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Pharmacology > Exit Exam > Flashcards

Exit Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is Pharmacokinetics?

A

Movement of drugs in the body

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2
Q

What do pharmacokinetics determine?

A

drug doses, dosing regimens, withdrawal times

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3
Q

Where does uptake of a substance occur?

A

from site of administration through circulation to tissues/site of action

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4
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

function of absorption and metabolism

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5
Q

What are some barriers to drug distribution?

A

drugs chemical properties, tissue blood flow, protein binding, tissue binding, anatomic barriers

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6
Q

What are some anatomic barriers?

A

blood-brain barrier, epidural barrier, blood-testis barrier

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7
Q

What are some chemical modifications of a drug?

A

active, inactive, or toxic metabolite

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8
Q

How are prodrugs administered?

A

in an inactive form; metabolized to their active form

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9
Q

Which systems have the role of drug metabolism?

A

enzyme systems

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10
Q

What is Phase 1 of drug metabolism?

A

enzymes metabolize drugs by oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis

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11
Q

What is Phase 2 of drug metabolism?

A

enzymes add a substance to the drug to inactivate it and to facilitate its elimination

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12
Q

What is drug elimination?

A

the removal of a drug from the body

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13
Q

Which organ eliminates many drugs from the body?

A

kidneys

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14
Q

What is drug clearance?

A

rate at which drug is removed from an organ or from the body

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15
Q

How is drug clearance expressed?

A

as volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time (ml/min)

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16
Q

What is a half-life?

A

time required for amount of drug in body to decrease by one half

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17
Q

What are pharmacodynamics?

A

study of the biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs

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18
Q

What are some clinically relevant PD parameters?

A

mechanism of action, relationship between drug concentration and effect, side effects or adverse reactions

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19
Q

What is mechanism of action?

A

biochemical effect of a drug requires that a drug either have direct physical interaction with cellular components or interact with specific target cellular proteins that result in an alteration of the cells normal physiology

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20
Q

What can side effects result from?

A

drug interacting with multiple tissue types, multiple cellular targets, alteration in patients physiology and/or drug pharmacokinetics

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21
Q

Adverse reactions can occur when?

A

at standard or inappropriate doses or as a result of altered drug PK

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22
Q

Adverse reactions arise when?

A

other drugs are given concurrently

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23
Q

What is the therapeutic range?

A

the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs of toxicity

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24
Q

What 3 major drug factors keep drugs in their therapeutic range?

A

route of administration, drug dose, dosage interval

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25
Q

Larger the therapeutic range the what?

A

safer the drug

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26
Q

What are the most common DZ that impact drug PK?

A

liver, kidney, and CV disease

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27
Q

What CV disease do?

A

alters the distribution of blood flow to tissues

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28
Q

Alterations in what impact drug?

A

GI, hepatic and renal blood flow

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29
Q

What does kidney disease do?

A

decreased drug elimination, increasing plasma drug concentrations, risk of adverse drug reactions, increased fluid retention, potential drug interactions

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30
Q

What does kidney disease risk?

A

adverse drug reactions or toxicity

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31
Q

With kidney disease, what are dose adjustment recommended for?

A

drugs primarily excreted by the kidney and drugs associated with increased risk of side effects

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32
Q

What organ is the primary site of drug metabolism?

A

liver

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33
Q

With liver disease what is difficult to predict?

A

need for dosage adjustments

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34
Q

Normal aging causes what?

A

a change in body composition and redistribution of blood flow to brain and heart

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35
Q

Redistribution of blood flow to brain and heart causes decreased what?

A

drug absorption, hepatic metabolism, and renal excretion

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36
Q

What has the most significant impact on drug disposition?

A

reduced kidney function

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37
Q

Dose dependent drug reactions affect what?

A

all members of a species and multiple species

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38
Q

Idiosyncratic drug reactions affect what?

A

only small portion of treated animals

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39
Q

Idiosyncratic drug reactions may or may not what?

