Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ARRT Review > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscle separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity?

A

Diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which projection is usually included in an acute abdominal series?

A

PA chest
AP with patient supine
AP with patient upright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where does the central ray (CR) enter for the anteroposterior (AP) projection, erect position of the abdomen?

A

Two inches above the iliac crest, midsagittal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what aspect is not demonstrated in the anteroposterior (AP) projection, supine position of the abdomen?

A

Free air and free fluid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is a lateral decubitus image of the abdomen ordered?

A

To visualize air-fluid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why is a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph included in the three-view abdominal series?

A

Visualize free intraperitoneal air under the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

During an air- contrast barium enema, which projection or position best demonstrates the right colic flexure and the ascending and sigmoid portion of the colon?

A

Left posterior oblique (LPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In what view is an opaque foreign body visualize in the proximal portion of the esophagus?

A

Soft tissue neck
Lateral cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the central ray directed for a 15 to 30 minute posteroanterior projection of a small bowl series?

A

About 2 inches above the iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The patient is ready to start a double-contrast esophagram. After taking a scout film, what is the next step the radiographer should take?

A

Direct the patient to ingest carbon dioxide crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The discovery of x-rays occurred in what year?

A

1895

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is leakage radiation?

A

Radiation emitted by the x-ray tube through the tube housing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the unit of measurement for the radiation-absorbed dose?

A

Gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During which stage of life cycle of a human cell is the cell most radiosensitive?

A

Mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of these are stochastic effects of radiation exposure? Select all
Cancer
Leukemia
Genetic effects
Hematologic syndrome
Central nervous system syndrome

A

Cancer
Leukemia
Genetic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of these statements are true with respect to deterministic effects of radiation? Select all
These effects are manifested slowly
These effects are early effects of radiation
These effects are observed over long period
These effects exhibit increasing severity with increasing dose
These effects are observed with exposure to high dose of radiation

A

These effects are early effects of radiation
These effects exhibit increasing severity with increasing dose
These effects are observed with exposure to high dose of radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the unit used to measure the amount of energy absorbed in any medium?

A

Radiation absorbed dose (rad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the genetic doubling dose?

A

The radiation dose that produces twice the frequency of mutations that would have otherwise occurred naturally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the genetically significant dose (GSD)?

A

The gonad dose that would produce a total genetic effects on the population as the sum of individual dose received.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the specific somatic effects of long-term radiation? Select all
Carcinogenesis
Cataract formation
Bone marrow syndrome
Gastrointestinal syndrome
Central nervous syndrome

A

Carcinogenesis
Cataract formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which characteristic of a radiographic image refers to the ability to image small objects that have high contrast?

A

Spatial resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which function of digital image postprocessing helps improve image contrast in by removing structures to make other structures more visible?

A

Subtraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can a radiologic technologist do to reduce focal spot blur?

A

Use a small focal spot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which term is used to describe a numerical value that is representative of the exposure that the image receptor has received?

A

Exposure indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which artifact is unique to digital radiography?

A

Pixel faliure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which action by a radiologic technologist is most likely to result in a complaint of assault?

A

Threatened the patient by saying that a panful examination will be repeated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most likely reason for loss of contrast and loss of distinct images in an image?
Excessive exposure
Decrease KvP
Magnification of the image
Insufficient emission of light

A

Excessive exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Government statutes to protect people form discrimination are based on what?

A

Age
Disability
Ethnicity or race

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which word defines action to benefit others?

A

Beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which statement describes the legal theory of respondent superior?

A

The employer is responsible for the employee’s actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Informed consent requires that the patient be given enough information to make educated decision about his or her health care. The information the patient needs to make this decision would include what?

A

Risk, benefits, alternatives and how the procedure will be preformed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does principle * of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist (ARRT) Code of Ethics states?

A

The radiologic technologist practices ethical conduct appropriate to the profession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

After performing a radiologic examination, A radiologic technologist transfers a patient back to the cart but forgets to raise the side rails. While moving, the patient fall off the cart and suffers a hip fracture. What is this an example of in terms of the radiologic technologist’s behavior?

