Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Radiation that has the ability to make an atom a charged particle (remove an electron)

A

Ionizing radiation

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2
Q

Radiation in which electric and magnetic fields vary simultaneously (ex: x-ray, gamma rays, etc)

A

Electromagnetic radiation

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3
Q

What is the difference between x-rays and gamma rays?

A

X-rays come from Brems interactions (manmade); gamma from nucleus (natural)

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4
Q

A stream of atomic or subatomic particles that may be charged positively (ex: alpha particles), negatively (ex: beta) or not at all
Electrons don’t go as far as photons (superficial treatment); short travel range and don’t penetrate wall so don’t have to worry about shielding)

A

Particulate radiation

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5
Q

2 forms of ionizing radiation

A

Electromagnetic radiation

Particulate radiation

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6
Q

Plank’s equation

A

E=hv or E=hc/λ

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7
Q

Plank’s constant (h)

A

6.62 x 10^-34

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8
Q

6 types of electromagnetic radiation (from highest to lowest frequency)

A
Gamma rays
Ultraviolet light
Visible light
Infrared light
Microwaves
Radio and television
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9
Q

7 types of visible light (from low to high frequency)

A
Red
Orange
Yellow
Green
Blue
Indigo
Violet (ROYGBIV)
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10
Q

Average wavelength (λ) (m) and frequency (v) (Hz) of gamma rays

A
λ = 10^-12 m
v = 10^20 Hz
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11
Q

Average wavelength (λ) (m) and frequency (v) (Hz) of ultraviolet light

A
λ = 10^-8 m
v = 10^17 Hz
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12
Q

Average wavelength (λ) (m) and frequency (v) (Hz) of visible light

A
λ = 10^-6 m
v = 10^14 Hz
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13
Q

Average wavelength (λ) (m) and frequency (v) (Hz) of infrared light

A
λ = 10^-5 m
v = 10^13 Hz
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14
Q

Average wavelength (λ) (m) and frequency (v) (Hz) of microwaves

A
λ = 10^-2 m
v = 10^10 Hz
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15
Q

Average wavelength (λ) (m) and frequency (v) (Hz) of radio and television waves

A
λ = 10^2 m
v = 10^6 Hz
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16
Q

Energy and frequency are ___________; energy and wavelength are _____________________

A

Proportional; inversely proportional

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17
Q

2 major groups of radiation in a therapy department

A

External beam

Brachytherapy sources

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18
Q

2 types of external beams

A
Linear accelerators (linacs)
Cobalt-60
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19
Q

Machines that produce x-ray, gamma rays, and electrons; most popular
Ex: SRS/SBRT

A

External beams

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20
Q

Machines that emit gamma rays, x-rays, alpha, and beta particles
Ex: 137Cs, 192Ir, 125I

A

Brachytherapy sources

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21
Q

2 types of beams made by linacs based on what is being treated

A

Photon

Electron

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22
Q

3 categories of linacs based on types of energies (want different energies for different part thicknesses)

A

Low
High
Dual-energy (most common)

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23
Q

Cobalt-60 delivers gamma rays with dual-energies of what MeV, averaging what MeV?

A

1.7 and 1.33 MeV

Average = 1.25 MeV

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24
Q

Amount of energy delivered to tissue (keV/um)

A

Linear energy transfer (LET)

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25
Q

What is the charge, atomic mass number, and origin of alpha particles (a)?

A

Charge = +2
Atomic mass number = 4
Origin = nucleus

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26
Q

What is the charge, atomic mass number, and origin of negatrons (B-) (beta particles)?

A

Charge = -1
Atomic mass number = 0
Origin = nucleus

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27
Q

What is the charge, atomic mass number, and origin of positrons (B+) (beta particles)?

A

Charge = +1
Atomic mass number = 0
Origin = nucleus

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28
Q

What is the charge, atomic mass number, and origin of neutrinos (v)?

A

Charge = 0
Atomic mass number = 0
Origin = nucleus

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29
Q

What is the charge, atomic mass number, and origin of x-rays?

A

Charge = 0
Atomic mass number = 0
Origin = electron shells

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30
Q

What is the charge, atomic mass number, and origin of gamma rays (y)?

A

Charge = 0
Atomic mass number = 0
Origin = nucleus

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31
Q

Basically a helium nuclei that has been stripped of its two electrons
Emitted by heaviest nuclides/large unstable atoms that have a large amount of excess energy
Damage done with ingestion
Can be stopped by paper
Ex: uranium decays to produce daughters radium and radon

A

Alpha particles (a)

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32
Q

How many protons and neutrons do alpha particles have?

A

2 protons

2 neutrons

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33
Q

Alpha particles have a very _____ LET because it distributes all its energy when it hits

A

High

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34
Q
Can be positively or negatively charged
Emitted from the nucleus; not natural, created through decay
Have the rest mass of an electron
Shielded best with plastics or glass
Dependent on Z^2/mass^2
Greater Z = more photon production, small mass = more Brems
Energy range = energy/2
In range = dissipated, 90% = shallow
A

Beta particles (B- or B+)

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35
Q

Rest mass of electrons and beta particles (B- or B+)

A

0.511 MeV

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36
Q

1 MeV beta particle has a range of _______ centimeters of tissue

A

2 cm

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37
Q

Similar to electrons but carry no charge; not affected by electromagnetic forces but by a “weak” subatomic force of much shorter range and are therefore able to pass through great distances in matter

A

Neutrino

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38
Q

No mass and no charge; manmade by Brems (85%) or characteristic (15%) interactions

A

X-rays

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39
Q

No mass and no charge; natural from nucleus

A

Gamma rays

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40
Q

What are photoelectric interactions dependent on?

A

Z^3/E^3

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41
Q

What are Compton interactions dependent on?

