Test 1 Flashcards

0
Q

What is the safest and easiest route for medications

A

Oral

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1
Q

With a swish and spit what does the patient not do

A

Swallow

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2
Q

What position should a patient be in when taking pills

A

Semi fowler so or side lying

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3
Q

What pills should you never crush

A

Enteric coated or time released

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4
Q

What does enteric coated mean

A

Thick coating makes it so a pill does not dissolve in your stomach but it dissolves in your bowel. Could cause ulcers or GI bleeding if not enteric coated

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5
Q

What should you do when giving medication to skin

A

Wear gloves because you do not want to absorb medication through your skin

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6
Q

Drops flow from _______ to __________

A

Inner to outer

Away from tear duct

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7
Q

How long should you press and hold on tear duct after giving a eye med? Why do you do this?

A

30 to 60 seconds do this so medicine doesn’t get into tear duct

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8
Q

Where do you place an eye med?

Not here _______?

A

Place in conjunctival sac not on cornea

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9
Q

How should you pull ear for a child under 2?

Anybody over 2?

A

2 and under- down and back

2 and over- up and back

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10
Q

What is important to do when giving a ear drop

A

Warm to at least room temperature because ears are sensitive to temperature

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11
Q

Once you give ear drop how long should person remain on side

A

2-3 minutes

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12
Q

When giving a nose medicine what does patient need to do

A

Inhale through nose as medicine enters

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13
Q

How should a vaginal medication be given

A

Supine position with knees bent insert 3-4 inches, remain on back at least 10 min, best if done overnight

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14
Q

How do you give a rectal medication

A

Side lying position, insert 4 inches, remain flat at least 5 minutes

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15
Q

You are about to give a rectal med why do you carry it in a cup

A

To prevent melting

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16
Q

What should be your needle selection for the arm

A

1”

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17
Q

What should be your needle selection for major muscles and average length

A

1 1/2 “

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18
Q

To take off the cap what should you do

A

Rock away with thumbs

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19
Q

What is the #1 spot for an intramuscular injection?

A

VG (ventrogluteal)

-side of hip, large muscle, free of major nerves

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20
Q

For children under 2 what is the only intramuscular site used for injections

A
Vastus lateralis (VL)
Middle 1/3 of muscle between the trochanter and knee 
"Between pleat and seam"
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21
Q

What are the disadvantages to Vastus Lateralis (VL)

A

Hurts if person is athletic

Patient looks at you as you give it

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22
Q

What is the least preferred site for general injections,but required for most vaccinations

A

Deltoid site

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23
Q

Where should you give an injection in the arm

A

Center of the deltoid muscle

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24
Q

Where should you not give an injection? Why?

A

Dorsogluteal

High risk for sciatic nerve damage

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25
Q

When? Why? How?

Z-track injections

A

When? When medicine would burn or stain the skin
Why? To lock into the muscle
How? Stretch skin, give it, come out, let go

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26
Q

What does aspiration mean

A

Pulling back on the plunger

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27
Q

Why do you aspirate

A

Checking to see the tip of the needle is in a vein

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28
Q

What do you tell patient if syringe turns bright red

A

I wasn’t able to give you your med and when patient ask why say as nurses we pull back syringe and it was in vein so I pulled it back to protect you

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29
Q

What is difference between tier 1 and tier 2

A

Tier 1 is used for everybody and only certain people get tier 2

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30
Q

What do standard precautions include? What is not included?

A

Includes blood and body fluids and sweat and tears are not included

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31
Q

What must patient with contact isolation have?

A

Private room

Nurse wears a cover gown and gloves when in room

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32
Q

What is droplet isolation?

A

Focuses on diseases transmitted by large droplets that are expelled 3-6 feet
Standard precautions if nurse within 3 feet

Examples: flu, pneumonia, mumps

Must have private room

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33
Q

If you sneeze it goes ____ to _____ feet

A

3-5 feet

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34
Q

What are airborne precautions

A

Diseases that are transmitted by smaller droplets that remain in the air for longer periods of time

Examples: TB, measles, chicken pox

Private negative pressure rooms required

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35
Q

What is a negative pressure room

A

Room is like a vacuum , air flows into room but can’t flow out

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36
Q

What is protective (reverse) isolation

A

Focuses on protecting patients who are immuno compromised from coming in contact with our germs

Ex: HIV, neutropenic cancer patients

Private positive pressure

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37
Q

What does a positive pressure room mean

A

When you open door air can come out but can’t come in

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38
Q

What order do you put on PPE

A

Gown
Mask
Eye protection
Gloves

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39
Q

How do you protect a patients safety before giving care

A

Need 2 patient identifiers and check allergies

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40
Q

How long do you do routine hand washing?