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A patient consents to a procedure in the radiology department, but after it has started, he decides that he does not want to procedure completed. What should the radiologic technologist do?

A

Stop the procedure as soon as it is safe to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A patient claims, “I lost my job when the radiologic technologist revealed to my boss that I have AIDS.” What is the category of this radiologic technologist’s action?

A

Defamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which statement is true regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPPA)?

A

It calls for the standardization of electronic data interchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What Projection demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses?

A

Lateral (R or L position)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why should projection of the sinuses be performed with the patient in the upright position?

A

To demonstrate air-fluid levels in any
To differentiate between fluid and other pathological conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where does the central ray (CR) enter for a lateral projection of the facial bones?

A

Midway between outer and external auditory meatus (EAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Before attempting a submentovertex (SMV) projection of the skull on a trauma patient, What must be ruled out?

A

Fractures of the subluxation of the cervical spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where is the CR directed for a AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull?

A

Through the foramen magnum at a caudal angle of 30 degrees to the orbitomeatal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the angle of the CR when a PA projection of the skull is performed?

A

Perpendicular to the IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which bone is best demonstrated in the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull?

A

Occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What projection requires the patient to be supine, The sagittal plane of the skull perpendicular to the IR, the orbitomeatal line perpendicular to the IR, and the CR angles 30 degrees caudad?

A

AP axial projection (Towne method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the purpose of image compression in digital radiography?

A

Easy file transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What term in digital imaging is used to describe the process the computer uses to produce a uniform brightness and contrast regardless of the exposure?

A

Automatic rescaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the functions of the anode?

A

Receiving electrons emitted by the cathode
Providing mechanical support for the target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the consequence of using additional lead int eh grid?

A

Increases radiation dose to the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the role of positive beam limitation (PBL)?

A

To ensure the x-ray exposure field is no larger than the receptor size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which component maintains a vacuum inside the x-ray tube?

A

Glass encloser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which material is used for the enclosure of the x-ray tube?

A

Pyrex glass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the function of the autotransformer?

A

Supplying a precise voltage to the filament circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the characteristic of a single-phase generator?

A

The overall capacity is less for a single-phase to a high frequency generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which type of power generators are used to produce the maximum quality of x ray image?

A

High frequency generators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the functions of a bucky mechanism in a imaging system?

A

It increases the contrast in image, avoids grid lines on image, decreases scatter reaching IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which step is part of the self-gloving process using a closed technique?

A

Start gloving after donning a sterile gown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the most frequently used sterilization technique?

A

Heat (moist heat, Autoclave)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are microorganisms that cause infectious diseases classified as?

A

Pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If a person is bitten by a mosquito and develops an infection, what type of transmission is that know as?

A

Vector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the best method of preventing the spread of aerosol infection?

A

The patient wearing a mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When should informed consent be obtained from the patient before proceeding with a radiographic examination?

A

To perform an invasive procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which data is subjective?
The patients’ heartbeat
Gray discoloration of skin
The patients lavatory report
Deep pain associated with an injury

A

Deep pain associated with an injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where does the central ray enter for an AP foot image?

A

Base of third metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What radiograph best demonstrates the medial condyles of the tibia and femur?

A

External oblique knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Why is a cephalic angle of 10 degrees used for an AP projection of the foot?

A

It prevents foreshortening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does the PA axial view of the knee best demonstrate?

A

Intercondylar fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the best projection to demonstrate the mortise joint?

A

Oblique ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What projection will show the femoropatellar joint space of the distal femur?

A

Tangential projection of the patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which projection is seen if the patient is in the dorsoplantar projection for a foot image?

A

AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How should the foot be positioned for a Ap projection of the ankle?

A

Dorsiflexed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Where should the CR be directed for a lateral calcaneus radiograph?

A

One inch distal to medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which CR angulation should be used for an AP projection of the toes?

A

10 - 15 degree towards the calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which are symptoms of hyperglycemia? Select all that apply.
Shakiness
Frequent urination
Dryness of mucosa
Excessive sweating
Chest pain radiating to left arm

A

Frequent urination
Dryness of mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which device can be classified as a high-flow oxygen delivery device?

