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Pharmacology > exam3 > Flashcards

exam3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Advantage II for cats?

A

Bayer

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2
Q

How frequent do you apply Advantage II for cats?

A

monthly topical

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3
Q

Does Advantage II for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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4
Q

Does Advantage II for cats kill flea eggs?

A

yes

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5
Q

Does Advantage II for cats kill ticks?

A

no

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6
Q

Does Advantage II for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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7
Q

Does Advantage II for cats kill lice?

A

no

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8
Q

Does Advantage II for cats repel flies?

A

no

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9
Q

What the earliest age for use of Advantage II for cats?

A

8 weeks

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10
Q

Whats the active ingredient in Advantage II for cats?

A

Imidacloprid + Pyriproxyfen

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11
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

A

Farnam

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12
Q

How frequent do you apply Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

A

monthly topical

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13
Q

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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14
Q

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill flea eggs?

A

yes

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15
Q

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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16
Q

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats repel mosquitos?

A

yes

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17
Q

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats kill lice?

A

no

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18
Q

Does Bio Spot Spot On for Cats repel flies?

A

no

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19
Q

What is the earliest age for use of Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

A

12 weeks

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20
Q

What are the active ingredients in Bio Spot Spot On for Cats?

A

Etofenprox + (s)Methoprene

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21
Q

Who is the manufacturer for FiproGuard for cats?

A

Sentry/Sergeant’s

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22
Q

How frequent do you apply FiproGuard for cats?

A

monthly topical

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23
Q

Does FiproGuard for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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24
Q

Does FiproGuard for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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25
Q

Does FiproGuard for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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26
Q

Does FiproGuard for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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27
Q

Does FiproGuard for cats kill lice?

A

yes

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28
Q

Does FiproGuard for cats repel flies?

A

no

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29
Q

What the earliest age for use of FiproGuard for cats?

A

8 weeks

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30
Q

What are the active ingredients in FiproGuard for cats?

A

Fipronil

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31
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Frontline plus for cats?

A

merial

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32
Q

How frequent do you apply Frontline plus for cats?

A

monthly topical

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33
Q

Does Frontline plus for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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34
Q

Does Frontline plus for cats kill flea eggs?

A

yes

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35
Q

Does Frontline plus for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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36
Q

Does Frontline plus for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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37
Q

Does Frontline plus for cats kill lice?

A

yes

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38
Q

Does Frontline plus for cats repel flies?

A

no

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39
Q

What is the earliest age for use of Frontline plus for cats?

A

8 weeks

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40
Q

What are the active ingredients in Frontline plus for cats?

A

Fipronil + (s)Methoprene

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41
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Frontline Top Spot for cats?

A

Merial

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42
Q

How frequent do you apply Frontline Top Spot for cats?

A

monthly topical

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43
Q

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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44
Q

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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45
Q

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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46
Q

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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47
Q

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats kill lice?

A

yes

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48
Q

Does Frontline Top Spot for cats repel flies?

A

no

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49
Q

What the earliest age for use of Frontline Top Spot for cats?

A

8 weeks

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50
Q

What are the active ingredients in Frontline Top Spot for cats?

A

Finopril

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51
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

A

Sentry/Sergeant’s

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52
Q

How frequent do you apply Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

A

monthly topical

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53
Q

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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54
Q

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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55
Q

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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56
Q

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats repel mosquitos?

A

yes

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57
Q

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats kill lice?

A

no

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58
Q

Does Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats repel flies?

A

no

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59
Q

Whats the earliest age of use of Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

A

12 weeks

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60
Q

What are the active ingredients in Natural Defense Squeeze-On for cats?

A

Natural Botanical Oils

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61
Q

Who is the manufacturer for PetArmor for cats?

A

Sentry/Sergeant’s

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62
Q

How frequent do you apply PetArmor for cats?