A

Electron density (why we can treat with radiation therapy; if it was photoelectric they’d all be absorbed by bone)

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42
Q

3 types of natural background radiation

A

Cosmic
Terrestrial
Internal exposure

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43
Q

What percent of human-absorbed radiation doses arise from natural background radiation?

A

82%

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44
Q

Radiation that reaches our planet from high-energy photon emissions beyond our atmosphere (sun/stars)
Atmosphere absorbs some of the emitted radiation before they reach the planet’s surface
Depends on location/height on earth

A

Cosmic radiation

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45
Q

What is the dose per year of natural background radiation?

A

1 mSv/yr + 2 mSv/yr radon = 3 mSv/yr

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46
Q

What is the dose per year of cosmic radiation?

A

26 mrem/yr = 0.26 mSv/yr

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47
Q

Radiation from earth; naturally occurring radioactive materials

A

Terrestrial radiation

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48
Q

What is the cosmic radiation dose in Denver compared to at sea level?

A

2 times as much in Denver than at sea level = 5mrem/0.5 mSv

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49
Q

What is the terrestrial radiation dose in the Rocky Mountains?

A

0.63 mSv

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50
Q

Accounts for 2/3 of natural background radiation
Second cause of lung cancer in the US
Can be found in cement in basements

A

Radon

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51
Q

What is the dose per year of terrestrial radiation (not including radon)?

A

16 mrem/yr = 0.16 mSv/yr

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52
Q

What is the dose per year from radon?

A

200 mrem/yr = 2 mSv

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53
Q

Naturally occurring radiation in the body

A

Internal exposure

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54
Q

What is the dose per year from internal exposure?

A

20 mrem/yr = 0.2 mSv

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55
Q

What is the radiation dose from man-made sources?

A

0.6 mSv

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56
Q

What is the radiation dose from medical sources?

A

0.5 mSv

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57
Q

What is the radiation dose from consumer products?

A

0.11 mSv

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58
Q

2 types of man-made sources of radiation

A

Medical

Consumer products

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59
Q

Amount of ionization produced by photons in air per unit mass of air, only applicable to photons while they interact with air

A

Exposure

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60
Q

Traditional and SI units of exposure

A

Traditional: Roentgen (R)
SI: Coulomb/kg of air

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61
Q

Unit of charge

A

Coulomb (C)

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62
Q

1 R = ? C per gram of air

A

2.48x10^-4 C per gram of air

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63
Q

The use of exposure is limited to photons with energies below what MeV?

A

3 MeV

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64
Q

Amount of energy absorbed per mass of any material while radiation interacts in the material

A

Absorbed dose

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65
Q

Traditional and SI units of absorbed dose

A

Traditional: rad
SI: gray (Gy)

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66
Q

2 units of energy

A

Erg

Joule (J)

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67
Q

1 rad = ? erg per gram of material

A

100 erg per gram of material

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68
Q

1 Gy = ? J per kg of material = ? rad

A

1 J per kg of material = 100 rad

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69
Q

1 Gy = ? rad = ? cGy

A

100 rad = 1 cGy

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70
Q

Product of absorbed dose and a quality factor, which takes into account the biological effects of different types of radiation

A

Dose equivalent

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71
Q

Traditional and SI units of dose equivalent

A

Traditional: rem
SI: Sievert (Sv)

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72
Q

Radiation weighting factor, specific to specific types of radiation; accounts for the biological effectiveness of the specific radiation

A

Quality factor (QF)

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73
Q

Rad x QF

A

rem

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74
Q

Gray x QF

A

Sievert (Sv)

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75
Q

1 Sv = ? rem

A

100 rem

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76
Q

Number of radioactive disintegrations (transformations) per unit of time; how quickly isotopes decay

A

Activity

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77
Q

Traditional and SI units of of activity

A

Traditional: curie (Ci)
SI: becquerel (Bq)

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78
Q

curie = ? disintegrations/second

A

3.7 x 10^10 disintegrations/second

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79
Q

1 Bq = ? disintegrations/second

A

1 disintegrations/second

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80
Q

1 Ci = ? Bq

A

3.7 x 10^10 Bq

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81
Q

What is the quality factor (QF) of x-rays and gamma rays (y), beta particles, positrons, and muons, and high energy external protons?

A

1

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82
Q

What is the quality factor (QF) of protons other than recoil protons and energy greater than 2 MeV?

A

2

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83
Q

What is the quality factor (QF) of thermal neutrons (slower)?

A

5

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84
Q

What is the quality factor (QF) of fast neutrons, alpha particles, and fission fragments other than heavy nuclei?

A

20

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85
Q

Higher quality factor = ________ dose

A

Higher

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86
Q

Detects the ionizations produced by the interactions in a gas, simplest measurement device
Sensitivity depends on the mass of the gas
Voltage affects ion saturation; if not enough voltage ions will reassemble and readings will be innacurate
Used for QA on linacs

A

Ionization chambers

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87
Q

What is the calibration of ionization chambers?

A

2%

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88
Q

What is the average voltage of ionization chambers?

A

200-300 V

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89
Q

2 types of gas-filled detectors

A

Ionization chamber

Geiger-Muller (GM) detector

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90
Q

Very sensitive to radiation, doesn’t measure dose
High voltage
Used for detection of contamination (detecting the presence of radioactive materials in areas or on surfaces where they aren’t wanted)

A

Geiger-Muller (GM) detector

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91
Q

Consists of crystal substance that when irradiated has electrons displaced in its crystal lattice
When the crystal is heated, the electrons return to their normal location (original energy states/valence bands) with the emission of characteristic energy that can be seen as light by using a detector
Dose stored for days or weeks, good personal monitor
More responsive than film, mimics tissue
Dose received is proportional to the radiation damage in the crystal

A

Thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD)

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92
Q

3 materials TLDs may be made of

A

Lithium fluoride (Lif)
Lithium borate
Calcium fluoride

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93
Q

TLDs are accurate within what percent?

A

5%

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94
Q

What is the annealing process of TLDs?