Contaminated hand washing?

A

Routine- 15 seconds

Contaminated- 1 full minute

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41
Q

After how many hand gels must you wash hands

A

4

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42
Q

Is it ok to write 3.0 ml ?

A

No. No trail zeros after a whole number

You should just write 3 ml

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43
Q

Legal guidelines for defining nursing practice and identifying the minimum acceptance of nursing care

A

Standards of care

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44
Q

Who sets the standards if care?

A

Every state

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45
Q

Nurse who does not meet appropriate standards of care can be held liable for …

A

Negligence

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46
Q

Commitment to include client in decisions

A

Autonomy

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47
Q

Taking positive actions to help others

A

Beneficence

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48
Q

Avoidance of harm or hurt

A

Nonmaleficence

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49
Q

Being fair, taking care of clients in the order they should be cared for

A

Justice

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50
Q

Agreement to keep promises

A

Fidelity

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51
Q

aspect of reality that people consciously sense or experience. In nursing, this includes caring, self-care, and client response to stress.

A

Phenomenon

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52
Q

can be simple or complex. They can related to an object or an event as a result of individual experiences. They are ideals. They are mental images.

A

Concept

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53
Q

Communicate the general meaning of a concept. Describe the activity necessary to measure concepts.

A

Definitions

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54
Q

Are taken for granted statements that explain the nature of the concepts, definitions, purpose, relationships and structure of a theory.

A

Assumptions

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55
Q

Are broad in scope, complex, and require specification through research. Does not provide guidelines for specific nursing interventions but provides the structural framework for broad and abstract ideas related to nursing.

A

Grand theories

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56
Q

More limited in scope and less abstract
They address a specific phenomenon and reflect practices of administration, clinical interventions, or teaching.
These types of theories cross different nursing fields and reflect a wide variety of nursing care situations such as uncertainty, incontinence, social support, quality of life, and caring.

A

Middle-ranged theories

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57
Q

The first level of theory development.
They describe phenomena, speculate on why phenomena occur, and describe the consequences of phenomena.
These theories do not direct specific nursing activities but help to explain client assumptions.

A

Descriptive theories

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58
Q

Address nursing interventions for a phenomenon and predict the consequence of a specific nursing intervention.
In nursing, this type of theory designates the nursing intervention, the condition under which the nursing intervention occurs, and the consequences of the intervention.
These theories guide nursing research to develop and test specific nursing interventions.

A

Prescriptive theories

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59
Q

the study of phenomena that are difficult to quantify or categorize. The information obtained is from written transcripts or interviews

A

Qualitative research

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60
Q

The three most common types of qualitative research are :

A

1) Ethnographic
2) Phenomenological
3) Grounded theory.

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61
Q

approaches offer precise measurement. Acceptable types of research

1) Historical
2) Exploratory
3) Evaluative
4) Descriptive
5) Experimental
6) Correlational.

A

Quantitative research

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62
Q

What does PICOT stand for

A
Patient population 
Intervention
Comparison 
Outcomes 
Time period
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63
Q

Five steps to evidence-based practice

A
  1. Ask the clinical question
  2. Collect the best evidence
  3. Critique the evidence
  4. Integrate the evidence
  5. Evaluate the practice decision or change
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64
Q

The most reliable and objective means of acquiring and conducting research

A

Scientific method

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65
Q

What are the 4 components of evidence-based practice

A
  1. Evidence from research, evidence-based theories, clinical experts , and opinion leaders
  2. Evidence from assessment of clients history and physical and available health care resources
  3. Clinical expertise
  4. Information about client preferences and values
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66
Q

Explain a phenomenon

A

Theory

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67
Q

What do nursing theories provide nurses with

A
  1. Perspective to view clients situations
  2. A way to organize data
  3. A method to analyze and interpret information
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68
Q

3 components of a theory

A

Concepts
Definitions
Assumptions or propositions

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69
Q

What are the 5 C’s

A
Compassion
Competence 
Confidence
Conscience 
Commitment
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70
Q

Leininger

All cultures being aware of different cultures boundaries

A

Transcultural caring

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71
Q

Watson

Being a person

A

Transpersonal caring

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72
Q

Swanson

You take the things that will help the patient become well and also have knowledge about patient, QSEN

A

Nurturing care

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73
Q

What is QSEN

A

Quality and safety education for nurses

Keeping patient safe enabling a patient to gain knowledge. Maintaining a belief and working with their belief system

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74
Q

The nurse doesn’t look at the patient as CHF in 205 , the nurse looks as them as a whole. What theory of caring is this?