A

monthly topical

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63
Q

Does PetArmor for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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64
Q

Does PetArmor for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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65
Q

Does PetArmor for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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66
Q

Does PetArmor for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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67
Q

Does PetArmor for cats kill lice?

A

yes

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68
Q

Does PetArmor for cats repel flies?

A

no

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69
Q

Whats the earliest age of use for PetArmor for cats?

A

8 weeks

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70
Q

What are the active ingredients in PetArmor for cats?

A

Fipronil

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71
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

A

Sergeant’s

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72
Q

How frequent do you apply Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

A

monthly topical

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73
Q

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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74
Q

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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75
Q

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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76
Q

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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77
Q

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats kill lice?

A

yes

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78
Q

Does Pronyl OTC Max for cats repel flies?

A

no

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79
Q

Whats the earliest age of use for Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

A

12 weeks

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80
Q

What are the active ingredients in Pronyl OTC Max for cats?

A

Firpronil + Etofenprox

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81
Q

Who is the manufacturer for SpectraSure Plus for cats?

A

Durvet

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82
Q

How frequent do you apply SpectraSure Plus for cats?

A

monthly topical

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83
Q

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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84
Q

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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85
Q

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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86
Q

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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87
Q

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats kill lice?

A

yes

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88
Q

Does SpectraSure Plus for cats repel flies?

A

no

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89
Q

What is the earliest age of use for SpectraSure Plus for cats?

A

12 weeks

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90
Q

What are the active ingredients in SpectraSure Plus for cats?

A

Fipronil + Etofenprox

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91
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Vectra for cats?

A

Ceva

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92
Q

How frequent do you apply Vectra for cats?

A

monthly topical

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93
Q

Does Vectra for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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94
Q

Does Vectra for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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95
Q

Does Vectra for cats kill ticks?

A

no

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96
Q

Does Vectra for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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97
Q

Does Vectra for cats kill lice?

A

no

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98
Q

Does Vectra for cats repel flies?

A

no

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99
Q

Whats the earliest age of use for Vectra for cats?

A

8 weeks

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100
Q

Whats the active ingredient in Vectra for cats?

A

Dinotefuran + Pyriproxyfen

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101
Q

Who is the manufacturer for EasySpot for cats?

A

Novartis

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102
Q

How frequent do you apply EasySpot for cats?

A

monthly topical

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103
Q

Does EasySpot for cats kill adult fleas?

A

yes

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104
Q

Does EasySpot for cats kill flea eggs?

A

no

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105
Q

Does EasySpot for cats kill ticks?

A

yes

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106
Q

Does EasySpot for cats repel mosquitos?

A

no

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107
Q

Does EasySpot for cats kill lice?

A

yes

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108
Q

Does EasySpot for cats repel flies?

A

no

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109
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of EasySpot for cats?

110
Q

What are the active ingredients in EasySpot for cats?

111
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Advantage Multi for dogs?

112
Q

How do you apply Advantage Multi for dogs?

113
Q

What does Advantage Multi for dogs prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, whipworms, fleas, mange

114
Q

What is the earliest age and weight for use of Advantage Multi for dogs?

A

7 weeks and 3 lbs

115
Q

What are the active ingredients in Advantage Multi for dogs?

A

Imidacloprid + Moxidectin

116
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Heartgard?

117
Q

How do you administer Heartgard?

118
Q

What does Heartgard prevent?

A

heart worms and hookworms

119
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Heartgard?

120
Q

Whats the active ingredient in Heartgard?

A

Ivermectin

121
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Heartgard plus?

122
Q

How do you administer Heartgard plus?

123
Q

What does Heartgard plus prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, and roundworms

124
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Heartgard plus?

125
Q

What are the active ingredients for Heartgard plus?

A

Ivermectin + Pyrantel

126
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Interceptor?

127
Q

What does Interceptor prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms

128
Q

Whats the earliest age and weight for Interceptor?

A

4 weeks and 2lbs

129
Q

What are the active ingredients in Interceptor?

