Exit Exam Flashcards
1
Q
What is Pharmacokinetics?
A
Movement of drugs in the body
2
Q
What do pharmacokinetics determine?
A
drug doses, dosing regimens, withdrawal times
3
Q
Where does uptake of a substance occur?
A
from site of administration through circulation to tissues/site of action
4
Q
What is bioavailability?
A
function of absorption and metabolism
5
Q
What are some barriers to drug distribution?
A
drugs chemical properties, tissue blood flow, protein binding, tissue binding, anatomic barriers
6
Q
What are some anatomic barriers?
A
blood-brain barrier, epidural barrier, blood-testis barrier
7
Q
What are some chemical modifications of a drug?
A
active, inactive, or toxic metabolite
8
Q
How are prodrugs administered?
A
in an inactive form; metabolized to their active form
9
Q
Which systems have the role of drug metabolism?
A
enzyme systems
10
Q
What is Phase 1 of drug metabolism?
A
enzymes metabolize drugs by oxidation, reduction, or hydrolysis
11
Q
What is Phase 2 of drug metabolism?
A
enzymes add a substance to the drug to inactivate it and to facilitate its elimination
12
Q
What is drug elimination?
A
the removal of a drug from the body
13
Q
Which organ eliminates many drugs from the body?
A
kidneys
14
Q
What is drug clearance?
A
rate at which drug is removed from an organ or from the body
15
Q
How is drug clearance expressed?
A
as volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time (ml/min)
16
Q
What is a half-life?
A
time required for amount of drug in body to decrease by one half
17
Q
What are pharmacodynamics?
A
study of the biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs
18
Q
What are some clinically relevant PD parameters?
A
mechanism of action, relationship between drug concentration and effect, side effects or adverse reactions
19
Q
What is mechanism of action?
A
biochemical effect of a drug requires that a drug either have direct physical interaction with cellular components or interact with specific target cellular proteins that result in an alteration of the cells normal physiology
20
Q
What can side effects result from?
A
drug interacting with multiple tissue types, multiple cellular targets, alteration in patients physiology and/or drug pharmacokinetics
21
Q
Adverse reactions can occur when?
A
at standard or inappropriate doses or as a result of altered drug PK
22
Q
Adverse reactions arise when?
A
other drugs are given concurrently
23
Q
What is the therapeutic range?
A
the drug concentration in the body that produces the desired effect in the animal with minimal or no signs of toxicity
24
Q
What 3 major drug factors keep drugs in their therapeutic range?
A
route of administration, drug dose, dosage interval
25
Larger the therapeutic range the what?
safer the drug
26
What are the most common DZ that impact drug PK?
liver, kidney, and CV disease
27
What CV disease do?
alters the distribution of blood flow to tissues
28
Alterations in what impact drug?
GI, hepatic and renal blood flow
29
What does kidney disease do?
decreased drug elimination, increasing plasma drug concentrations, risk of adverse drug reactions, increased fluid retention, potential drug interactions
30
What does kidney disease risk?
adverse drug reactions or toxicity
31
With kidney disease, what are dose adjustment recommended for?
drugs primarily excreted by the kidney and drugs associated with increased risk of side effects
32
What organ is the primary site of drug metabolism?
liver
33
With liver disease what is difficult to predict?
need for dosage adjustments
34
Normal aging causes what?
a change in body composition and redistribution of blood flow to brain and heart
35
Redistribution of blood flow to brain and heart causes decreased what?
drug absorption, hepatic metabolism, and renal excretion
36
What has the most significant impact on drug disposition?
reduced kidney function
37
Dose dependent drug reactions affect what?
all members of a species and multiple species
38
Idiosyncratic drug reactions affect what?
only small portion of treated animals
39
Idiosyncratic drug reactions may or may not what?
affect multiple species
40
What is the treatment for idiosyncratic drug reactions?
drug withdrawal and drug avoidance
41
What is therapeutic drug monitoring?
periodic measurement of amount of drug in the blood
42
When is therapeutic drug monitoring recommended?
when pharmacokinetics of drug varies significantly among individuals or if the drug has narrow therapeutic range
43
What is the goal of therapeutic drug monitoring?
to optimize drug plasma concentrations to maximize efficacy and minimize toxicity
44
Is therapeutic drug monitoring reliable?
dependent on timing and number of blood samples collected
45
What drugs are used for immune-mediated diseases?
immunosuppressive drugs
46
What do immunosuppressive drugs target?
immune system
47
What is the goal with immunosuppressive drugs?
control diseases without significant side effects
48
Which immune-mediated disease drug is most commonly used?
glucocorticoids
49
Hydrocortisone is _____ acting?
short
50
Prednisone/prenisolone, methylpresnisolone and triamicinolone is _______ acting?
