organs, and hair follicles

163
Q

What are neoplasms?

A

cancer cells that can spread from the site of origin to other areas of the body that are favorable for cell growth

164
Q

What are the 5 phases of the cell cycle?

A

G1, S, G2, M, and G0

165
Q

What happens in the G1 phase?

A

enzymes needed for DNA synthesis are produced

166
Q

What happens in the S phase?

A

DNA synthesis and replication

167
Q

What happens in the G2 phase?

A

RNA and protein synthesis

168
Q

What happens in the M phase?

A

mitosis phase

169
Q

What happens in the G0 phase?

A

resting phase

170
Q

What is a growth fraction?

A

percentage of cancer cells that are actively dividing

171
Q

When does a high growth fraction occur?

A

when cells are dividing rapidly

172
Q

What happens when tumors age and enlarge?

A

their growth fraction decreases

173
Q

What is combination therapy?

A

when antineoplastic agents are administered in various protocols

174
Q

Calculation of antineoplastic drugs doses are based on what?

A

body surface area in square meters

175
Q

When administering antineoplastic agents IV you should do what to ensure that antineoplastic drug residues do not remain on the equipment?

A

infuse unmedicated IV solution before and after administration of the drug

176
Q

OSHA recommends antineoplastics be prepared under what?

A

a vertical laminar flow hood

177
Q

What does a vertical laminar flow hood provide?

A

both product and operator protection by filtering incoming and exhaust air through a high efficiency air filter

178
Q

What is pulse dosing?

A

a method of delivering some types of chemotherapeutic agents

179
Q

What does pulse dosing produce?

A

escalating levels of drugs early in the dose followed by a dose free interval

180
Q

What are some therapeutic advantages of pulse dosing?

A

reduced dose frequency and greater compliance

181
Q

What is the preferred way to administer some chemotherapeutic agents?

A

pulse dosing

182
Q

What happens in cell-cycle nonspecicf?

A

alkylating agents cross-link DNA to inhibit its replication

183
Q

What are some examples of cell-cycle nonspecific?

A

cyclophosphamide, cisplatin, and chlorambucil

184
Q

What do antitumor antibiotics inhibit?

A

DNA, RNA and protein synthesis

185
Q

What are some examples of anti tumor antibiotics?

A

doxorubicin, dactinomycin, and mitoxantrone

186
Q

Steroid drugs have what effects?

A

anti-inflammatory, suppress bone marrow cells, reduce edema, and suppress tumor growth

187
Q

What are some examples of steroid drugs?

A

corticosteroids, estrogens, progestins, and androgens

188
Q

What do antimetabolites affect?

A

the S phase involving DNA synthesis

189
Q

What are some examples of antimetabolites?

A

methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil, and azathioprine

190
Q

What do antitubulins do?

A

stop cancer cell division

191
Q

What are some examples of antitubulins?

A

vincristine and vinblastine

192
Q

What are biologic response modifiers used for?

A

to enhance the bodys immune system

193
Q

What are interferons?

A

a group of proteins that have anti tumor and antiviral effects

194
Q

What are interferons used for?

A

to treat tumors and viral infections in cats

195
Q

What are the 3 types of interferon?

A

alpha, beta, and gamma

196
Q

What do colony stimulating factors do?

A

stimulate the growth, maturation, and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells

197
Q

What has colony stimulating factors been used to treat?

A

neutropenia in dogs and cats

198
Q

What is an example of a colony stimulating factor?

A

filgrastim

199
Q

What are interleukins?

A

a group of chemicals that play various roles in the immune system

200
Q

What is acemannan?

A

a potents stimulator of macrophage activity

201
Q

What is acemannan used to treat?

A

fibrosarcomas and mast cells in dogs and cats

202
Q

What do monoclonal antibodies do?

A

have cytotoxic effects on tumor cells

203
Q

How do immunosuppressive drugs work?

A

by interfering with one of the stages of the cell cycle or by affecting cell messengers

204
Q

What does cyclosporine inhibit?

A

the proliferation of T-lymphocytes

205
Q

What does azathioprine affect?

A

cells in the S phase of the cell cycle and also inhibit T- and B-lymphocytes

206
Q

What does cyclophosphamide interfere with?

A

DNA and RNA replication

207
Q

What is L-asparaginase?

A

an example of an enzyme used in the treatment of cancer

208
Q

How does L-asparaginase work?

A

by hydrolyzing asparagine into aspartic acid and ammonia

209
Q

What do cancer cells need for survival?

A

an exogenous source of asparagine

210
Q

What are side effects of L-asparaginase?

A

pain at injection site, hypotension, and diarrhea

211
Q

What do enzyme inhibitors offer?

A

another approach to treating tumor cells by controlling their growth

212
Q

What is toceranib?

A

a tyrosine kinase inhibitor used to treat mast cell tumors in dogs

213
Q

What do interleukins promote?

A

the replication of antigen-specific T cells

214
Q

What are biologic response modifiers used in conjunction with?

A

antineoplastic protocols

215
Q

What are monoclonal antibodies used in conjunction with?

A

other antineoplastic agents

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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