A

Air-entrainment mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A patient suffering from hypoglycemia needs which of the following?

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which is typically associated with shock?

A

Decreased blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which is the most likely pulse rate of a patient with bradycardia?

A

50 beats/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the most likely respiratory rate of an adult with tachypnea?

A

30 breathes/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which term refers to the abnormal increase in the breathing rate of a patient?

A

Tachypnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

While performing a contrast study using iodinated contrast media on a patient the radiographer observes that the patient is sweating profusely, wheezing, and complains that their throat feels like it is “closing up”. What action should the radiographer take?

A

Informe the radiologist and nursing staff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which type of shock is a patient experiencing if he or she develops a allergic reaction after being administer an iodinated constant medium?

A

Vasogenic shock

82
Q

Which is the best example of a cardinal principle of radiation protection?

A

Minimize the exposure time

83
Q

Which component of the x-ray equipment is used to decrease the entrance skin dose of radiation?
Grid
Collimators
Intensifiers
Cathode tube

A

Collimators

84
Q

What characteristics of fluoroscopic equipment are associated with duration of exposure? Select all that apply.
Collimator
Foot pedal
Pressure switch
Bucky slot cover
Cumulative timer

A

Foot pedal
Pressure switch
Cumulative timer

85
Q

Which is a characteristic of digital radiographic image receptors?

A

They are associated with reduced patient dose

86
Q

What is the result of incorporating additional lead strips in a grid?

A

Increases patient dose

87
Q

Which action is most beneficial in controlling occupational radiation exposure during a fluoroscopic procedure?

A

The radiologic technologist should ensure the use of lead curtains on the equipment

88
Q

How can a radiologic technologist reduce occupational exposure to radiation while performing mobile radiography?

A

By wearing an apron, maintain max distance, directing primary beam only toward the patient

89
Q

What are the advantages of optically stimulated luminescence dosimetry over thermoluminescence dosimetry?

A

It has increased sensitivity
It can be reanalyzed for confirmation of dose
It provides qualitative information about exposure

90
Q

What class of drug is diphenhydramine(Benadryl)?

A

Antihistamine

91
Q

Which contrast media are radiopaque?

A

Diatrizoate
Barium sulfate
Iodized solution

92
Q

What is true regarding an x-ray photon?

A

The wavelength of an x ray photon is measured similar to that of any other electromagnetic energy

93
Q

Which is the term used to refer to the distance between two crest of two troughs in a sine wave?

A

Wavelength

94
Q

The quantity of electrons for x-ray exposure is determined by the mAs. How is the calculated?

A

Multiplying the milliamperage by the exposure time

95
Q

What happens during x-ray attenuation?

A

Some x-ray are absorbed, and the others are scattered

96
Q

Which term refers to the total radiation that exist from the patient during exposure and strikes the recepto?

A

Remnant radiation

97
Q

What is a penumbra?

A

It is fuzzy of an object as imaged radiographically

98
Q

Why does a radiologic technologist use the small focal spot while performing radiographic examination?

A

To obtain the details of small bones

99
Q

Which can reduce distortion?

A

Proper alignment of the IR

100
Q

How does high Kilovolt peak affect the x-ray beam?

A

It results in higher energy

101
Q

A 15% increase in which factor doubles exposure to the IR?

A

kVp

102
Q

What is the function of milliampere-seconds?

A

Control of the quantity of x-ray photons

103
Q

Where should the CR enter for an oblique projection of the lumbar spine?

A

L4

104
Q

Which structure, if present, indicates the patient was positioned incorrectly for a lateral thoracic spine?

A

Zygapophyseal joints

105
Q

Where does the CR enter for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine?

A

L4

106
Q

What are the angle and directions of the CR used for a standard AP image of the cervical spine?

A

15-20 degree, cepahlic

107
Q

Identify which patient is most likely to require an 8-degree caudal angle for a lateral protection of the lumbar spine.

A

An adult female with a narrow waist and wide hips

108
Q

Which projection uses the occlusal place as a positing landmark?

A

Odontoid process

109
Q

Which are special pelvic projection?