A

affect multiple species

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40
Q

What is the treatment for idiosyncratic drug reactions?

A

drug withdrawal and drug avoidance

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41
Q

What is therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

periodic measurement of amount of drug in the blood

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42
Q

When is therapeutic drug monitoring recommended?

A

when pharmacokinetics of drug varies significantly among individuals or if the drug has narrow therapeutic range

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43
Q

What is the goal of therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

to optimize drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity

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44
Q

Is therapeutic drug monitoring reliable?

A

dependent on timing and number of blood samples collected

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45
Q

What drugs are used for immune-mediated diseases?

A

immunosuppressive drugs

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46
Q

What do immunosuppressive drugs target?

A

immune system

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47
Q

What is the goal with immunosuppressive drugs?

A

control diseases without significant side effects

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48
Q

Which immune-mediated disease drug is most commonly used?

A

glucocorticoids

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49
Q

Hydrocortisone is _____ acting?

A

short

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50
Q

Prednisone/prenisolone, methylpresnisolone and triamicinolone is _______ acting?

A

intermediate

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51
Q

Dexamethasone and betamethasone is ________ acting?

A

long

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52
Q

Glucocorticoids are eliminated from the body how fast?

A

very slowly

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53
Q

What kind of drugs are used for bacterial infection?

A

antimicrobials and antibacterials

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54
Q

Antimicrobials are used to what?

A

either kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms

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55
Q

Antibacterials are substances that do what?

A

kill or inhibit growth of bacteria

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56
Q

What is the goal of antibacterials?

A

assist the body’s natural defenses in elimination of bacterial pathogens while minimizing risk of toxicity

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57
Q

What 2 groups are antifungals divided into based on their chemistry?

A

polyenes and azoles

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58
Q

What is the duration of tx with antifungals?

A

weeks to months

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59
Q

Patient on antifungals must be monitored for what?

A

side effects: decreased appetite, anorexia, and vomiting

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60
Q

What treatment is used for GI disease?

A

nonspecific supportive therapies and targeted therapies, symptomatic supportive care

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61
Q

What drugs are used for liver disease?

A

hepatoprotectants, cholinergic drugs, antifibrotic therapy, metal chelation therapy

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62
Q

What characterizes cardiovascular disease?

A

structural damage or rhythm disturbances of the heart

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63
Q

What is cardiovascular disease a result from?

A

damaged cardiac muscle, valvular disease, pericardial disease, rhythm abnormalities, or altered coronary heart failure

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64
Q

Cardiovascular disease can progress to what?

A

clinical heart failure resulting in accumulation of fluid in tissues

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65
Q

What drugs are used for CV disease?

A

diuretics, inotropic agents, antihypertensives, antiarrhythmics

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66
Q

How are neoplastic diseases treated?

A

with combination of surgery chemotherapy, and radiation therapy

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67
Q

What are the three classes of endoparasites?

A

nematodes, cestodes, trematodes

68
Q

What do macrolytic lactones and milbemycins treat?

A

nematodes and arthropods

69
Q

Ectoparasiticides have a risk of what?

A

toxicity

70
Q

New animal drugs are intended for use in what?

A

animals other than man

71
Q

New animal drugs are approved by FDA as what?

A

prescription drug, over-the-counter drug, and veterinary feed directive

72
Q

Controlled substances are regulated by who?

A

drug enforcement agency

73
Q

Prescription drugs are regulated by who?

A

FDA

74
Q

Prescription drugs are limited to use under the supervision of whom?

A

veterinarian or physician

75
Q

Why should prescription drugs be limited to the use under a vet or physician?

A

because of their potential danger, toxicity concerns, administration difficulty, or other considerations

76
Q

Prescription drugs are prescribed to animals once what has been established?

A

veterinarian/client/patient/relationship

77
Q

What does the federal agency do?

A

assure available drugs are safe, effective, and prepared in accordance with manufacturing standards

78
Q

What does the state do?