A

Preheat TLD for 1 hour at 400 °C and at 24 hours at 80 °C to get rid of glow peaks

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95
Q

Inexpensive personnel monitor with different filters for different doses, depths, and radiation energy (ex: lead, tin, no filter)

A

Film badge

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96
Q

What is the deep and shallow dose of film badges in centimeters?

A
Deep = 1 cm
Shallow = 0.0007 cm
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97
Q

What is the accuracy of dose readings of film badges?

A

+/-20 (inaccurate)

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98
Q

Film badges are more responsive to low energy with no response for ____ MeV or greater

A

10 MeV

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99
Q

Initially expensive, gas-filled dosimeter
Offers immediate readout
Used for infrequently exposed people
Have to charge it to zero it out or you could get false readings

A

Pocket dosimeter

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100
Q

2 neutron detectors

A

Rascal

Bubble counter

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101
Q

3 materials a rascal detector can be made of

A

Boron trifluoride (BF3)
Argon
Propane

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102
Q

How do you read a bubble counter?

A

5 bubble/mrem

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103
Q

Radiation is stored in this dosimter, then scanned by a laser and emits light
More sensitive than film
Uses filters to distinguish dose (deep, eye, etc.)
Personnel monitoring device commonly used today

A

Optically stimulated luminescence (OSL)

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104
Q

What is the OSL made of?

A

Aluminum oxide detector

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105
Q

What energy range do linacs use and at what energy are neutrons emitted?

A

Linacs use 8-18 MeV and neutrons are emitted at greater than 10 MeV

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106
Q

What shielding material is used for neutrons?

A

Borated polyethylene

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107
Q

Set standards; agencies authorized by congress to establish mandates and regulations that explain the technical, operational, and legal details necessary to implement laws

A

Regulatory agencies

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108
Q

Set exposure levels, voluntary regulatory agency

Reports cover all radiation-associated industries

A

National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP)

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109
Q

Regulatory agency that sets exposure levels

A

International Commission on Radiation Protection

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110
Q

2 regulatory agency that set exposure levels

A

National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurement (NCRP)
International Commission on Radiation Protection

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111
Q

Independent agency of the US government that’s charged with overseeing reactor safety, security, licensing, and renewal, radioactive material safety, and spent fuel management; responsible for isotope usage (need license for brachytherapy)

A

Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

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112
Q

Federal regulatory agency that licenses and okays linacs

Reviews radiopharmaceuticals and radiation-producing equipment (Title 21)

A

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

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113
Q

Federal regulatory agency that governs shipment of radioactive materials (Title 49)

A

Department of Transportation

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114
Q

Administrative regulatory agency requiring employers to ensure safety of workers
Workplace safety and health
Regulations that relate to the use of radiation in regards to employees

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

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115
Q

Have a threshold for induction and severity increases with dose (ex: erythema, epilation, cataracts)
Have to reach threshold to see certain effects

A

Nonstochastic/deterministic effects

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116
Q

No induction threshold and are proportional to the dose received (ex: cancer, genetic effects, teratogenic effects)
Probability increases with dose, sensitivity doesn’t

A

Stochastic effects

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117
Q

Embryologic malformations; developmental effects
Effects on kids exposed in utero/fetus
Correlation: earlier trimester = greatest effect from radiation exposure

A

Teratogenic effects

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118
Q

Lethal effect of acute whole-body exposure in which 50% of the total population exposed is affected in 30 days

A

LD 50/30

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119
Q

What is the LD 50/30?

A

4.5 Gy (450 rads)

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120
Q

3 effects of radiation

A

Somatic/carcinogenesis
Genetic/mutagenesis
Developmental/teratogenesis

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121
Q

Effects that take place in the exposed individual

A

Somatic effects/carcinogenesis

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122
Q

Abnormalities occurring in future kids/subsequent generations
Exposure to gonads, usually presents as cancer

A

Genetic effects/mutagenesis

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123
Q

What is the chance of the exposed individual developing fatal cancer per rem due to low level exposure?

A

1 chance in 2500 of developing fatal cancer per rem due to low level exposure

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124
Q

There is no known threshold for genetic effects but models predict what occurance?

A

1 in 10,000 per rem occurrence

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125
Q

What can happen in the 1st 3 weeks if a fetus is exposed and what can happen after?

A

1st 3 weeks = failure to implant

After = different types of childhood cancers

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126
Q

Comparisons for radiation workers are made with workers in “safe” industries in which risk of injury is about 1 in 10,000 per year; because radiation-induced effects may exhibit a latent period, these comparisons are difficult

A

Comparable risk

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127
Q

Measure of the genetic risk to the population as a whole from exposure to ionizing radiation to some or all members of the population
Dose that, if received by every member of the population, would be expected to result in the same total genetic effect on the population as the sum of the individual doses
Gives measurement of what general risk can take place from exposure in a population
Takes natural and manmade radiation into account

A

Genetically significant dose (GSD)

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128
Q

Lifetime cancer rise for acute whole body exposure to low LET radiation

A

8 in 10,000 per rem (8 per 10,000 people per rem)

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129
Q

Effective dose equivalent limit (stochastic effects) of annual occupational exposures

A

50 mSv (5 rem)

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130
Q

Dose equivalent limits for tissues and organs (nonstochastic effects) of lens of the eye of annual occupational exposures

A

150 mSv (15 rem)

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131
Q

Dose equivalent limits for tissues and organs (nonstochastic effects) of all others (ex: red bone marrow, breast, lung, gonads, skin, and extremities) of annual occupational exposures

A

500 mSv (50 rem)

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132
Q

Cumulative exposure

A

10 mSv x age in years (1 rem x age in years)

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133
Q

Planned special occupational exposure, effective dose equivalent limit and guidance for emergency occupational exposure

A

50 mSv (5 rem)/year

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134
Q

Annual public exposure effective dose equivalent limit, continuous or frequent exposure