A

Transpersonal caring

Watson

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75
Q

What is something the nurse could do to give the patient some control

A

Give patient choices

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76
Q

What does comorbidities mean

A

More or more disease that are occurring with the primary disease

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77
Q

Nursing process paper can also be called what

A

Care plan

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78
Q

What is adequate urine output per hour

A

30 ml/hour

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79
Q

A statement that describes the clients actual or potential response to a health problem that the nurse can treat

A

Nursing diagnosis

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80
Q

aeb

A

As evidenced by

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81
Q

Common language for understanding the clients need

A

NANDA

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82
Q

Goals must be __________

A

Measurable

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83
Q

What can physicians and advanced practice nurses do

A

Prescribe meds

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84
Q

What does a standing order mean

A

Carried out until cancelled by the physician

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85
Q

PRN orders

A

Means give as needed

86
Q

STAT order

A

Immediate, emergency

87
Q

Now order

A

Within 90 minutes; very important

88
Q

If a nurse takes a verbal order what needs to be done

A

Nurse writes order and reads it back to physican, must be signed within 24 hours by physician

89
Q

What should you do if you get a order and it is not complete

A

Not give it. All components must be present
Patients full name and ID number, date and time when written, medication name, medication dose, route of administration, frequency, specific instructions, signature

90
Q

Six rights

A
Right patient
Right route
Right time
Right medication
Right dose
Right documentation
91
Q

When are medications discontinued

A

After surgery, transfer to another unit, or discharge from hospital

Must have a new order to continue!

92
Q

How many time should you check label

A

3
When taking from drawer
During preparation
Before returning to drawer or throwing package away at bedside

93
Q

What does “on time” mean

A

Within 90 minutes of scheduled time

94
Q

Can a patient refuse a medication

A

Yes!

Nurse determines reason, tries to facilitate taking med, document and inform appropriate person

95
Q

Should you put in chart you filled a incident report?

A

NEVER!

You should just file the report within 24 hours

96
Q

Chemical or official name

A

Generic name

97
Q

Brand- manufacturer choices

A

Trade name

98
Q

What is Islets of Langerhans

A

Hormone secreting portion of the pancreas

99
Q

What converts glycogen to glucose

A

Glucagon

100
Q

Primary regulator of metabolism and storage carbohydrate, fats, proteins

A

Insulin

101
Q

Responds to low level of blood glucose; protein indigestion; exercise

A

Glucagon

102
Q

What is secreted in conjunction of insulin in response to food intake

A

Amylin

103
Q

What is normal blood glucose

A

70-110 mg/dl

104
Q

What does insulin do

A

Takes glucose out of blood and into a cell

105
Q

What are 3 stimulus for release of insulin

A

High blood glucose
Vagal stimulation
Increased amino acid levels

106
Q

What does blood glucose do during exercise

A

Decreases

107
Q

What is hypokalemia

A

Low potassium in the blood

Won’t want insulin made because insulin will pull potassium back into the cell.

108
Q

Why are we concerned about a low hypokalemia?

A

Hypokalemia- potassium in the blood

Concerned because we can start getting dysrhythmias

109
Q

What are counter regulatory hormones

A

Oppose the effect of insulin

110
Q

Are sugar cells big or small

A

Big

111
Q

What is ketosis

A

Body begins to metabolize fats-ketones

112
Q

What is it called when hydrogen ions replace sodium

A

Acidosis

113
Q

What are the 3 Ps

A

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Polyphagia

114
Q

What is BUN ?
What does it have to deal with?
What’s normal?