intermediate
51
Dexamethasone and betamethasone is ________ acting?
long
52
Glucocorticoids are eliminated from the body how fast?
very slowly
53
What kind of drugs are used for bacterial infection?
antimicrobials and antibacterials
54
Antimicrobials are used to what?
either kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms
55
Antibacterials are substances that do what?
kill or inhibit growth of bacteria
56
What is the goal of antibacterials?
assist the body's natural defenses in elimination of bacterial pathogens while minimizing risk of toxicity
57
What 2 groups are antifungals divided into based on their chemistry?
polyenes and azoles
58
What is the duration of tx with antifungals?
weeks to months
59
Patient on antifungals must be monitored for what?
side effects: decreased appetite, anorexia, and vomiting
60
What treatment is used for GI disease?
nonspecific supportive therapies and targeted therapies, symptomatic supportive care
61
What drugs are used for liver disease?
hepatoprotectants, cholinergic drugs, antifibrotic therapy, metal chelation therapy
62
What characterizes cardiovascular disease?
structural damage or rhythm disturbances of the heart
63
What is cardiovascular disease a result from?
damaged cardiac muscle, valvular disease, pericardial disease, rhythm abnormalities, or altered coronary heart failure
64
Cardiovascular disease can progress to what?
clinical heart failure resulting in accumulation of fluid in tissues
65
What drugs are used for CV disease?
diuretics, inotropic agents, antihypertensives, antiarrhythmics
66
How are neoplastic diseases treated?
with combination of surgery chemotherapy, and radiation therapy
67
What are the three classes of endoparasites?
nematodes, cestodes, trematodes
68
What do macrolytic lactones and milbemycins treat?
nematodes and arthropods
69
Ectoparasiticides have a risk of what?
toxicity
70
New animal drugs are intended for use in what?
animals other than man
71
New animal drugs are approved by FDA as what?
prescription drug, over-the-counter drug, and veterinary feed directive
72
Controlled substances are regulated by who?
drug enforcement agency
73
Prescription drugs are regulated by who?
FDA
74
Prescription drugs are limited to use under the supervision of whom?
veterinarian or physician
75
Why should prescription drugs be limited to the use under a vet or physician?
because of their potential danger, toxicity concerns, administration difficulty, or other considerations
76
Prescription drugs are prescribed to animals once what has been established?
veterinarian/client/patient/relationship
77
What does the federal agency do?
assure available drugs are safe, effective, and prepared in accordance with manufacturing standards
78
What does the state do?
control the distribution of drugs within the state
79
Name four common drug preparations
oral, parenteral, inhalation, topical
80
Boluses are used in the treatment of _______ animals and are administered with a _________.
large, balling gun
81
What are 2 types of parenteral injection forms?
injections and implants
82
Vials may be either ______ dose or ______ dose
single, multi
83
All used needles should be discarded in a what?
sharps container
84
What are the 5 right of drug administration?
right patient, drug, dose, route, time and frequency
85
Oral drugs should never be administered in animals that are what?
vomiting
86
Intravenous administration of drugs allows the most ______ and effective drug administration?
rapid
87
An indwelling catheter should be replaced with a new one every how many hours?
72 hours
88
A simplex IV system is used to administer fluids to what kind of animals?
large
89
Name 6 items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log
date, owner's name, patient's name, drug name, amount dispensed or administered, name of the person administering drug to patient
90
Why should drugs given by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration?
plastic syringe may absorb the drug, causing it to be less effective
91
What are 4 types of syringe tips that are available for use?
luer-lok, slip-tip, eccentric, catheter-tip
92
A tuberculin syringe holds up to how many ml of medication?
1ml
93
What type of syringe is divided into units rather than milliliters?
insulin syringe
94
What is an agent that produces superficial irritation that is intended to relieve some other irritation?
counterirritant
95
What will usually separate after long periods of shell life and must be shaken well before use to provide a uniform dose?
suspension
96
This type of syringe is constructed in such a way that the needle screws onto the tip of the syringe
luer-lok tip
97
All the following are sites for IV administration in small animal except what?
jugular vein, carotid artery, lateral saphenous vein, phalic vein
carotid artery
98
If an IV catheter is not used continuously, it should be flushed with heparinized saline every how often?
8 to 12 hours
99
Cerumen is a substance that is commonly found in what anatomic part of the body?
ear
100
Any patient on IV fluid therapy should be monitored every how often?
15 to 30 minutes
101
IV tubing should be changed after how long?
24 to 48 hours
102
When an IM injection is given in the pelvic limb of a dog or cat, the area near what nerve should be avoided?
sciatic and ischiatic
103
Express 1/4 as a ratio
1:4
104
Express 1/4 as a decimal
.25
105
Express .75 as a ratio
75:100
106
Express .75 as a fraction
75/100
107
Express .004 as a ratio
4:1000
108
Express .004 as a fraction
4/1000
109
Express 1:80 as a fraction
1/80
110
Express 1:80 as a decimal
.0125
111
Express 9/1000 as a ratio
9:1000
112
Express 9/1000 as a decimal
.009
113
Express 1:32 as a fraction
1/32
114
1 gallon= how many quarts?