A

1 mSv (0.1 rem)

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135
Q

Annual public exposure effective dose equivalent limit, infrequent exposure

A

5 mSv (0.5 rem)

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136
Q

Effective dose equivalent when remedial action is recommended

A

> 5 mSv (>0.5 rem)

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137
Q

Remedial action recommended exposure to radon and its decay products

A

> 0.007 Jhm^-3 (>2 WLM)

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138
Q

Annual public exposure dose equivalent limits for lens of eye, skin, and extremeties

A

50 mSv (5 rem)

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139
Q

Effective dose equivalent limit for annual education and training exposure

A

1 mSv (0.1 rem)

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140
Q

Dose equivalent limit for lens of eye skin, and extremities for annual education and training exposure

A

50 mSv (5 rem)

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141
Q

Total dose equivalent limit for embryo-fetus exposures

A

5 mSv (0.5 rem)

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142
Q

Dose equivalent in a month for embryo-fetus exposures

A

0.5 mSv (0.05 rem)

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143
Q

Negligible individual risk level (annual) effective dose equivalent per source or practice

A

0.01 mSv (0.001 rem)

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144
Q

3 major rules

A

Time (Cobalt-60 machine examples)
Distance (inverse square law)
Shielding (HVL)

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145
Q

Exposure from a Cobalt-60 machine must be less than ____ mR/hr at any point one meter from the source; if the average exceeds ____ mR/hr it’s outside of limit (shielding not working)

A

10 mR/hr; 2 mR/hr

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146
Q

Thickness of absorbing material necessary to reduce the x-ray intensity to half its original value

A

Half-value layer (HVL)

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147
Q

Most dense shielding material (written in mm versus others in cm)

A

Lead

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148
Q

Number of patients per week times the amount of radiation for each (cGy/week or rad/wk)
Time interval of the absorbed dose rate (cGy/min or rad/min) determined at the depth of the maximum absorbed dose, 1 meter from the “source”

A

Workload (W)

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149
Q

Fraction of time the primary beam is aimed at a particular wall

A

Use factor (U)

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150
Q

Fraction of time the shielded space is occupied

A

Occupancy factor (T)

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151
Q

Percent of radiation transmitted through the wall, ceiling, etc. Helps determine HVL

A

Transmission factor (B)

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152
Q

Permissible dose (P) of a controlled area

A

0.1 cGy/wk

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153
Q

Permissible dose (P) of an uncontrolled area (don’t control who is going in and out of space)

A

0.01 cGy/wk

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154
Q

Distance from the source of radiation to occupied area; inverse sqaure

A

Distance (d)

155
Q

Limit for occupied area; radiation worker equivalent or general public

A

Effective dose

156
Q

Use factor (U) 0 degree (down on IEC)

A

31%

157
Q

Use factor (U) 90 and 270 degrees

A

21.3%

158
Q

Use factor (U) 180 degrees

A

26.3%

159
Q

Occupancy factor (T) of full occupancy areas

A

1

160
Q

Areas occupied full-time by an individual, same people in there everyday; ex: work offices treatment planning areas, nurses stations, attended waiting areas, occupied space in nearby building

A

Full occupancy area

161
Q

Occupancy factor (T) of adjacent treatment room, patient examination room adjacent to shielded vault

A

1/2

162
Q

Occupancy factor (T) of corridors, employee lounges, staff rest rooms

A

1/5

163
Q

Occupancy factor (T) of treatment vault doors

A

1/8

164
Q

Occupancy factor (T) of public toilets, unattended vending rooms, storage areas, outdoor areas with seating, unattended waiting rooms, patient holding areas, attics, janitors’ closets

A

1/20

165
Q

Occupancy factor (T) of outdoor areas only transient pedestrian or vehicular traffic, unattended parking lots, vehicular drop-off areas (unattended), stairways, unattended elevators

A

1/40

166
Q

Portions of the floor, ceiling, and wall that generally receive the primary beam

A

Primary barrier

167
Q

Formula for transmission factor

A

B=Pd^2/WUT

168
Q

What do room warning signs with doses greater than 1 mSv or 0.1 rem in an hour read?

A

Caution: high radiation area

169
Q

What do room warning signs with doses greater than 5 Gy read?

A

Grave danger: very high radiation area

170
Q

How often should the “beam on” indicator lights be checked?

A

Daily

171
Q

Turn off radiation when the circuit is interrupted

A

Door interlocks

172
Q

Hear and see inside room while at control booth

A

Visual and aural communication

173
Q

Independant system with a backup batter that kills machine, cuts power

A

Beam on monitors

174
Q

Where should you go if the beam on monitors don’t work?

A

Circuit breaker

175
Q

How often should you log sources in/out of brachytherapy?

A

Weekly

176
Q

4 restrictions for visitors and staff post brachytherapy

A

Nobody under 18 or pregnant can enter
Visitors only allowed for about 20 minutes
Personal monitors for people in room
Keep a certain distance from the patient and/or behind a shield

177
Q

Rooms adjacent to brachytherapy rooms must be less than ____mR/hr

A

2 mR/hr

178
Q

How often should a leak test be done for a double-sealed isotope (ex: cesium)?

A

About every 3 years (less often because it is more sealed)

179
Q

How often should a leak test be done for a single-sealed isotope (ex: Ir, cobalt, etc.)?

A

Every 6 months

180
Q

What is the limit of the results after a wipe test (done with damp wet cloth and placed in scintillation chamber)?

A

Less than or equal to 0.05 microCi

181
Q

Treatment at a dose rate of less than 2 Gy/hr; source stays in patient for a long time (handled with tongs, lead gloves, etc.)

