Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Involves the study of the functional (physiological) changes in the body that result from disease processes

A

Pathophysiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A deviation from the person’s normal state of health

A

Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Decrease in Size of cells is called?

A

Atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Increase in cell size NOT number is called?

A

Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Increased in the number of cells resulting from an increase in Mitosis

A

Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Refers to Abnormal Changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells

A

Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Refers to cells that are Undifferentiated and demonstrate a variation in nuclei and cell structure

A

Anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Commonly referred to as a Tumor and new growth

A

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Encompass the tendencies that promote the tendencies that promote development of a disease in an individual.

A

Predisposing Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Designed to preserve health and prevent the spread of disease.

A

Prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Refers to the development of the disease or the sequence of events involved in tissue changes related to the specific disease process.

A

Pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Occurring short term that develops very quickly with marked signs such as fever or pain.

A

Acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Occurring long term and causes permanent tissue damage.

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Manifestations of disease are subside in ____________.

A

Remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs increase in ___________.

A

Exacerbations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A condition that triggers an acute episode such as an seizure in an individual that has an seizure disorder.

A

Precipitating Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The science in tracking the pattern or occurrence of the disease.

A

Epidemiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Indicates the number of new cases in a given population noted within a stated time period.

A

Incidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The number of new and old or existing cases within a specific population and time period.

A

Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Predicted course and expected outcome

Probability for Recovery

A

Prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disease acquired from a Health Care environment

A

Nosocomial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Potential outcome of the Primary Disease

Long Term effects of Disease

A

Sequela

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Secondary (new) changes / diseases that occur as a result of the Primary Disease

A

Complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What can be done to cure a Disease or relieve the Signs and Symptoms is called?

A

Therapy / Treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Can’t see or measure; Felt by the patient is called __________.

A

Subjective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can see or measure presence of Disease

A

Objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Collection of Signs and Symptoms of a Disease that occur together; often affecting more than one organ

A

Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A disease caused by a treatment, a procedure, or an error
Examples:
Bladder infection following a catheterization
Bone marrow depression secondary to taking a prescribed medication

A

Latrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Largest category of Etiology is called ____________.

A

Acquired Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Inability of the cell to maintain Homeostasis in the face of some type of injurious stimuli

A

Cellular Trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Produced by microorganisms such as Bacteria during an Infection

A

Biological Toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Invasion and multiplication of a Pathogen is called?

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Interval of time between the Invasion by a pathogen and the first signs and symptoms of the disease is called?

A

Incubation Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Time of first Non-specific / General signs and symptoms is called? ex. (Fever,headache)

A

Prodromal Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

During this period the child with Rubeola experiences:
Fever
Respiratory distress
Generalized weakness

A

Prodromal Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

High fever with or without chills may be a common sign during this period, Disease is at peak.

A

Acute (Acme) Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Signs and symptoms begin to Subside

ex. The rash fades first from the face and then the body trunk as the period of decline takes place

A

Period of Decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Regain strength and return to health

The body returns to normal

A

Period of Convalescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Body’s reaction and interaction with substances that are perceived as foreign

A

Immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Foreign (nonself) substances that when encountered by the Immune System elicits a response

A

Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An allergy for which there is a genetic predisposition

Inherited tendency to develop a certain type of an Allergy, but not the Allergy itself

A

Atopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Antigen that triggers the reaction is called an ___________.

A

Allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A person with an allergy has an inherited ability to produce an abnormally large amount of ___ after an exposure to an Antigen

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mast cells release __________.

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Mitosis
Cells are multiplying and dividing
This is called ___________.

A

Proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Process of Maturation is called _____________.

A

Differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common in United States and is responsible for most worldwide HIV infection

A

HIV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Transmitted from one person to another by body fluids such as:

A

Blood or blood products
Semen and vaginal secretions
Transplacentally
Breast milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the most common serious complication of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus?

A

Kidney Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the first line of defense?

A

Healthy Skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

STDs cause lesions and breaks in the Skin; Allows easier access to _________________.

A

HIV-infected Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the second most frequent route of transmission of HIV in the US?

A

IV Drug Abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Infants of infected mothers can contract HIV disease during postpartum through __________.

A

Breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In utero, transmission has occurred as early as _____________.

A

15 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the Prime Target of HIV?

A

CD4 T Helper Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Initially complain of Flu-like signs and symptoms which resolve completely in the primary phase is described as what phase?

A

Phase 1 Latent Phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What Is Meant by the Window Period?

A

There is a Lag Time or Window before Antibodies to the Virus appear in the Blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How long will it take for antibodies to the Virus appear in the Blood?