A

control the distribution of drugs within the state

79
Q

Name four common drug preparations

A

oral, parenteral, inhalation, topical

80
Q

Boluses are used in the treatment of _______ animals and are administered with a _________.

A

large, balling gun

81
Q

What are 2 types of parenteral injection forms?

A

injections and implants

82
Q

Vials may be either ______ dose or ______ dose

A

single, multi

83
Q

All used needles should be discarded in a what?

A

sharps container

84
Q

What are the 5 right of drug administration?

A

right patient, drug, dose, route, time and frequency

85
Q

Oral drugs should never be administered in animals that are what?

A

vomiting

86
Q

Intravenous administration of drugs allows the most ______ and effective drug administration?

A

rapid

87
Q

An indwelling catheter should be replaced with a new one every how many hours?

A

72 hours

88
Q

A simplex IV system is used to administer fluids to what kind of animals?

A

large

89
Q

Name 6 items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log

A

date, owner’s name, patient’s name, drug name, amount dispensed or administered, name of the person administering drug to patient

90
Q

Why should drugs given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration?

A

plastic syringe may absorb the drug, causing it to be less effective

91
Q

What are 4 types of syringe tips that are available for use?

A

luer-lok, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter-tip

92
Q

A tuberculin syringe holds up to how many ml of medication?

A

1ml

93
Q

What type of syringe is divided into units rather than milliliters?

A

insulin syringe

94
Q

What is an agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other irritation?

A

counterirritant

95
Q

What will usually separate after long periods of shell life and must be shaken well before use to provide a uniform dose?

A

suspension

96
Q

This type of syringe is constructed in such a way that the needle screws onto the tip of the syringe

A

luer-lok tip

97
Q

All the following are sites for IV administration in small animal except what?
jugular vein, carotid artery, lateral saphenous vein, phalic vein

A

carotid artery

98
Q

If an IV catheter is not used continuously, it should be flushed with heparinized saline every how often?

A

8 to 12 hours

99
Q

Cerumen is a substance that is commonly found in what anatomic part of the body?

A

ear

100
Q

Any patient on IV fluid therapy should be monitored every how often?

A

15 to 30 minutes

101
Q

IV tubing should be changed after how long?

A

24 to 48 hours

102
Q

When an IM injection is given in the pelvic limb of a dog or cat, the area near what nerve should be avoided?

A

sciatic and ischiatic

103
Q

Express 1/4 as a ratio

A

1:4

104
Q

Express 1/4 as a decimal

A

.25

105
Q

Express .75 as a ratio

A

75:100

106
Q

Express .75 as a fraction

A

75/100

107
Q

Express .004 as a ratio

A

4:1000

108
Q

Express .004 as a fraction

A

4/1000

109
Q

Express 1:80 as a fraction

A

1/80

110
Q

Express 1:80 as a decimal

A

.0125

111
Q

Express 9/1000 as a ratio

A

9:1000

112
Q

Express 9/1000 as a decimal

A

.009

113
Q

Express 1:32 as a fraction

A

1/32

114
Q

1 gallon= how many quarts?

A

4 quart

115
Q

1 gallon= how many pints?

A

8 pints

116
Q

1 gallon= how many cups?

A

16 cups

117
Q

1 gallon= how many ounces?

A

128 ounces

118
Q

1 gallon= how many liters?

A

3.8

119
Q

1 quart= how many pints?

A

2 pints

120
Q

1 quart= how many cups?

A

4

121
Q

1 quart= how many ounces?

A

32 ounces

122
Q

1 quart= how many liters?

A

.95 liters

123
Q

1 pint= how many cups?

A

2 cups

124
Q

1 pint= how many ounces?

A

16 ounces

125
Q

1 pint= how many ml?

A

480ml

126
Q

1 cup= how many ounces?

A

8 ounces

127
Q

1 cup= how many ml?

A

240ml

128
Q

1/4 cup= how many ounces?