A

Blood urea nitrogen
Has to do with kidney function
7 to 20 mg/dL

115
Q

What does the lack of insulin have on protein

A

Increased protein breakdown
Increased amino acids
Increased BUN
Increased phosphate and sodium LOSS

116
Q

What does lack of insulin have on fats

A

Increased fat breakdown
Hyperlipidemia
Increased ketones
Ketonuria

117
Q

What are the symptoms of prediabetes

A

Usually NO symptoms

118
Q

What is fasting glucose range for prediabetes

A

100-125 mg/dl

119
Q

What are the 3 preventive measures for prediabetes

A

Diet
Exercise
Weight control

120
Q

How do you increase your HDL

A

Exercise

121
Q

What are the components of metabolic syndrome
Waist circumstance greater than ____ in women and _____ in men
Triglycerides greater than ______ mg/dl or ___________
HDL less than _____ mg/dl in women and _____ mg/dl in men
BP greater than ______ mm/Hg diastolic or ______ mm/Hg systolic
Fasting glucose greater than ______ mg/dl or ___________
UNDERLYING FACTOR=_________________

A

Waist circumstance greater than 35 inches in women and 40 inches in men
Triglycerides greater than 150 mg/dl or taking drug to treat
HDL less than 40 mg/dl in women and 50 mg/dl in men
BP greater than 130 mm/Hg diastolic or 85 mm/Hg systolic
Fasting glucose greater than 110 mg/dl or taking drug to treat
UNDERLYING FACTOR=insulin resistance

122
Q

What is diabetes?

A

Inability of body to use insulin or inability of body to produce insulin

123
Q

Characteristics of Type 1 diabetes

A
Not making insulin 
Onset when less than 30
Long preclinical period with sudden onset
Autoimmune process that destroys B-cells
Always treat with insulin
Also treat with diet and exercise
124
Q

Characteristics of type 2 diabetes

A

Body making some insulin
Slow onset- vague symptoms
Affected by obesity
Treat with diet, exercise, oral agents, sometimes with insulin
Usually complications start happening before patient even knows they are diabetic

125
Q

Annual cost of diabetes ________

Total prevalence __________

A

174 billion dollars

23.6 million adults and children

126
Q

What is a normal Anion gap?

What does it mean if it is above normal?

A

Normal between 1-17

If greater than 17 means DKA

127
Q

What is Kussmaul respiration

A

Rapid, deep breathing

Trying to blow off acidity

128
Q

What are clinical manifestations of DKA

A

Dehydration, tachycardia, orthostatic hypotension(depleted blood volume), abdominal pain-anorexia, Kussmaul respirations, acetone breath
pH less than 7.3, bicarb less than 15 mEq/L, + ketones in urine and blood

129
Q

What is HbgA1C

A

Looks at blood glucose over past 3 months

130
Q

What is diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Profound lack of insulin leading to profound hyperglycemia
-ketosis, acidosis, dehydration
Generally caused by something else (stress,illness, infection, etc)

131
Q

What does blood sugar do with infection

A

Increases

132
Q

Why are IV fluids a treatment of diabetes at times

A

Glucose are large molecules in the blood that pull water and sodium from cells

133
Q

How long does a patient need to fast for a fasting blood glucose

A

4-6 hours

134
Q

How to diagnose diabetes

A

Fasting blood glucose greater than 126 mg/dL
Random BS > 200
3 P’s
Unexpected weight loss- body can’t use what you are taking in

135
Q

Other test to diagnosis diabetes
Oral glucose tolerance test =
HbgA1C=

A

Oral glucose tolerance test where glucose of 200 mg/dl 2 hours after 75 gram glucose overload
HbgA1C greater than 6.5%

136
Q

What is HHNS
Symptoms?
Treatment?

A

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome
Sx: Hyperglycemia greater than 400
Osmotic dieresis greater than 330
Extracellular fluid depletion- severe dehydration
No acetone

Tx:FLUIDS and insulin

137
Q

What is the best way to know what is going on with diabetic patient?

A

Check blood glucose!

138
Q

What is hypoglycemia?
Symptoms?
What happens if not treated?

A

Imbalance of food-insulin
Sx: HA, headache, dizziness, restlessness, cool-clammy skin, diaphoresis
If not treated can lead to cerebral hypoxia and death

139
Q

What is hypoglycemia treatment
If alert?
If unresponsive or unable to swallow?

A

Alert- 10-15 grams simple carbohydrate
4 oz OJ, 8 oz whole milk, crackers

If unresponsive or unable to swallow-

  • glucagon injection
  • 50% dextrose IVP ( 10-30% in children)
140
Q

Which type is a large vessel disease ?

What are causes?

A

Type 2
Increased incidence of arteriosclerosis
Causes cardiac, peripheral vascular, and cerebrovascular disease

141
Q

What type of diabetes is a small vessel disease?

Complications?