A

Low dose rate (LDR)

182
Q

Treatment at a dose rate that exceeds 12 Gy/hr; high activity can be as much as 10 Ci (ex: Ir)
Not handled manually, remote afterloader

A

High dose rate (HDR)

183
Q

Connect cathodes and machine administers dose; afterloading using a treatment unit controlled from outside the treatment vault

A

Remote afterloader

184
Q

About how many runs can off a HDR source can you get (can get brittle and break off in patient)?

A

1,000 runs

185
Q

Permanent implant must be less than ____mR/hr at 1 meter to be released (ex: prostate treatment takes a couple days, then read patient; patient must be monitored, sleep alone, no one on lap, etc.)

A

5 mR/hr

186
Q

3 steps for removing isotope inventory

A

Take inventory
Sources removed (patient room; who removed, time and date)
Sources remaining

187
Q

2 steps for returning isotope inventory

A
Sources remaining (who removed from patient, time/date returned)
Complete inventory
188
Q

Implements radiation protection program

A

Radiation safety officer (RSO)

189
Q

Oversees use of byproduct material

A

Radiation safety committee (RSC)

190
Q

4 members of a radiation safety committee

A

RSO
Authorized used (doctor)
Nurse
Management representative

191
Q

What is the usual dose per fraction?

A

180-200 cGy

192
Q

2 segregations for disposal of radioactive waste

A

Half-life less than 90 days must decay 10 half-lives

Half life greater than 90 days must be sent off-site if they can’t house them (can get expensive)

193
Q

Tissues in organs that can only be affected by the incapacitation of only one element; ex: spinal cord (if there’s a break in the spine, it stops working below break)

A

Serial structure/response tissues

194
Q

If organ gets damaged, everything around it still works; ex: lungs

A

Parallel structure/response tissues

195
Q

Dose of radiation that’s expected to produce a 5% complication rate within 5 years; want to stay at or below dose

A

Tolerance dose 5/5 (TD5/5)

196
Q

Outline organ to reduce and track dose; reproduction of an external body shape, usually taken through the transverse plane of the treatment beam

A

Contour

197
Q

Pelvis contains ____% of bone marrow in adults

A

25%

198
Q

Bone death

A

Osteonecrosis

199
Q

Osteonecrosis of femoral head at _____ Gy (_______ cGy)

A

60 Gy (6000 cGy)

200
Q

If _____% of bone marrow treated, WBC and platelet counts can be lowered

A

25%

201
Q

Treating kids bones can cause orthopedic problems; treat epiphyseal/growth plate ______ or it can ______ kids growth

A

Evenly, disrupt

202
Q

Striated muscle not as radiosensitive but radiation to this muscle can ______ growth in kids

A

Retard

203
Q

Permanent sterility is unavoidable at low doses around ______-______ cGy

A

1500-2000 cGy

204
Q

Treatment can cause _________ in women due to disruption in the normal production of female hormones; ________ can happen in males due to radiation

A

Menopause; impedance

205
Q

Ovaries can be relocated ________, _________, or _______ along uterus based on treatment field

A

Superiorly, laterally, or midline

206
Q

How is testicular disease usually treated?

A

Testes less often exposed, not commonly in primary beam; when treating testicular disease usually remove affected testicle and treat surrounding tissue

207
Q

As much as _____% of dose to testes from internal scatter; can be reduced to _____% by using testicular clam/shield

A

10%, 3%

208
Q

Testes known to house __________ cells; more common in childhood cancer, may be treated if cells found in biopsy

A

Leukemia

209
Q

After mucosal doses at _______ cGy (ex: gynecological brachytherapy) can cause scar tissue or adhesions that can destroy upper vagina
Lose vaginal patency/flexibility which can be resumed by vaginal dilator, sex, etc.

A

10,000 cGy

210
Q

Normal bladder capacity

A

Greater than or equal to 400 cc’s

211
Q

At greater than or equal to _____ cGy can cause dysuria which raises concern of bladder infection

A

2500 cGy

212
Q

Mucosal inflammation, difficult or painful inflammation

A

Dysuria

213
Q

At ______ cGy, bladder fibrosis may occur and permanently reduce capacity

A

5000 cGy

214
Q

Abnormal connection between two hollow spaces may form in the urinary tract at high doses especially if surgery or tumor is involved

A

Fistulas

215
Q

Men should avoid irradiation ____-____ weeks post-op before radiation to avoid stenosis; rare in females, usually from tumor not radiation

A

6-8 weeks

216
Q

Stenosis

A

Narrowing

217
Q

Severe inflammation of intestines

Radiation induced severe acute causes interruption of eating; stop oral intake to IV

A

Enteritis

218
Q

Symptoms of small intestine start appearing at ____-____ Gy

A

20-25 Gy

219
Q

2 things small intestine can develop from radiation

A

Obstruction

Fistula

220
Q

3 symptoms of small intestine radiation

A

Diarrhea
Nausea
Vomiting

221
Q

Abnormal formation of fibrous tissue caused by alterations in the structure and function of blood vessels
Obstruction of the small intestine due to this may require surgery if severe

A

Fibrosis

222
Q

Doses to the small intestine greater than ______ cGy may induce severe symptoms

A

4500 cGy

223
Q

3 ways small bowel can be manipulated from the treatment field

A

Prone with pillow under stomach
False tabletop with hole for stomach to drop through
Full bladder elevates small bowel

224
Q

Inflammation of rectum

A

Proctitis

225
Q

At about ______ cGy acute injuries/side effects to the rectum and anus appear

A

2500 cGy

226
Q

2 symptoms of rectum and anus irradiation

A

Tenesmus

Mucoid diarrhea

227
Q

Feeling need to defecate, ineffective and painful straining during bowel movement

A

Tenesmus

228
Q

Increased dose of ___-___ cGy increases side effects to the rectum and anus

A

65-70 cGy

229
Q

Rectovaginal fistulas appear with high doses, especially with _______________

A

High beam/brachytherapy

230
Q

Anus should be avoided at all costs unless tumor is very low because it affects the ________