A

Posterior oblique acetabulum
AP axial outlet projection
PA axial oblique acetabulum

110
Q

At which point should the CR be directed in an AP pelvic projection?

A

Midway between the level of the anterior superior iliac spine and the symphysis pubis

111
Q

Why might upright PA and lateral projections of the chest be added to a rib series?

A

Trauma to the ribs may result in injury to the respiratory system

112
Q

What is the proper procedure for performing a lateral projection of the sternum?

A

Adjust the patient in a true lateral position
Have patient suspend deep respiration
Rotate the shoulder back and have the patient lock hands being back.

113
Q

Where should the IR be placed for the AP projection of the lower ribs?

A

The bottom of the IR should be at the level of the iliac crest

114
Q

For which projection of the chest should the sagittal plane be parallel with the IR?

A

Lateral projection

115
Q

Why is a left lateral projection of the chest preferable of the right lateral?

A

Left side reduced magnification of the heart

116
Q

What is the proper evaluation criterion pertaining to the AP oblique projection of the ribs?

A

Axillary portion of the ribs of interest should be free of superimposition

117
Q

For a PA projection of the chest, where is the CR directed?

A

Perpendicular to T7

118
Q

What projection is used to visualize the apices of the lungs?

A

AP axial chest

119
Q

Which projection of the shoulder demonstrates the greater tuberosity in profile?

A

AP with external rotation

120
Q

A radiograph of a hand shows a fracture of the fifth metacarpal neck, which type of fracture has occured?

A

Boxers’ fracture

121
Q

Which method best shows the joint space between the humeral head and the glenoid cavity of the shoulder joint?

A

Grashey method

122
Q

How can the radiographer demonstrate the lesser tubercle in profile on a humerus exam?

A

Position the patient arm in the lateral position

123
Q

From lateral to medial, how would the carpal bones be viewed on a PA image of the wrist?

A

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

124
Q

Which joints are included on a humerus radiographs?

A

Humeroulnar
Humeroradial

125
Q

What best seen in the horizontal beam lateral projection of the humerus?

A

Lateral midhumerus

126
Q

When does automatic exposure control terminate the x-ray exposure?

A

At the proper exposure of the IR

127
Q

What type of biological radiation response usually follows high-dose radiation exposure and appears as an early response?

A

Deterministic effects

128
Q

What type of biological radiation response usually follows low radiation exposure and appears as a late radiation response years later?

A

Stochastic effects

129
Q

Radiation-induced cancer, leukemia, and genetic effects follow what type of dose-response relationship?

A

Linear- nonthreshold

130
Q

Skin effects resulting from high-dose fluro follow which type of dose- response relationship?

A

Sigmoid-type

131
Q

Linear energy transfer (LET) is a measure of the rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to which?

A

Soft tissue

132
Q

What medical condition was perhaps the first observed biologic response to radiation exposure?

A

Erythema

133
Q

What type of blood cells are the first to become affected after exposure to radiation?

A

Lymphocytes

134
Q

Which term refers to the period after initial radiation sickness in which a period of apparent well-being occurs?

A

Laten period

135
Q

If the dose to the lens of the eye is high enough, in excess of approximately 10 Gy (1000 rad), which medical condition will develop in nearly all of those who are irradiated?

A

Cataracts

136
Q

What is true regarding contrast?

A

It is difference between adjacent densities on a radiographic image that is controlled by window width.

137
Q

Placing the marker in which location is contraindicated because the marker is likely to be distorted on the image?

A

Directly on the body part

138
Q

What is the minimum source-to-skin-distance (SSD) for a stationary fluro unite?

A

38 cm

139
Q

Which combination of kVp and mA and seconds will create the greatest patient exposure?

A

90 kVp 200 mA 0.07 seconds

140
Q

What is the minimum required aluminum (AI) filtration in radiographic tube operating over 70 kVp?

A

2.5 mm AI

141
Q

In keeping with ALARA what imaging modality offers the lower radiation dose to obtain a diagnosis?

A

MRI

142
Q

In order to keep radiation doses to a minimum, how many views per chest x ryas exam are advised?

