exam3 Flashcards
1
Q
Who is the manufacturer for Advantage II for cats?
A
Bayer
2
Q
How frequent do you apply Advantage II for cats?
A
monthly topical
3
Q
Does Advantage II for cats kill adult fleas?
A
yes
4
Q
Does Advantage II for cats kill flea eggs?
A
yes
5
Q
Does Advantage II for cats kill ticks?
A
no
6
Q
Does Advantage II for cats repel mosquitos?
A
no
7
Q
Does Advantage II for cats kill lice?
A
no
8
Q
Does Advantage II for cats repel flies?
A
no
9
Q
What the earliest age for use of Advantage II for cats?
A
8 weeks
10
Q
Whats the active ingredient in Advantage II for cats?
A
Imidacloprid + Pyriproxyfen
11
Q
Who is the manufacturer for Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?
A
Farnam
12
Q
How frequent do you apply Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?
A
monthly topical
13
Q
Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill adult fleas?
A
yes
14
Q
Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill flea eggs?
A
yes
15
Q
Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill ticks?
A
yes
16
Q
Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats repel mosquitos?
A
yes
17
Q
Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill lice?
A
no
18
Q
Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats repel flies?
A
no
19
Q
What is the earliest age for use of Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?
A
12 weeks
20
Q
What are the active ingredients in Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?
A
Etofenprox + (s)Methoprene
21
Q
Who is the manufacturer for FiproGuard for cats?
A
Sentry/Sergeant’s
22
Q
How frequent do you apply FiproGuard for cats?
A
monthly topical
23
Q
Does FiproGuard for cats kill adult fleas?
A
yes
24
Q
Does FiproGuard for cats kill flea eggs?
A
no
25
Does FiproGuard for cats kill ticks?
yes
26
Does FiproGuard for cats repel mosquitos?
no
27
Does FiproGuard for cats kill lice?
yes
28
Does FiproGuard for cats repel flies?
no
29
What the earliest age for use of FiproGuard for cats?
8 weeks
30
What are the active ingredients in FiproGuard for cats?
Fipronil
31
Who is the manufacturer for Frontline plus for cats?
merial
32
How frequent do you apply Frontline plus for cats?
monthly topical
33
Does Frontline plus for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
34
Does Frontline plus for cats kill flea eggs?
yes
35
Does Frontline plus for cats kill ticks?
yes
36
Does Frontline plus for cats repel mosquitos?
no
37
Does Frontline plus for cats kill lice?
yes
38
Does Frontline plus for cats repel flies?
no
39
What is the earliest age for use of Frontline plus for cats?
8 weeks
40
What are the active ingredients in Frontline plus for cats?
Fipronil + (s)Methoprene
41
Who is the manufacturer for Frontline Top Spot for cats?
Merial
42
How frequent do you apply Frontline Top Spot for cats?
monthly topical
43
Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
44
Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill flea eggs?
no
45
Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill ticks?
yes
46
Does Frontline Top Spot for cats repel mosquitos?
no
47
Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill lice?
yes
48
Does Frontline Top Spot for cats repel flies?
no
49
What the earliest age for use of Frontline Top Spot for cats?
8 weeks
50
What are the active ingredients in Frontline Top Spot for cats?
Finopril
51
Who is the manufacturer for Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?
Sentry/Sergeant's
52
How frequent do you apply Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?
monthly topical
53
Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
54
Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill flea eggs?
no
55
Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill ticks?
yes
56
Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats repel mosquitos?
yes
57
Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill lice?
no
58
Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats repel flies?
no
59
Whats the earliest age of use of Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?
12 weeks
60
What are the active ingredients in Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?
Natural Botanical Oils
61
Who is the manufacturer for PetArmor for cats?
Sentry/Sergeant's
62
How frequent do you apply PetArmor for cats?
monthly topical
63
Does PetArmor for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
64
Does PetArmor for cats kill flea eggs?
no
65
Does PetArmor for cats kill ticks?
yes
66
Does PetArmor for cats repel mosquitos?
no
67
Does PetArmor for cats kill lice?
yes
68
Does PetArmor for cats repel flies?
no
69
Whats the earliest age of use for PetArmor for cats?
8 weeks
70
What are the active ingredients in PetArmor for cats?
Fipronil
71
Who is the manufacturer for Pronyl OTC Max for cats?
Sergeant's
72
How frequent do you apply Pronyl OTC Max for cats?
monthly topical
73
Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
74
Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill flea eggs?
no
75
Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill ticks?
yes
76
Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats repel mosquitos?
no
77
Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill lice?
yes
78
Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats repel flies?
no
79
Whats the earliest age of use for Pronyl OTC Max for cats?