A

Milbemycin Oxime

130
Q

What does Interceptor plus prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, tape worms

131
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Interceptor plus?

132
Q

What are the active ingredients in Interceptor plus?

A

Milbemycin Oxime + Praziquantel

133
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Iverhart Max?

134
Q

What does Iverhart Max prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, tapeworms

135
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Iverhart Max?

136
Q

What are the active ingredients in Iverhart Max?

A

Ivermectin + Pyrantel Pamoate + Praziquantel

137
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Iverhart plus?

138
Q

What does Iverhart plus prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

139
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Iverhart plus?

140
Q

What are the active ingredients in Iverhart plus?

A

Ivermectin + Pryrantil

141
Q

Who is the manufacturer for PetTrust Plus?

142
Q

What does PetTrust Plus prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

143
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of PetTrust Plus?

144
Q

What are the active ingredients in PetTrust Plus?

A

Ivermectin + Pryrantil

145
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Sentinel Flavor tabs?

146
Q

What does Sentinel Flavor tabs prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, fleas

147
Q

Whats the earliest age and weight for use of Sentinel Flavor tabs?

A

4 weeks and 2 lbs

148
Q

What are the active ingredients in Sentinel Flavor tabs?

A

Milbemycin Oxime + Lufenuron

149
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Sentinel Spectrum?

150
Q

What does Sentinel Spectrum prevent heart worms?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, tapeworms, fleas

151
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Sentinel Spectrum?

152
Q

What are the active ingredients in Sentinel Spectrum?

A

Milbemycin Oxime + Lufenuron + Praziquantel

153
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Trifexis?

154
Q

What does Trifexis prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms, whipworms, fleas

155
Q

What is the earliest age and weight for use of Trifexis?

A

8 weeks and 5 lbs

156
Q

What does Tri-Heart Plus prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

157
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Tri-Heart Plus?

158
Q

What are the active ingredients in Trifexis?

A

Spinosad + Mibemycin Oxime

159
Q

What are the active ingredients in Tri-Heart Plus?

A

Ivermectin + Pyrantel

160
Q

Who is the manufacturer for Worm Shield?

161
Q

What does Worm Shield prevent?

A

heart worms, hookworms, roundworms

162
Q

Whats the earliest age for use of Worm Shield?

163
Q

What are the active ingredients in Worm Shield?

A

Ivermectin + Pyrantel

164
Q

What are organophosphates effective against?

A

bots and nematodes

165
Q

Which Anticestodals work by increasing the cestodes cell membrane permeability?

A

Praziquantel

166
Q

What is a brand name for Praziquantel?

167
Q

What cestode species does Praziquantel work on?

A

all species

168
Q

What anticestodal causes disintegration of the cestode?

A

Epsiprantel

169
Q

What is a brand name for Epsiprantel?

170
Q

What is Epsiprantel effective against?

A

Taenia and Dipylidium

171
Q

What is Epsiprantel not effective against?

A

Echinococcus

172
Q

What is Fenbendazole effective against?

A

some Taenia species

173
Q

What is a brand name for Fenbendazole?

174
Q

Which antitrematodal works by inhibiting the trematodes enzyme systems for energy production?

175
Q

What is Clorsulon effective against?

A

Fasciola hepatica

176
Q

Which Antitrematodal interferes with the energy metabolism of the worm?

A

Albendazole

177
Q

What is Albendazole also effective against?

A

some nematodes

178
Q

What is Praziquantel also effective against?

A

lung trematodes in dogs and cats

179
Q

What is Coccidiosis?

A

a protozoal infection that causes intestinal disorders

180
Q

Anticoccidial drugs are what?

A

coccidiostats

181
Q

What does coccidiostats mean?

A

do not actually kill the parasite

182
Q

What does Sulfadimethoxine do?

A

reduces the number of oocysts shed, thus reducing spread of disease

183
Q

Which Anticoccidials work mainly by affecting the protozoan’s metabolism?