A

It may take anywhere from 2 weeks to 6 months, but averages about 3 – 7 weeks
Earliest, 1 week after exposure, and 99% within 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The point at which an infected person develops Antibodies to the Virus and they can be detected in the Blood

A

Seroconversion

60
Q

No apparent signs and symptoms of the disease is at what phase?

A

Phase 2. Latent Phase

61
Q

The latent phase can last how long?

A

Anywhere from 6 months to a median time of 11 years without antiretroviral drugs

62
Q

Final Acute Stage of HIV Infection with rapid viral replication and very low CD4 T Helper Cell counts

A

Phase 3. AIDS

63
Q

What is frequently the cause of death to AIDS patients?

A

Fungal infection caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci (pneumonia)

64
Q

What causes thrush of the tongue (Candidiasis)?

A

Candida albicans

65
Q

HIV infected Monocytes become ___________ and release HIV

A

Macophages

66
Q

Malignant disease involving the Endothelial Cells

Opportunistic Cancer

A

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

67
Q

Antibodies to HIV appear at variable rates anywhere from?

A

2 weeks to 6 months, but averages 3 – 7 weeks

68
Q

(confirmation test)

More sensitive test that looks for Antibodies to specific HIV -1 antigens

A

Western Blot (WB) Test

69
Q

A subjective response would be:

A

A symptom

70
Q

A treatment or procedure that may cause a disease is called?

A

Lathrogenic

71
Q

The term that refers to the cause of a disease is called?

A

Etiology

72
Q

Signs and symptoms are presented in the disease during what period?

A

Acute (Acme) period

73
Q

Has not invaded underlying tissue

Good prognosis with surgical removal

A

Pre-invasive Stage

74
Q

Refers a malignant process or growth to spread into healthy tissues

A

Invasive Stage

75
Q

Erythrocytes won’t mature anymore, won’t change anymore and they have very specific functions
This is the process of ______________

A

Differentiation

76
Q

With continuous exposure to the Promoter it will cause malignant changes

A

Progression

77
Q

An objective indication of disease that is obvious to an observer is referred to as a ___________.

A

Sign

78
Q

A disease that originates or is produced in the body is called:
(Genetics)

A

Endogenous

79
Q

Term used to identify a factor that triggers an acute episode?

A

Precipitating factor

80
Q

What is the term that is used to refer to the period of recovery and the resulting return to a normal, healthy state following an illness

A

Convalescence

81
Q

What is the term that indicates the probability of recovery or likelihood of other health outcomes?

A

Prognosis

82
Q

The science of tracking the pattern and occurrence of disease is called?

A

Epidemiology

83
Q

The number of new and old disease cases in a given population at a specific time is called?

A

Prevalence

84
Q

_____________ is the number of new disease cases in a given population at a specific time.

A

Incidence

85
Q

______ is the frequency with which a disease appears in a population

A

Morbidity

86
Q

The manifestations of a disease are best defined as

A

Signs and symptoms of a disease

87
Q

What are the three essential means whereby a cell can be injured?

A
  1. Cellular Deficiency
  2. Cellular Trauma
  3. Cellular Intoxication
88
Q

Single most common cause of cellular injury is?

A

Hypoxic Injury

89
Q

Extreme cold injures cells as a result of ice crystal formation in the water of the cytoplasm

A

Hypothermia

90
Q

Disease usually involves changes at what level?

A
  1. Organ or System Level (Gross)

2. Cellular Level (Microscopic)

91
Q

Invasion and multiplication of a Pathogen is called?

A

Microbiologic Injury

92
Q

Produced by microorganisms such as Bacteria during an Infection?

A

Biological Toxins

93
Q

Damaging Effect that results from exposure to a substance that the body cannot tolerate.

A

Nonbiological (Chemical) Toxins

94
Q

Results when an area of necrotic tissue that has been invaded by Bacteria

A

Gangrene

95
Q

Scientific method of determining and identifying a specific Disease is called an ___________.

A

Diagnosis

96
Q

What is the definition of a sign?

A

Objective evidence of a Disease

Can be seen or measured

97
Q

What is the definition of a symptom?

A

Subjective

Can’t be seen or measured

98
Q

What are the 5 signs of inflammation?

A
Redness
Swelling 
Heat (Warmth)
Pain 
Loss of Function
99
Q

Largest category of Etiology is ____________

A

Acquired Disease

100
Q

The interval of time between the Invasion by a pathogen and the first signs and symptoms of the disease

A

Incubation period

101
Q

What is the incubation period for Rubeola in children?

A

9-11 days

102
Q

What is the incubation period for Rubeola in Adults?

A

21 days

103
Q

What are the 4 factors that influence the incubation period?

A
Dose
Generation Time 
Virulence 
Level of Host resistance 
Location of Entry
104
Q

The disease is at peak during which period?

A

Acute (Acme) Period

105
Q

Period of Regaining strength and returning to normal health.