A

2 ounces

129
Q

1/4 cup= how many tablespoons?

A

4tbsp

130
Q

1/4 cup= how many ml?

A

60ml

131
Q

1 tbsp= how many tsp?

A

3tsp

132
Q

1 tbsp= how many ounces?

A

1/2 ounce

133
Q

1 tbsp= how many ml?

A

15 ml

134
Q

Define the difference between an agonist and an opioid antagonist

A

an agonist is a drug that combines with a receptor to bring about an action, an antagonist combines with a receptor and blocks the action

135
Q

What is a neurotransmitter?

A

a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity

136
Q

The area of the brain that serves to relay information from the spinal cord and brainstem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the what?

A

thalamus

137
Q

Most CNS drugs act by _______ or ________ the effects of neurotransmitters

A

interrupting the generation or conduction of nerve impulses; interfering with

138
Q

What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors?

A

epinephrine or norepinephrine

139
Q

What are 4 primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS?

A

mimicking neurotransmitters, interfering with neurotransmitters release, blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors, and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters

140
Q

Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class?

A

cholinergic blocking agents (anticholinergic)

141
Q

What are 5 indications for the use of cholinergic agents?

A

to control vomiting, to treat urinary retention, to stimulate GI activity, to treat glaucoma, and to aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

142
Q

What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock?

A

adrenergic

143
Q

Propanolol is an example of what category of drug?

A

beta blocker

144
Q

What are some adverse side effects of xylazine and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects?

A

bradycardia and hypotension may be antagonized by using atropine; respiratory depression of excessive CNS depression may be antagonized by using yohimbine

145
Q

Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog?

A

thiobarbiturates are very soluble in fat, which acts like a sponge to take the barbiturate out of the circulation and away from the CNS. Thin animals have reduced fat levels which means that more of the thiobarbiturates remains in the bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS

146
Q

What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine?

A

analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscles tremors, and loss of the blink reflex

147
Q

What are some of the signs of narcotic overdose?

A

respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures

148
Q

What are 2 narcotic antagonists?

A

naloxone and nalorphine

149
Q

Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use?

A

because of its tendency to precipitate out of solution when stored

150
Q

You are assisting in the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing adequately. What drug would the vet instruct to give and by what route?

A

doxapram may be administered on or under the tongue, into the umbilical vein, or by intramuscular injection

151
Q

Why are euthanasia solutions that contain only pentobarbital classified as Class II controlled substances, whereas those that contain pentobarbital and other substances are classified as class III controlled substance?

A

some pentobarbital euthanasia agents have red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. Because these agents are easily identified as euthanasia agents, they have less potential for abuse

152
Q

All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their affects by altering _______ activity in the brain

A

neurotransmitter

153
Q

Dissociative agents, such as ketamine and tiletamine, may cause what?

A

burning

154
Q

A hypnotic known for its very short duration and its white color is what?

A

propofol

155
Q

An inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is what?

A

GABA

156
Q

A benzodiazepine that is used as an anti anxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is what?

A

diazepam

157
Q

An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in vet med for separation anxiety in dogs is what?

A

clomicalm

158
Q

What is used to treat old dog dementia?

A

anipryl

159
Q

The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. What system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures?

A

endocrine

160
Q

Which nervous system is under voluntary control?

A

somatic

161
Q

What is the fundamental unit of the nervous system?

A

neuron

162
Q

Axons carry electric-like messages ______ the nerve cell, and dendrites carry electric-like messages _____ the nerve cell

A

away from; toward

163
Q

Neurotransmitters cannot be mimicked or blocked by the use of appropriate drugs, and that is why patients with nervous system disorders do not have a very good prognosis, true or false?

A

false

164
Q

The ANS is that portion of the nervous system that controls what body activities?

A

unconscious

165
Q

The neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is what?

A

acetylcholine

166
Q

Xylazine is antagonized by what?

A

yohimbine

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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