A

Type 1 and type 2

Retinopathy, neuropathy, renal failure

142
Q

What should you feel for around the heel of a diabetic patient

A

Mushy if you feel if get pressure off

143
Q

How long does it take a diabetic foot ulcer to start

A

Within 1 day if not checked

This is why you should look at a diabetics feet everyday without socks

144
Q

What is OPA

A

Onset
Peak
Action

145
Q

What is MOA

A

Mechanism of action

Different ways they work on your body

146
Q

Can you take insulin orally

A

No, not effective

147
Q

What should you look at when thinking about giving someone a insulin pump

A

Are the cognitively able

148
Q

Best place for a insulin injection

A

In abdomen because best absorption

149
Q

What does blood glucose do when body is under stress

A

Increases

150
Q

Two types of diabetic neuropathy and what falls in each

A

Sensory

  • sensory loss in extremity
  • paresthesia
  • ulceration

Autonomic

  • GI motility changes (food just sits in stomach which causes abdominal pain )
  • neurogenic bladder, incontinence, UTI
  • silent MI
  • inability to perceive low blood sugars
151
Q

What are the cultural variations that should be considered in order to be culturally competent

A

Health care
Birth
Death
Other life experiences

152
Q

The use of information technology a communication and gathering tool that supports clinical decision making and scientifically based nursing practice

A

Informatics

153
Q

Three domains of learning

A

Cognitive
-knowledge, comprehension, application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation
Affective
-expression of learning by role play or group discussions
Psychomotor
-acquisition of new skills , viewing a demonstration or practicing new skills

154
Q

What domain of leaning are you using when practicing giving an injection?

A

Psychomotor

155
Q

What are three appropriate sources for an evidenced based care plan?

A

CINAHL, MedlinePlus, OVID

156
Q

Source of body’s insulin

A

pancreatic B cells

157
Q

Within how many years will somebody with prediabetes develop type 2 diabetes if no preventive measures are taken

A

10 years

158
Q

How is insulin most commonly given

A

Subcutaneous injection

159
Q

What type route of insulin should be used if immediate onset action is desired

A

IV of regular insulin

160
Q

What may occur if the same injection site is used frequently

A

Lipodystrophy

161
Q

What May increased morning glucose levels be due to

A

Somogyi effect

This is a rebound caused by hypoglycemia during the night that stimulates a counter regulatory response

162
Q

What is caused by hyperglycemia that is present on awakening in the morning

A

Dawn phenomenon

Counter regulatory hormones are released in the predawn hours

163
Q
Rapid acting insulin 
Names
Starts:
Peaks: 
Lowers:
Finishes:
A

Humalog/Novolog
Starts: 5-15 mins (huma) , 10-20 (novo)
Peaks: 45-60 min (huma), 60-90 (novo)
Lowers: blood glucose most in 45-90 min (huma) , 1-3 hours (novo)
Finishes: 3-4 hours (huma), 3-5 hours (novo)

164
Q
Short acting insulin
Name
Starts:
Peaks: 
Lowers:
Finishes:
A
Regular
Starts: 30 mins
Peaks: about 2 hours
Lowers:blood glucose about 2-5 hours 
Finishes: 3-5 hours
165
Q

Intermediate acting insulin
Lente

Starts:
Peaks:
Lowers:
Finishes:

A

Starts: 1-3 hours
Peaks: about 4-6 hours
Lowers: blood glucose most 6-12 hours
Finishes: 16-24 hours

166
Q

Intermediate acting insulin
NPH

Starts:
Peaks:
Lowers:
Finishes:

A

Starts: 1-3 hours
Peaks: about 4-6 hours
Lowers: blood glucose most 6-12 hours
Finishes: 12-16 hours

167
Q

Long acting insulin
Names

Starts:
Peaks:
Lowers:
Finishes:

A
Lantus/Levemir
Starts: 1-2 hours 
Peaks: no peaks 
Lowers: blood glucose evenly 24 hours
Finishes: 24 hours
168
Q

How does a subcutaneous injection absorb

A

Slowly

169
Q

How is a subcutaneous injection given

A

Above muscle layer in fatty tissue
Average adult: 90* angle, 5/8 “ needle
Thin adult: 45* angle, 5/8 “ needle
Heavy adult: 90* angle, 1” needle

170
Q

General subq injection

What should you remember?

A

Isolate fat layer
90* angle
NO ASPIRATION- very few blood vessels not necessary
NO MASSAGE- want to be absorbed slowly

171
Q

What is Heparin subq injection
Site?
Only place?

A

Anticoagulant
LOWER ABDOMEN
can be given somewhere else of needed
NO aspiration, NO massage

172
Q

Why do you pick the lower abdomen as the site for Heparin?