A

Nicarbazine, Amprolium, Monesin, Decoquinate, Robenidine

184
Q

What is Giardiasis?

A

a protozoal disease caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia

185
Q

Which Antiprotozoal drug enters the protozoal cell and interferes with its ability to function and replicate?

A

Metronidazole

186
Q

What are side effects of Metronidazole?

A

uncommon, vomiting/diarrhea

187
Q

How is blood protozoan Babesia sp. transmitted?

188
Q

Which drug has cholinergic effects on the protozoan?

189
Q

What are side effects of imidocarb?

A

injection pain, salivation, vomiting

190
Q

What is heart worm disease caused by?

A

the filarial nematode Dirofilaria immitis

191
Q

What is heart worm preventative used for?

A

preventing third-stage larvae from reaching maturity

192
Q

Which daily oral preventative is given during mosquito season and two months after?

A

Diethylcarbamazine

193
Q

In order to have Diethylcarbamazine the patient must be what?

A

heart worm negative

194
Q

What are some once-monthly oral preventatives?

A

Ivermectin and Milbemycin

195
Q

What is a brand name for Ivermectin?

196
Q

What is a brand name for Milbemycin?

A

Interceptor or Sentinel

197
Q

What are some once-monthly topical preventatives?

A

Selamectin

198
Q

What is a brand name for Selamectin?

A

Revolution

199
Q

What does Selamectin treat?

A

fleas, ear mites, scabies, some nematodes

200
Q

What are side effects of Selamectin?

A

uncommon, transient localized alopecia

201
Q

What should you avoid doing when you have a patient on Selamectin?

A

immediately bathing

202
Q

What are some 6-month injectable preventatives?

A

Moxidectin

203
Q

What is a brand name for Moxidectin?

A

ProHeart-6

204
Q

What is a brand name for Melarsomine?

A

Immidicide

205
Q

Where is Melarsomine given?

A

in the epaxial muscles

206
Q

Melarsomine is less toxic than what?

A

thiacetarsamide

207
Q

What are side effects of Melarsomine?

A

injection site pain/swelling, respiratory signs, death

208
Q

What main chemicals are used for Ectoparasite treatment?

A

Pyrethrins, pyrethroids, Imidacloprid(advantage), Fipronil(Frontline), Selamectin (Revolution)

209
Q

What is Fluralaner?

A

Oral, 12 week flea and tick control

210
Q

What age should Fluralaner be used?

211
Q

What is a brand name for Fluralaner?

212
Q

What is Afoxolaner?

A

Oral flea and tick

213
Q

What age should Afoxolaner be used?

A

8+ weeks of age

214
Q

What is a brand name for Afoxolaner?

215
Q

What is Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen?

A

Monthly flea and tick control, mosquito repellant

216
Q

What is Dinotefuran, pyriproxyfen NOT?

A

a heart worm preventative

217
Q

What age should Dinotefuran be used?

218
Q

What is a brand name for Dinotefuran?

219
Q

What are Pyrethroids?

A

groups of quick-kill chemicals in flea products

220
Q

Treatment of Giardia lambda infections should include what?

A

metronidazole

221
Q

All flea products also control ticks, true or false?

222
Q

What are some reversal agents?

A

Naloxone, Atipamezole, Yohimbine, Tolazoline

223
Q

What is activated charcoal used for?

A

absorbing toxins

224
Q

What is Calcium EDTA used for?

A

heavy metals (lead, copper, mercury)

225
Q

What is Dimercaprol used for?

A

heavy metals (lead, copper, mercury)

226
Q

What can cause heavy metal toxicity?

A

pennies and batteries

227
Q

What species is very susceptible to copper poisoning?

228
Q

What is Penicillamine?

A

heavy metal antidote

229
Q

What is Pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM)?

A

organo phosphate antidote

230
Q

What are the 3 layers of the globe?

A

sclera, choroid, and retina

231
Q

What does the adnexa consist of?

