Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscle separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity?

A

Diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which projection is usually included in an acute abdominal series?

A

PA chest
AP with patient supine
AP with patient upright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does the central ray (CR) enter for the anteroposterior (AP) projection, erect position of the abdomen?

A

Two inches above the iliac crest, midsagittal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what aspect is not demonstrated in the anteroposterior (AP) projection, supine position of the abdomen?

A

Free air and free fluid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is a lateral decubitus image of the abdomen ordered?

A

To visualize air-fluid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph included in the three-view abdominal series?

A

Visualize free intraperitoneal air under the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During an air- contrast barium enema, which projection or position best demonstrates the right colic flexure and the ascending and sigmoid portion of the colon?

A

Left posterior oblique (LPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In what view is an opaque foreign body visualize in the proximal portion of the esophagus?

A

Soft tissue neck
Lateral cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the central ray directed for a 15 to 30 minute posteroanterior projection of a small bowl series?

A

About 2 inches above the iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The patient is ready to start a double-contrast esophagram. After taking a scout film, what is the next step the radiographer should take?

A

Direct the patient to ingest carbon dioxide crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The discovery of x-rays occurred in what year?

A

1895

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is leakage radiation?

A

Radiation emitted by the x-ray tube through the tube housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the unit of measurement for the radiation-absorbed dose?

A

Gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During which stage of life cycle of a human cell is the cell most radiosensitive?

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of these are stochastic effects of radiation exposure? Select all
Cancer
Leukemia
Genetic effects
Hematologic syndrome
Central nervous system syndrome

A

Cancer
Leukemia
Genetic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of these statements are true with respect to deterministic effects of radiation? Select all
These effects are manifested slowly
These effects are early effects of radiation
These effects are observed over long period
These effects exhibit increasing severity with increasing dose
These effects are observed with exposure to high dose of radiation

A

These effects are early effects of radiation
These effects exhibit increasing severity with increasing dose
These effects are observed with exposure to high dose of radiation

17
Q

What is the unit used to measure the amount of energy absorbed in any medium?

A

Radiation absorbed dose (rad)

18
Q

What is the genetic doubling dose?

A

The radiation dose that produces twice the frequency of mutations that would have otherwise occurred naturally

19
Q

What is the genetically significant dose (GSD)?

A

The gonad dose that would produce a total genetic effects on the population as the sum of individual dose received.

20
Q

What are the specific somatic effects of long-term radiation? Select all
Carcinogenesis
Cataract formation
Bone marrow syndrome
Gastrointestinal syndrome
Central nervous syndrome

A

Carcinogenesis
Cataract formation

21
Q

Which characteristic of a radiographic image refers to the ability to image small objects that have high contrast?

A

Spatial resolution

22
Q

Which function of digital image postprocessing helps improve image contrast in by removing structures to make other structures more visible?

A

Subtraction

23
Q

What can a radiologic technologist do to reduce focal spot blur?

A

Use a small focal spot

24
Q

Which term is used to describe a numerical value that is representative of the exposure that the image receptor has received?

A

Exposure indicator

25
Q

Which artifact is unique to digital radiography?

A

Pixel faliure

26
Q

Which action by a radiologic technologist is most likely to result in a complaint of assault?

A

Threatened the patient by saying that a panful examination will be repeated.

27
Q

What is the most likely reason for loss of contrast and loss of distinct images in an image?
Excessive exposure
Decrease KvP
Magnification of the image
Insufficient emission of light

A

Excessive exposure

28
Q

Government statutes to protect people form discrimination are based on what?

A

Age
Disability
Ethnicity or race

29
Q

Which word defines action to benefit others?

A

Beneficence

30
Q

Which statement describes the legal theory of respondent superior?

A

The employer is responsible for the employee’s actions

31
Q

Informed consent requires that the patient be given enough information to make educated decision about his or her health care. The information the patient needs to make this decision would include what?

A

Risk, benefits, alternatives and how the procedure will be preformed

32
Q

What does principle * of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist (ARRT) Code of Ethics states?

A

The radiologic technologist practices ethical conduct appropriate to the profession

33
Q

After performing a radiologic examination, A radiologic technologist transfers a patient back to the cart but forgets to raise the side rails. While moving, the patient fall off the cart and suffers a hip fracture. What is this an example of in terms of the radiologic technologist’s behavior?

A

Negligence

34
Q

A patient consents to a procedure in the radiology department, but after it has started, he decides that he does not want to procedure completed. What should the radiologic technologist do?

A

Stop the procedure as soon as it is safe to do so

35
Q

A patient claims, “I lost my job when the radiologic technologist revealed to my boss that I have AIDS.” What is the category of this radiologic technologist’s action?

A

Defamation

36
Q

Which statement is true regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)?

A

It calls for the standardization of electronic data interchange.

37
Q
A