A

Sphincter

231
Q

Anus skin breakdown at _____-_____ Gy (less with IMRT)

A

25-30 Gy

232
Q

3 late results from tumoricidal dose to the rectum and anus

A

Chronic ulcers
Infection
Stenosis to the point where normal defection is impossible (may need colostomy)

233
Q

Dose high enough to eradicate tumor

A

Tumoricidal dose

234
Q

_______-______ cGy will cause decrease in hydrochloric acid in the stomach

A

1500-2000 cGy

235
Q

Stomach can tolerate _____ Gy

A

40 Gy

236
Q

2 symptoms high fractional doses to the stomach can cause

A

Nausea

Vomiting

237
Q

________ cGy threshold for danger for the liver, substantial increase at _______ cGy

A

2500 cGy, 3500 cGy

238
Q

In kids, abnormal liver scans at midplane doses of ______-______ cGy

A

1200-2500 cGy

239
Q

If 75% or more of liver receives ______-_____ cGy, at great risk for liver failure or death

A

3000-3500 cGy

240
Q

Doses to the liver can cause acute ________ and can become chronic like ________

A

Hepatitis, cirrhosis

241
Q

4 symptoms with radiation injury to liver

A

Jaundice
Anorexia
Fatigue
Weight loss

242
Q

Yellowing of the skin caused by obstruction of bile ducts, liver disease, or excessive breakdown of RBC’s

A

Jaundice

243
Q

Enlarged liver

A

Hepatomegaly

244
Q

Inflammation of the kidneys

A

Nephritis

245
Q

Adult kidney threshold

A

2000 cGy

246
Q

2 ways to fix severe bilateral kidney failure

A

Chronic dialysis

Transplant

247
Q

Kidney problems: increased BP, may need to remove destroyed kidney if it increases BP but if not patient can keep it

A

Radiation-induced nephrectomy

248
Q

Have two kidneys so may go over TD5/5 if other is functional

Never take both kidneys to _______ cGy; if one is receiving high dose keep other low to none at all

A

2000 cGy

249
Q

Kidney disease or damage

Unilateral radiation __________ doesn’t result in uremia; won’t see reduction in output if only one kidney is injured

A

Nephropathy

250
Q

Reduced urine output

A

Uremia

251
Q

Located on superior pole of kidneys

TD5/5 unknown because kidney tolerance dose so low

A

Adrenal glands

252
Q

Nickname for pancreatic cancer because once we see signs and symptoms it’s usually too late; rising incidence

A

Silent killer

253
Q

Not a dose limiting structure because stomach and liver reduce dose so much we don’t reach high enough doses to see effects

A

Pancreas

254
Q

2 complications caused by irradiation of the spleen

A

Alteration in blood count

Alteration in immune function

255
Q

Area that receives a lot of treatment (breast and lung)

A

Thorax

256
Q

Makes everything more sensitive to radiation, symptoms happen earlies and more severe; may force patient to take breaks between treatments

A

Concurrent radiation and chemotherapy

257
Q

Don’t want to start treatment and take break because of __________; won’t have effect on cancer cells

A

Rad-bio effect

258
Q

RT treatments given in daily segments over an extended period of time, what makes RT work

A

Fractionization

259
Q

8 organs of the respiratory system

A
Nose
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Lungs
Bronchi
Hilum
Lung parenchyma
260
Q

Portion of lung involved in gas exchange; most susceptible to radiation and what gives low TD5/5

A

Lung parenchyma

261
Q

3 organs of the lung parenchyma

A

Alveoli
Alveolar ducts
Respiratory bronchioles

262
Q

___-___ Gy threshold of pneumonitis in lower tissue density in lungs 1-3 months after radiation

A

20-25 Gy

263
Q

Inflammation of lung tissue, clinical manifestation of vascular, epithelial, and interstitial injuries

A

Pneumonitis

264
Q

6 symptoms of pneumonitis

A
SOB on exertion
Dry cough
Dyspnea
Fevers (if patient develops SOB and fever, indicative of greater lung injury)
Night sweats
Cyanosis
265
Q

Pneumonitis can be treated with _______ to alleviate symptoms but doesn’t stop development

A

Steroids

266
Q

If pneumonitis not treated, patient can develop long-term radiation ________ 2-4 months after treatment which affects/prevents expansion and interrupts gas transfer; this and pneumonitis increases risk of infection

A

Fibrosis

267
Q

Abnormal narrowing of body passage; severe inflammation of esophagus may make this permenant (lose elasticity)

A

Stricture

268
Q

Inflammation of esophagus

A

Esophagitis

269
Q

Pain with swallowing and swelling develops ____-____ days after esophagus treatment starts; pain usually subsides about ____ week after treatment
Pain increases with dose

A

10-12 days; 1 week

270
Q

Higher dose per fraction because more dose = less fractions needed

A

Hypofractionization

271
Q

Fractional doses smaller than conventional, delivered two or three times daily to achieve an increase in the total dose in the same overall time

A

Hyperfractionation

272
Q

Inflammation of the pericardium

A

Pericarditis

273
Q

Membrane enclosing the heart, consisting of an outer fibrous layer and an inner double layer of serous membrane

A

Pericardium

274
Q

Can see acute pericarditis appear the ____ year post treatment

A

1st

275
Q

3 symptoms of pericarditis

A

Anterior chest pain
SOB
Low-grade fever

276
Q

Pericarditis can develop at ____ Gy

A

20 Gy

277
Q

3 ways pericarditis can be treated

A

Aspirin
NSAIDs
Steroids

278
Q

Several years later if whole pericardium receives ___ Gy or more; can impede filling and reduce cardiac output (surgery only option to help)

A

50 Gy

279
Q

Myocardium can develop _________________ after RT, which reduces function and is often related to a _______________

A
Interstitial fibrosis
Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
280
Q

Heart muscle

A

Myocardium

281
Q

Young people may develop hardening of arteries after radiation of heart and pericardium