A

Period of Convalescence

106
Q

Disease is one in which the signs and symptoms are apparent

A

Clinical Disease

107
Q

Does not cause ANY apparent signs or symptoms, although it may persist over long periods of time

A

Subclinical Disease

108
Q

What is the Etiology of SLE (Lupus)

A

Idiopathic

109
Q

Diagnostic procedures for the SLE include:

A
Urinalysis 
H&P
ANA
CBC 
ESR
110
Q

The most common serious complication of SLE is ______________.

A

Kidney Failure

111
Q

Treatment for SLE include:

A

Corticosteroids

NSAIDs

112
Q

What is the major killer of AIDS victims?

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP)

113
Q

Prime target of HIV is?

A

CD4 T Helper Cells

114
Q

Fungal infection caused by

A

Pneumocystis jiroveci

115
Q

How is HIV Diagnosed?

A

ELISA / EIA screen
T2: Western Blot Test
Multispot
p24

116
Q

HIV antibody test are:

A

ELISA.
EIA
Western Blot

117
Q

Term used to describe a Cell that no longer maintains its Terminally Differentiated state

A

Transformation

118
Q

Mass of new Cells that grow in haphazard fashion

A

Neoplasm

Cells reproduce at an abnormal rate

119
Q

Malignant tumor of epithelial tissue

A

Carcinoma

120
Q

Malignant tumor of connective tissue

A

Sarcoma

121
Q

Tumor cells resemble the cell of origin
Retains some specialized functions
-Well differentiated

A

Grade I

122
Q

Tumor Cells have some of the characteristics of the Cell of origin, but they are starting to become more Different
-Modernly Differentiated

A

Grade II

123
Q

Tumor Cells are less like the Cell of origin
Very rapid growth
-Poorly Differentiated

A

Grade III

124
Q

Very Poorly Differentiated
Tumor Cells have no resemblance to the Cells of origin
Great Variation in size and shape

A

Grade IV

125
Q

Second most common cause of death in the United States

A

Cardiovascular Disease

126
Q

First common cause of death in US

A

CVA

127
Q

Seven Warning “Signals” of Cancer are:

A

CAUTION

  • Change in bowel or bladder habits
  • A sore that does not heal
  • Unusual bleeding or discharge
  • Thickening or lump in Breast or elsewhere (often painless)
  • Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing
  • Obvious change in a wart or mole
  • Nagging cough or hoarseness
128
Q

A male can only inherit a Y Chromosome from the _________

A

Father

129
Q

Specific Site on a Chromosome for a specific function or trait such as Eye color, Hair color, or Hair type is called _______

A

Allele

130
Q

Disease that impairs the function of the Exocrine Glands and most importantly involves the Pancreas, Intestine and Bronchi

A

Cystic Fibrosis

131
Q

A person with Sickle cell Anemia is __________ for the defective Gene

A

Homozygous

132
Q

Transmission of Genetic Disorders is usually located ____________

A

On X Chromosome

133
Q

Tumor that is slow growing

Encapsulated with well defined edges

A

Benign

134
Q

Non-invasive

Remain localized & do NOT Metastasize

A

Benign

135
Q

Tumor that is Differentiated

Resembles original tissue structure

A

Benign

136
Q

Tumors that are undifferentiated and fast growing

A

Malignant

137
Q

In the formation of Sperm and Ovum this number is reduced by half and they contain how many chromosomes?

A

23

138
Q

Which type of tumor can obstruct the lumen of an organ?

A

Both (Malignant and Benign)

139
Q

Secondary causes of pain in malignant tumors would be:

A

Infection
Ischemia
Bleeding

140
Q

Systemic effects of malignant tumors include

A
Generalized weakness / fatigue
Anorexia
Weight loss
Cachexia 
Anemia
141
Q

Diagnostic test for malignant tumors?

A
CBC
Tumor Markers (Confirms Diagnosis)
142
Q

Genes that promote normal growth of Cells are referred to as _____________.

A

Proto-Oncogenes

143
Q

Genes that Inhibit proliferation of Cells in a Tumor

A

Tumor Suppressor Genes (Anti-oncogenes)

144
Q

p53 gene is located where?

A

Chromosome #17

145
Q

What is the process of how cancer is formed in a multi-step process?

A
1.  Initiation (DNA Damage)
Exposed to an carcinogen 
Irreversible step!
2.  Promotion 
Initiated cells become cancerous 
Loses growth regulation 
Promoters are reversible (ex. Stopping the act of smoking)
3.  Progression
Continuous exposure of the promoter 
Growth rate increases and metastasis occurs
146
Q

Treatment of cancer includes

A
Surgery 
Radiation therapy 
Chemo
Immunotherapy 
Palliative Treatment