A

Vulnerable to bleed in area you inject so that is why you pick lower abdomen because it is protected

173
Q

What is Lovenox injection?

A

Subq injection
Anticoagulant
Special syringes prefilled and air bubble not removed

174
Q

What must you do before and after meal before giving insulin

A

Check blood glucose

175
Q

Should you orate areas each time for an insulin injection?

A

No

You should stay in same site area and rotate within until you’ve used all the area and then you should rotate site

176
Q

What is the lower abdomen reserved for

A

Heparin

177
Q

How is a insulin syringe marked

A

Units not ml

178
Q

Should you aspirate and massage within insulin injection?

A

No you want it to be absorbed slowly

179
Q

Order for mixing insulins

A

Air in modified
Air in regular
Draw back regular
Draw back modified

180
Q

What must be done after mixing insulin

A

Another RN must check!

181
Q

Regular insulin=

Modified insulin=

A

Regular insulin= clear

Modified insulin= cloudy ( must rotate in hand to mix)

182
Q

What is sliding scale

A

Extra shot of insulin given when blood sugar increases unexpectedly
** only use Regular insulin

183
Q

What should you remember about a insulin pen

A

Mix and rotate it several times

184
Q

What is a Intradermal injection (ID)

A
Use Tuberculin (1ml) syringe 
15* angle 
Bevel up
Insert until bevel can't be seen 
Slow injection
Create a wheal
No massage! 
TB test is an example
185
Q

What are ampules

A

Glass
Protect fingers when breaking with alcohol pad
Draw up with FILTER NEEDLE
then attach injection needle

186
Q

To waste part of a narcotics dose what must you do

A

You have to be seen doing it

Find another RN to sign off with you

187
Q

What should you check with PRN meds

A

Check when last dose was given
Check frequency allowed
Record on medication record

In nurses notes record:

  • why did you give it
  • what was patients response
188
Q

If you stick yourself with a used needle in clinical what should you do

A

Wash area immediately
Report immediately to you clinical faculty person
Fill out agency incident repot immediately
Fill out Nursing Dept incident report within 24 hours

189
Q

What is treatment of HHNS

A

Fluids, fluids, fluids, and insulin

190
Q

AC

A

Before meals

191
Q

HC

A

Before bedtime

192
Q

PMH

A

Past medical history

193
Q

PES

A

Problem
-Actual or potential

Etiology

Signs and symptoms (if patient has signs and symptoms then it is a ACTUAL problem

194
Q

Does DKA occur with type 1 or type 2

A

Type 1

195
Q

HHNS occurs most often with somebody with …

A

Type 2

196
Q

What is the major difference between DKA and HHNS?

A

Ketosis and acidosis do not occur with HHNS, enough insulin is present with HHNS to prevent the breakdown of fats for energy, which prevents ketosis

197
Q
Normal AMGs
pH=
PaO2= 
PaCO2
HCO3=
A
Normal AMGs
pH= 7.35-7.45
PaO2= 80-100
PaCO2= 35-45
HCO3= 22-26
198
Q

What are 2 anticoagulant SC injections

A

Heparin and Lovenox

199
Q

What type of insulin do you give when blood sugar rises unexpectedly

A

Regular

200
Q

The 3 Ps are classic symptoms of what

A

Hyperglycemia

201
Q

What is the tx choice way or giving regular insulin to treat DKA

A

IV route

202
Q

When should pt on insulin be instructed to avoid exercise when ? Why?

A

Peak insulin time because that is when hypoglycemic reaction is likely to occur

203
Q

What is the honeymoon period of type 1 DM

A

Insulin works real well at first but then you may need more insulin over time

204
Q

What oral hypoglycemic agent stimulates the release of insulin

A

Sulfonylureas

205
Q

In which theory would QSEN fall under

A

Nurturing care

Swanson

206
Q

A civil wrong made against a person or property is known as

A

Tort

207
Q

Which type of theory addresses nursing interventions for the phenomenon

A

Prescriptive

208
Q

How does dehydration lead to tachycardia

A

The heart has to work harder to circulate blood

209
Q

Insulin can not be given what way

A

Orally

210
Q

Hoyle meal times be adjusted based on glucose levels?

A

No they should be at the same time each day

211
Q

Shakiness, palpations, and lightheadedness are signs of _______? Indicate_______?

A

Signs of hypoglycemia and indicate need for food or glucose

212
Q

Polyuria, blurred vision, and fruity breath odorants are signs of ________

A

DKA

213
Q

Best known standards of care come from the ______

A

ANA