A

Coronary arteriosclerosis

282
Q

Chemo drugs, cardiotoxicity (heart toxicity) along with RT can cause CHF

A

Doxorubicin/adriamycin

283
Q

Prepuberty radiation will hinder development of the breast at ______-_____ cGy dose and can also induce malignant changes within breast many years after exposure (patient considered high risk)

A

1000-1500 cGy

284
Q

2 symptoms of the breast at 2000 cGy

A

Erythema can develop to dry desquamation

Mild tenderness of breast

285
Q

Shedding of the epidermis

A

Desquamation

286
Q

3 symptoms of the breast at 4500 cGy

A

Most desquamation
Mild firmness
Edema

287
Q

______ cGy can cause obvious fibrotic changes; smaller and harder breast and persistent changes after treatment (spider veins)

A

6000 cGy

288
Q

Bundle/network of nerves from neck to armpit

A

Brachial plexus

289
Q

Cervical nerves begin at ______________

A

Base of the skull

290
Q

Doses greater than _____ Gy to the brachial plexus can cause damage; loss of motor function and sensory deprivation in ipsilateral arm that takes _____ year(s) or more to show

A

55 Gy; 1 year

291
Q

3 treatments brachial plexus is contoured for

A

Head and neck
Breast (axillary nodes)
Lung

292
Q

Within a few weeks of spinal cord treatment, patient may experience electrical shock/sensation down the back and into the limbs due to desheathing of myelin sheath; not permanent

A

Lhermitte’s sign/phenomenon

293
Q

Spinal cord injury comes ___-____ months post treatment

A

8-48 months

294
Q

2 spinal cord injuries from radiation therapy

A

Characterized motor deficit below treatment (circuit)

Para- or quadriplegia (higher damage = quad)

295
Q

With head and neck treatments, swallowing becomes an issue that affects nutritional intake and leads to increased ________

A

Morbidity

296
Q

Dose at which mandible can develop osteonecrosis

A

About 50-60 Gy

297
Q

Xerostomia seen at this dose; little recovery once salivary glands are suppressed (artificial saliva, water)

A

About 2000 cGy

298
Q

Xerostomia

A

Drymouth

299
Q

Radiation causes _______ decay because of bacterial proliferation since saliva not going through; fluoride treatments, pre-dental work if patient has history of teeth issues

A

Dental

300
Q

Squamous cells that for lips, mouth, pharynx, and larynx

A

Mucosa

301
Q

Erythema of mucosa at ______ cGy

A

2000 cGy

302
Q

Mouth can get thrush (whitening) at about ______ cGy; antifungal therapies

A

3000 cGy

303
Q

Soft palate vulnerable and site where radiation _________ appears first

A

Mucotitis

304
Q

Can shield teeth with _____ when treating mucosa of lip but beam can scatter off high Z material leading to more skin breakdown; add low Z material (_____) to outside of shield

A

Lead; wax

305
Q

Negative pressure and fluid in middle ear caused by obstruction of eustachian tube

A

Serous otitis

306
Q

Dose that causes serous otitis due to obstruction (lack of drainage); decongestants

A

4000 cGy

307
Q

3 organs that become red and inflamed during treatment of the ears

A

Ear canals
Drains
Eustachian tubes

308
Q

3 sound conducting bones of the ears that can develop fibrosis later due to higher radiation doses

A

Incus
Stapes
Malleus

309
Q

Clouding of lens; non-stochastic (increases with dose)

A

Cataracts

310
Q

Cataracts can develop at _____ cGy over a period of years of low dose

A

500 cGy

311
Q

Irradiation of this gland can lead to loss of tear creation and chronic dry eyes (artificial tears)

A

Lacrimal gland

312
Q

Drains conjunctiva

A

Punctum lacrimal

313
Q

Tear duct can develop fibrosis and cause obstruction leading to this

A

Watery eyes

314
Q

Develops when anterior chamber of eye is irradiated

A

Glaucoma

315
Q

Dose at which retina, optic nerve and chiasma can experience vision loss

A

5000 cGy

316
Q

X-shaped structure formed at the point below the brain where the two optic nerves cross

A

Chiasma

317
Q

Muscle that opens and closes mouth; more vulnerable to radiation and develops fibrosis before other muscles

A

Pterygoid muscle

318
Q

Spasm of jaw muscles causing the mouth to remain tightly closes; can lead to nutritional and dental care problems (exercise jaw, open and close mouth)

A

Trismus/lockjaw

319
Q

Trismus gradually develops over doses of ________ cGy or greater

A

6000 cGy

320
Q

3 symptoms that develop around doses of 5000 cGy due to swelling of supraglottic larynx

A

Hoarseness
Dysphagia
Airway obstruction

321
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphagia

322
Q

Whole larynx being treated at ______ cGy = can start seeing chronic laryngeal inflammation

A

6500 cGy

323
Q

Death or disintegration of a cell or tissue caused by disease or injury

A

Cartilage necrosis

324
Q

After cartilage necrosis, removal of the larynx and separation of the airway from the mouth, nose, and esophagus

A

Laryngectomy

325
Q

Endocrine gland, non-dosing structure

A

Thyroid gland

326
Q

Underactivity of the thyroid, decreased function/hormones

A

Hypothyroidism

327
Q

5 symptoms of hypothyroidism

A
Fatigue
Weakness
Hair loss
Depression
Memory loss
328
Q

Disorder from hypothyroidism that causes the eyes to bulge; treat muscles with radiation to relax them back

A

Graves disease

329
Q

Normal function of pituitary gland drops around ___-___ Gy; insufficiencies happen when treating nasopharynx and base of skull because gland is in sella turcica (2 cm superior and anterior to EAM)

A

55-60 Gy

330
Q

3 organs radiation of pituitary gland impairs

A

Gonads
Thyroid
Adrenal function (hormone replacement, surgery through nose)