A

eye muscles, eyelids, eyelashes, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus

232
Q

What 3 things should you consider when using topical ophthalmic drugs?

A
  1. They must be absorbed into the anterior chamber
  2. They may be administered at different frequencies depending on whether they are in ointment or solution form
  3. They must be relatively easy to administer so that client compliance occurs
233
Q

What topical anesthetics are used to help perform comprehensive eye exams or to remove foreign material from the eye?

A

proparacaine and tetracaine

234
Q

What is applied to the cornea to assess ant corneal defects?

A

Fluorescein sodium

235
Q

What do mydriatics do?

A

dilate the pupil

236
Q

What do cycloplegics do?

A

paralyze the ciliary muscles and minimize pain

237
Q

What are some examples of mydriatics and cycloplegics?

A

atropine, homatropine, phenylephrine, tropicamide, and epinephrine

238
Q

What is glaucoma?

A

a group of diseases that increase intraocular pressure

239
Q

What do miotics do?

A

constrict the pupil

240
Q

What is used to treat glaucoma?

241
Q

What is an example of a miotic?

A

pilocarpine

242
Q

What interferes with the production of carbonic acid, leading to a decrease of aqueous humor production?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

243
Q

What are some examples of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

acetazolamide, dichlorphenamide, and methazolamide

244
Q

What decreases the production of aqueous humor?

A

beta-adrenergic blockers

245
Q

What are some examples of beta-adrenergic blockers?

A

timolol and betazolol

246
Q

What are osmotics?

A

diuretics that decrease vitreous humor volume to rapidly decrease intraocular pressure

247
Q

What are some examples of osmotics?

A

mannitol and glycerin

248
Q

What can be used topically and can reduce intraocular pressure by increasing outflow of aqueous humor?

A

prostaglandins

249
Q

What are alpha-adrenergic agonists?

A

sympathomimetic drugs that reduce aqueous humor secretion and thus decrease intraocular pressure

250
Q

What are some side effects of alpha-adrenergic agonists?

A

diarrhea and vomiting in dogs and cats

251
Q

What is KCS?

A

Keratoconjuntivitis Sicca, a disease in which tear production is decreased, resulting in mucopurulent conjunctivitis and corneal scarring/ulceration

252
Q

What are some examples of drugs that are used to treat KCS?

A

artificial tears, antibiotic-steroid preparations, lacrimogenics, cyclosporine

253
Q

What are the 3 parts of the ear?

A

outer, middle, and inner

254
Q

What are the parts of the outer ear?

A

pinna and external auditory canal

255
Q

What are the parts of the middle ear?

A

tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, eustachian tube, oval window, and round window

256
Q

What are the parts of the outer ear?

A

vestibule, cochlea, and semicircular canals

257
Q

What is otitis interna?

A

inner ear infection

258
Q

What are side effects of otitis interna?

A

head tilt toward infected side, ataxia, nausea, and vomiting

259
Q

What antibiotics are used to treat ear disease?

A

gentamicin, chloramphenicol, neomycin, enrofloxacin

260
Q

What antiparasitics are used to treat ear disease?

A

pyrethrins, rotenone, ivermectin, selamectin

261
Q

What antifungals are used to treat ear disease?

A

thiabendazole and clotrimazole

262
Q

What else can be used to treat ear disease?

A

corticosteroids, otic drying agents, otic cleansing agents, and otic dewing agents

263
Q

What are some examples of gentamicin?

A

Gentocin, Otomax, Mometamax

264
Q

What are some examples of neomycin?

A

Tresaderm and Palalog

265
Q

What are some examples of enrofloxacin?

A

Baytril Otic

266
Q

What are some examples of pyrethrins?

A

Mita-Clear and Tresaderm

267
Q

What are some examples of rotenone?

A

Ear miticide

268
Q

What are some examples of selamectin?

A

Revolution

269
Q

What are some examples of thiabendazole?

270
Q

What are some examples of clotrimazole?

A

Otomax and Mometamax

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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