12 weeks
80
What are the active ingredients in Pronyl OTC Max for cats?
Firpronil + Etofenprox
81
Who is the manufacturer for SpectraSure Plus for cats?
Durvet
82
How frequent do you apply SpectraSure Plus for cats?
monthly topical
83
Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
84
Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill flea eggs?
no
85
Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill ticks?
yes
86
Does SpectraSure Plus for cats repel mosquitos?
no
87
Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill lice?
yes
88
Does SpectraSure Plus for cats repel flies?
no
89
What is the earliest age of use for SpectraSure Plus for cats?
12 weeks
90
What are the active ingredients in SpectraSure Plus for cats?
Fipronil + Etofenprox
91
Who is the manufacturer for Vectra for cats?
Ceva
92
How frequent do you apply Vectra for cats?
monthly topical
93
Does Vectra for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
94
Does Vectra for cats kill flea eggs?
no
95
Does Vectra for cats kill ticks?
no
96
Does Vectra for cats repel mosquitos?
no
97
Does Vectra for cats kill lice?
no
98
Does Vectra for cats repel flies?
no
99
Whats the earliest age of use for Vectra for cats?
8 weeks
100
Whats the active ingredient in Vectra for cats?
Dinotefuran + Pyriproxyfen
101
Who is the manufacturer for EasySpot for cats?
Novartis
102
How frequent do you apply EasySpot for cats?
monthly topical
103
Does EasySpot for cats kill adult fleas?
yes
104
Does EasySpot for cats kill flea eggs?
no
105
Does EasySpot for cats kill ticks?
yes
106
Does EasySpot for cats repel mosquitos?
no
107
Does EasySpot for cats kill lice?
yes
108
Does EasySpot for cats repel flies?
no
109
Whats the earliest age for use of EasySpot for cats?
8 weeks
110
What are the active ingredients in EasySpot for cats?
Fipronil
111
Who is the manufacturer for Advantage Multi for dogs?
Bayer
112
How do you apply Advantage Multi for dogs?
topically
113
What does Advantage Multi for dogs prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, whipworms, fleas, mange
114
What is the earliest age and weight for use of Advantage Multi for dogs?
7 weeks and 3 lbs
115
What are the active ingredients in Advantage Multi for dogs?
Imidacloprid + Moxidectin
116
Who is the manufacturer for Heartgard?
Merial
117
How do you administer Heartgard?
chewable
118
What does Heartgard prevent?
heart worms and hookworms
119
Whats the earliest age for use of Heartgard?
6 weeks
120
Whats the active ingredient in Heartgard?
Ivermectin
121
Who is the manufacturer for Heartgard plus?
Marial
122
How do you administer Heartgard plus?
chewable
123
What does Heartgard plus prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, and roundworms
124
Whats the earliest age for use of Heartgard plus?
6 weeks
125
What are the active ingredients for Heartgard plus?
Ivermectin + Pyrantel
126
Who is the manufacturer for Interceptor?
Elanco
127
What does Interceptor prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms
128
Whats the earliest age and weight for Interceptor?
4 weeks and 2lbs
129
What are the active ingredients in Interceptor?
Milbemycin Oxime
130
What does Interceptor plus prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, tape worms
131
Whats the earliest age for use of Interceptor plus?
6 weeks
132
What are the active ingredients in Interceptor plus?
Milbemycin Oxime + Praziquantel
133
Who is the manufacturer for Iverhart Max?
Virbac
134
What does Iverhart Max prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, tapeworms
135
Whats the earliest age for use of Iverhart Max?
8 weeks
136
What are the active ingredients in Iverhart Max?
Ivermectin + Pyrantel Pamoate + Praziquantel
137
Who is the manufacturer for Iverhart plus?
Virbac
138
What does Iverhart plus prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms
139
Whats the earliest age for use of Iverhart plus?
6 weeks
140
What are the active ingredients in Iverhart plus?
Ivermectin + Pryrantil
141
Who is the manufacturer for PetTrust Plus?
FidoPharm
142
What does PetTrust Plus prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms
143
Whats the earliest age for use of PetTrust Plus?
6 weeks
144
What are the active ingredients in PetTrust Plus?
Ivermectin + Pryrantil
145
Who is the manufacturer for Sentinel Flavor tabs?
virbac
146
What does Sentinel Flavor tabs prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, fleas
147
Whats the earliest age and weight for use of Sentinel Flavor tabs?
4 weeks and 2 lbs
148
What are the active ingredients in Sentinel Flavor tabs?
Milbemycin Oxime + Lufenuron
149
Who is the manufacturer for Sentinel Spectrum?