331
Q

After we administer so much radiation to a tumor, the tumor can be seen better; can change treatment plan

A

Tumoritis

332
Q

Dose at which tumor borders are visible

A

Around 1000 cGy

333
Q

Obstruction of the blood supply to an organ or region of tissue, causing local death of the tissue

A

Infarction

334
Q

Mental retardation in kids is a risk with midplane whole brain doses of about ______ cGy in _____ fractions over 2.5 weeks with injections of methotrexate (chemo) into CSF (whole brains usually treated with about 3000 cGy in adults)

A

2400 cGy; 12 fractions

335
Q

2 abnormalities that show up on kids CT scans during/after brain treatment that cause medical problems

A

Dilated ventricles

Calcifications throughout brain

336
Q

Infants/kids are more susceptible to chronic brain injury during treatment because their ______ cells are still proliferating

A

Mitotic

337
Q

Brain tumors rare in first _____ years of life

A

2

338
Q

Moderate to severe neurological handicaps will follow in about _____% or _____ of kids dosed/treated in brain

A

33% or 1/3

339
Q

Why is palliative treatment delivered with high doses per fraction?

A

It gets rid of symptoms faster

340
Q

____ of those treated who receive _____ cGy of midplane dose in low fractions with concurrent systemic chemo can develop memory impairment, poor judgement, and other intellectual defects within a few months of brain treatment

A

33%; 3000 cGy

341
Q

Vision loss can start to occur at _____ cGy or greater to the optic nerves and chiasm

A

4500 cGy

342
Q

Temporary hair loss occurs at about _____ cGy usually around the first two weeks of treatment (____-____ fractions)

A

1000 cGy; 10-12 fractions

343
Q

Hair regrowth will usually occur as long as we don’t hit doses of ___-___ Gy where it can be permanent

A

40-45 Gy

344
Q

Skull radionecrosis _____ unless doses are high

A

Rare

345
Q

Usually don’t treat whole extremity if at least ___-___ cm of soft tissue not treated, lymphedema can occur at around ____ Gy (subcutaneous fibrosis stops lymph drainage)

A

1-3 cm, 40 Gy

346
Q

Doses to foot greater than ___-___ Gy should be avoided in elderly because of slowed healing process

A

35-40 Gy

347
Q

Avoid irradiating epiphysis in kids, ____ Gy can affect growth

A

20 Gy

348
Q

Radiotherapy of a surgically dissected axilla and supraclavicular region leads to this

A

Lymphedema

349
Q

Halves of body, less toxic

A

Hemibody

350
Q

Radiation given in a way to cover whole body

A

Total body irradiation (TBI)

351
Q

2 forms of TBI

A

Low dose

High dose

352
Q

2 reasons TBI is done

A

Suppress patient’s immune system

Prevent rejection of donor bone marrow after a bone marrow transplant

353
Q

10-15 cGy per treatment 1-3 times weekly until TD of 150 cGy for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and some favorable types and non-Hodgkins lymphoma (systemic diseases); chemo works better though
Palliative

A

Low dose TBI

354
Q

Used to be done in single application of 1000 cGy Cobalt-60 at 5 cGy/min
Increase distance to 300-400 cm to fit whole body which lowers dose, longer treatment

A

Single high dose TBI

355
Q

2 types of high dose TBI

A

Single

Fractionated

356
Q

6-8 single fractions BID usually in the morning and afternoon with at least 6 hours between them at 1200-1400 cGy
Less toxicity and reduces risk of pneumonitis and pneumonia

A

Fractionated high dose TBI

357
Q

6 symptoms patient can experience from fracionated high dose TBI

A
Radiation induced enteritis
Xerostomia
Diffuse (spread-out) skin erythema
Temporary hair loss
Sterilization
Cataracts
358
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of kidney

A

2300 cGy - clinical nephritis

359
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of symptomatic bladder contracture and volume loss

A

6500 cGy - symptomatic bladder contracture and volume loss

360
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of femoral head

A

5200 cGy - necrosis

361
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of TMJ mandible

A

6000 cGy - marked limitation of joint function

362
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of rib cage

A

5000 cGy - pathologic fracture

363
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of brain

A

4500 cGy - necrosis, infarction

364
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of brain stem

A

5000 cGy - necrosis, infarction

365
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of optic nerve I & II

A

5000 cGy - blindness

366
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of chiasma

A

5000 cGy - blindness

367
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume), rule of thumb, what doctor’s may go up to and side effect of spinal cord

A

TD5/5: every 20 cm, 4700 cGy
Rule of thumb: 4500 cGy
What doctor’s may go up to: 5000 cGy
Side effect: myelitis necrosis

368
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of brachial plexus

A

6000 cGy - clinically apparent nerve damage

369
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of eye lens I & II

A

1000 cGy - cataract requiring intervention

370
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of eye retina I & II

A

4500 cGy - blindness

371
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) of ear mid/external that causes acute serous otitis

A

3000 cGy

372
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) of ear mid/external that causes chronic serous otitis

A

5500 cGy

373
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of parotid I & II

A

3200 cGy - xerostomia

374
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) of larynx that causes cartilage necrosis

A

7000 cGy

375
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) of larynx that causes laryngeal edema

A

4500 cGy

376
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of lung I

A

1750 cGy - pneumonitis

377
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of heart

A

4000 cGy - pericarditis

378
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of esophagus

A

5500 cGy - clinical stricture/perforation

379
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of stomach

A

5000 cGy - ulceration perforation

380
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of small intestine

A

4000 cGy - obstruction perforation/fistula

381
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of colon

A

4500 cGy - obstruction perforation/ulceration/fistula

382
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of rectum

A

6000 cGy - severe proctitis/necrosis/fistula, stenosi

383
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of liver

A

3000 cGy - liver failure/damage

384
Q

TD5/5 (3/3 volume) and side effect of spleen

A

3000-4000 cGy - hypofunction