4 quart
115
1 gallon= how many pints?
8 pints
116
1 gallon= how many cups?
16 cups
117
1 gallon= how many ounces?
128 ounces
118
1 gallon= how many liters?
3.8
119
1 quart= how many pints?
2 pints
120
1 quart= how many cups?
4
121
1 quart= how many ounces?
32 ounces
122
1 quart= how many liters?
.95 liters
123
1 pint= how many cups?
2 cups
124
1 pint= how many ounces?
16 ounces
125
1 pint= how many ml?
480ml
126
1 cup= how many ounces?
8 ounces
127
1 cup= how many ml?
240ml
128
1/4 cup= how many ounces?
2 ounces
129
1/4 cup= how many tablespoons?
4tbsp
130
1/4 cup= how many ml?
60ml
131
1 tbsp= how many tsp?
3tsp
132
1 tbsp= how many ounces?
1/2 ounce
133
1 tbsp= how many ml?
15 ml
134
Define the difference between an agonist and an opioid antagonist
an agonist is a drug that combines with a receptor to bring about an action, an antagonist combines with a receptor and blocks the action
135
What is a neurotransmitter?
a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity
136
The area of the brain that serves to relay information from the spinal cord and brainstem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the what?
thalamus
137
Most CNS drugs act by _______ or ________ the effects of neurotransmitters
interrupting the generation or conduction of nerve impulses; interfering with
138
What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors?
epinephrine or norepinephrine
139
What are 4 primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS?
mimicking neurotransmitters, interfering with neurotransmitters release, blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors, and interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters
140
Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate, and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class?
cholinergic blocking agents (anticholinergic)
141
What are 5 indications for the use of cholinergic agents?
to control vomiting, to treat urinary retention, to stimulate GI activity, to treat glaucoma, and to aid in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
142
What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock?
adrenergic
143
Propanolol is an example of what category of drug?
beta blocker
144
What are some adverse side effects of xylazine and what drug may be used to antagonize its effects?
bradycardia and hypotension may be antagonized by using atropine; respiratory depression of excessive CNS depression may be antagonized by using yohimbine
145
Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog?
thiobarbiturates are very soluble in fat, which acts like a sponge to take the barbiturate out of the circulation and away from the CNS. Thin animals have reduced fat levels which means that more of the thiobarbiturates remains in the bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS
146
What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine?
analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscles tremors, and loss of the blink reflex
147
What are some of the signs of narcotic overdose?
respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures
148
What are 2 narcotic antagonists?
naloxone and nalorphine
149
Why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use?
because of its tendency to precipitate out of solution when stored
150
You are assisting in the delivery of a litter of puppies and you deliver one that is not breathing adequately. What drug would the vet instruct to give and by what route?
doxapram may be administered on or under the tongue, into the umbilical vein, or by intramuscular injection
151
Why are euthanasia solutions that contain only pentobarbital classified as Class II controlled substances, whereas those that contain pentobarbital and other substances are classified as class III controlled substance?
some pentobarbital euthanasia agents have red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents that may be used for anesthesia. Because these agents are easily identified as euthanasia agents, they have less potential for abuse
152
All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their affects by altering _______ activity in the brain
neurotransmitter
153
Dissociative agents, such as ketamine and tiletamine, may cause what?
burning
154
A hypnotic known for its very short duration and its white color is what?
propofol
155
An inhibitory neurotransmitter that is widely distributed in the brain is what?
GABA
156
A benzodiazepine that is used as an anti anxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is what?
diazepam
157
An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in vet med for separation anxiety in dogs is what?
clomicalm
158
What is used to treat old dog dementia?
anipryl
159
The nervous system carries out activity very rapidly by sending electric-like messages over a network of nerve fibers. What system works much more slowly by sending chemical messengers through the bloodstream to target structures?
endocrine
160
Which nervous system is under voluntary control?
somatic
161
What is the fundamental unit of the nervous system?
neuron
162
Axons carry electric-like messages ______ the nerve cell, and dendrites carry electric-like messages _____ the nerve cell
away from; toward
163
Neurotransmitters cannot be mimicked or blocked by the use of appropriate drugs, and that is why patients with nervous system disorders do not have a very good prognosis, true or false?
false
164
The ANS is that portion of the nervous system that controls what body activities?
unconscious
165
The neurotransmitter for cholinergic sites is what?
acetylcholine
166
Xylazine is antagonized by what?
yohimbine