Virbac
150
What does Sentinel Spectrum prevent heart worms?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, tapeworms, fleas
151
Whats the earliest age for use of Sentinel Spectrum?
6 weeks
152
What are the active ingredients in Sentinel Spectrum?
Milbemycin Oxime + Lufenuron + Praziquantel
153
Who is the manufacturer for Trifexis?
Elanco
154
What does Trifexis prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, fleas
155
What is the earliest age and weight for use of Trifexis?
8 weeks and 5 lbs
156
What does Tri-Heart Plus prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms
157
Whats the earliest age for use of Tri-Heart Plus?
6 weeks
158
What are the active ingredients in Trifexis?
Spinosad + Mibemycin Oxime
159
What are the active ingredients in Tri-Heart Plus?
Ivermectin + Pyrantel
160
Who is the manufacturer for Worm Shield?
Schuyler
161
What does Worm Shield prevent?
heart worms, hookworms, roundworms
162
Whats the earliest age for use of Worm Shield?
6 weeks
163
What are the active ingredients in Worm Shield?
Ivermectin + Pyrantel
164
What are organophosphates effective against?
bots and nematodes
165
Which Anticestodals work by increasing the cestodes cell membrane permeability?
Praziquantel
166
What is a brand name for Praziquantel?
Droncit
167
What cestode species does Praziquantel work on?
all species
168
What anticestodal causes disintegration of the cestode?
Epsiprantel
169
What is a brand name for Epsiprantel?
Cestex
170
What is Epsiprantel effective against?
Taenia and Dipylidium
171
What is Epsiprantel not effective against?
Echinococcus
172
What is Fenbendazole effective against?
some Taenia species
173
What is a brand name for Fenbendazole?
Panacur
174
Which antitrematodal works by inhibiting the trematodes enzyme systems for energy production?
Clorsulon
175
What is Clorsulon effective against?
Fasciola hepatica
176
Which Antitrematodal interferes with the energy metabolism of the worm?
Albendazole
177
What is Albendazole also effective against?
some nematodes
178
What is Praziquantel also effective against?
lung trematodes in dogs and cats
179
What is Coccidiosis?
a protozoal infection that causes intestinal disorders
180
Anticoccidial drugs are what?
coccidiostats
181
What does coccidiostats mean?
do not actually kill the parasite
182
What does Sulfadimethoxine do?
reduces the number of oocysts shed, thus reducing spread of disease
183
Which Anticoccidials work mainly by affecting the protozoan's metabolism?
Nicarbazine, Amprolium, Monesin, Decoquinate, Robenidine
184
What is Giardiasis?
a protozoal disease caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia
185
Which Antiprotozoal drug enters the protozoal cell and interferes with its ability to function and replicate?
Metronidazole
186
What are side effects of Metronidazole?
uncommon, vomiting/diarrhea
187
How is blood protozoan Babesia sp. transmitted?
by ticks
188
Which drug has cholinergic effects on the protozoan?
imidocarb
189
What are side effects of imidocarb?
injection pain, salivation, vomiting
190
What is heart worm disease caused by?
the filarial nematode Dirofilaria immitis
191
What is heart worm preventative used for?
preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity
192
Which daily oral preventative is given during mosquito season and two months after?
Diethylcarbamazine
193
In order to have Diethylcarbamazine the patient must be what?
heart worm negative
194
What are some once-monthly oral preventatives?
Ivermectin and Milbemycin
195
What is a brand name for Ivermectin?
Heartgard
196
What is a brand name for Milbemycin?
Interceptor or Sentinel
197
What are some once-monthly topical preventatives?
Selamectin
198
What is a brand name for Selamectin?
Revolution
199
What does Selamectin treat?
fleas, ear mites, scabies, some nematodes
200
What are side effects of Selamectin?
uncommon, transient localized alopecia
201
What should you avoid doing when you have a patient on Selamectin?
immediately bathing
202
What are some 6-month injectable preventatives?
Moxidectin
203
What is a brand name for Moxidectin?
ProHeart-6
204
What is a brand name for Melarsomine?
Immidicide
205
Where is Melarsomine given?
in the epaxial muscles
206
Melarsomine is less toxic than what?
thiacetarsamide
207
What are side effects of Melarsomine?
injection site pain/swelling, respiratory signs, death
208
What main chemicals are used for Ectoparasite treatment?
Pyrethrins, pyrethroids, Imidacloprid(advantage), Fipronil(Frontline), Selamectin (Revolution)
209
What is Fluralaner?
Oral, 12 week flea and tick control
210
What age should Fluralaner be used?
6 months
211
What is a brand name for Fluralaner?
Bravecto
212
What is Afoxolaner?
Oral flea and tick
213
What age should Afoxolaner be used?
8+ weeks of age
214
What is a brand name for Afoxolaner?
NexGard
215
What is Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen?
Monthly flea and tick control, mosquito repellant
216
What is Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen NOT?
a heart worm preventative
217
What age should Dinotefuran be used?
8+ weeks
218
What is a brand name for Dinotefuran?
Vectra
219
What are Pyrethroids?
groups of quick-kill chemicals in flea products
220
Treatment of Giardia lambda infections should include what?
metronidazole
221
All flea products also control ticks, true or false?
false
222
What are some reversal agents?
Naloxone, Atipamezole, Yohimbine, Tolazoline
223
What is activated charcoal used for?
absorbing toxins
224
What is Calcium EDTA used for?
heavy metals (lead, copper, mercury)
225
What is Dimercaprol used for?
heavy metals (lead, copper, mercury)
226
What can cause heavy metal toxicity?
pennies and batteries
227
What species is very susceptible to copper poisoning?
sheep
228
What is Penicillamine?
heavy metal antidote
229
What is Pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)?
organo phosphate antidote
230
What are the 3 layers of the globe?
sclera, choroid, and retina
231
What does the adnexa consist of?
eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus
232
What 3 things should you consider when using topical ophthalmic drugs?
1. They must be absorbed into the anterior chamber
2. They may be administered at different frequencies depending on whether they are in ointment or solution form
3. They must be relatively easy to administer so that client compliance occurs
233
What topical anesthetics are used to help perform comprehensive eye exams or to remove foreign material from the eye?
proparacaine and tetracaine
234
What is applied to the cornea to assess ant corneal defects?
Fluorescein sodium
235
What do mydriatics do?
dilate the pupil
236
What do cycloplegics do?
paralyze the ciliary muscles and minimize pain
237
What are some examples of mydriatics and cycloplegics?
atropine, homatropine, phenylephrine, tropicamide, and epinephrine
238
What is glaucoma?
a group of diseases that increase intraocular pressure
239
What do miotics do?
constrict the pupil
240
What is used to treat glaucoma?
miotics
241
What is an example of a miotic?
pilocarpine
242
What interferes with the production of carbonic acid, leading to a decrease of aqueous humor production?
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
243
What are some examples of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, and methazolamide
244
What decreases the production of aqueous humor?
beta-adrenergic blockers
245
What are some examples of beta-adrenergic blockers?
timolol and betazolol
246
What are osmotics?
diuretics that decrease vitreous humor volume to rapidly decrease intraocular pressure
247
What are some examples of osmotics?
mannitol and glycerin
248
What can be used topically and can reduce intraocular pressure by increasing outflow of aqueous humor?
prostaglandins
249
What are alpha-adrenergic agonists?
sympathomimetic drugs that reduce aqueous humor secretion and thus decrease intraocular pressure
250
What are some side effects of alpha-adrenergic agonists?
diarrhea and vomiting in dogs and cats
251
What is KCS?
Keratoconjuntivitis Sicca, a disease in which tear production is decreased, resulting in mucopurulent conjunctivitis and corneal scarring/ulceration
252
What are some examples of drugs that are used to treat KCS?
artificial tears, antibiotic-steroid preparations, lacrimogenics, cyclosporine
253
What are the 3 parts of the ear?
outer, middle, and inner
254
What are the parts of the outer ear?
pinna and external auditory canal
255
What are the parts of the middle ear?
tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, eustachian tube, oval window, and round window
256
What are the parts of the outer ear?
vestibule, cochlea, and semicircular canals
257
What is otitis interna?
inner ear infection
258
What are side effects of otitis interna?
head tilt toward infected side, ataxia, nausea, and vomiting
259
What antibiotics are used to treat ear disease?
gentamicin, chloramphenicol, neomycin, enrofloxacin
260
What antiparasitics are used to treat ear disease?
pyrethrins, rotenone, ivermectin, selamectin
261
What antifungals are used to treat ear disease?
thiabendazole and clotrimazole
262
What else can be used to treat ear disease?
corticosteroids, otic drying agents, otic cleansing agents, and otic dewing agents
263
What are some examples of gentamicin?
Gentocin, Otomax, Mometamax
264
What are some examples of neomycin?
Tresaderm and Palalog
265
What are some examples of enrofloxacin?
Baytril Otic
266
What are some examples of pyrethrins?
Mita-Clear and Tresaderm
267
What are some examples of rotenone?
Ear miticide
268
What are some examples of selamectin?
Revolution
269
What are some examples of thiabendazole?
Tresaderm
270
What are some examples of clotrimazole?
Otomax and Mometamax