A

Two views

143
Q

When the upper extremities are examined, especially when the patient is in the seated position, care should be taken that the useful beam does not intercept what body part?

A

Gonads

144
Q

Which projection best demonstrated contrast in the intertubercular groove?

A

Tangential

145
Q

Which is recommended for a pregnant radiologic technologist?

A

Wear second dosimeter under the lead apron at the waist level

146
Q

Occupational radiation monitoring is required when it is possible the individual will receive more than what dose?

A

5 mSv/yr

147
Q

Which type of personnel radiation monitor can provide an immediate dose reading?

A

Pocket dosimeter

148
Q

Which is the most effective measure to reduce occupational exposure?

A

Distance

149
Q

Which factors must be considered in determining the thickness of a radiation barrier?

A

Working factor
Occupancy factor
Energy of the beam

150
Q

Who is most likely to be recommended to hold a pediatric patient during a radiographic examination?

A

Father of pediatric patient

151
Q

What is the minimum permissible amount of lead equivalency for lead aprons used when peak kilovoltage is 100?

A

0.25mm

152
Q

The NRC regulation requires that a personnel monitor be used if the declared pregnant radiologic technologist could potentially receive what percentage of the embryo or fetal dose limit?

A

10%

153
Q

What type of x-ray result when the target atom is ionized through total removal of an inner-shell electron?

A

Characteristic x-ray

154
Q

What do you call the process put into place when PACS is deemed to be not functioning?

A

Downtime Procedure

155
Q

How does improper part-central ray alignment affect the image?

A

Distortion

156
Q

What type of exposure technique are ideal for barium work to ensure adequate penetration of the barium?

A

High kV technique

157
Q

Which is the most significant advantage of a fixed kVp technique chart?

A

Proper penetration

158
Q

Which imaging exams would most likely use a technique of 85 kVp and 15 mAs for an adult?

A

Lateral skull

159
Q

Upon which type of patient are radiographic technique charts based?

A

Sthenic

160
Q

Which describes the effect of an increase in matrix size on digital image quality?

A

Increase in spatial resolution

161
Q

Which is the most common safety feature of an AEC system?

A

Backup timer

162
Q

What is the shortest exposure time that an AEC system can produce?

A

Minimum response time

163
Q

After an image is produced using AEC, how can the radiographer determine the total quantity of radiation used to produce the iamge?

A

Check the mAs readout

164
Q

Which set of exposure factors would yield the least amount fo scatter produced?

A

100 mAs 75 kVp 40 in SID 16:1 grid 8 x 12 field size

165
Q

If the patient is positioned for examination when the x ray tube is not centered to the table or Bucky tray, what type of artifacts may occur?

A

Grid cutoff artifacts

166
Q

What is the relative biologic effectiveness (RBE) of 250 kV x rays?

A

1.0

167
Q

Which malignant tumor are very radiosensitive?

A

Seminoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma

168
Q

What are the most radiosensitive cells in the body?

A

Lymphocytes
Spermatogonia

169
Q

Which is (are) required to be included in a patient’s health record?

A

Medical history
Radiology report
Physical examination report

170
Q

What is the significance of res ipsa loquitur?

A

It switches the burden of proof from plaintiff to the defendant

171
Q

Professional ethics can be be defined by what?

A

A common concern for collective self-discipline

172
Q

What projection of the skull requires the CR to be centered to exit at the galbella?

A

PA

173
Q

What effect is observed in a digital radiographic image after window and level adjusmtn?

A

Amplified image contrast

174
Q

What is a histogram?

A

It is a plot between frequencies of occurrence versus the digital value of each pixel

175
Q

Which are characteristic of tungsten?

A

It has a high melting point, high atomic number and high efficiency x ray production

176
Q

How many heat units are generated if the fluoro examination is performed with a single phase imaging system operated at 60 kVp and 2.1 mA for 4 min?

A

30,240 HU

177
Q

What isthe function of the thin film transistor (TFT) array?

A

Isolating each pixel element
Sending electrical charges to the image processor

178
Q

Which is a type of indirect transmission? Select all that apply
Vector
Fomite
Aerosol
Touching
coughing

A

Vector
Fomite

179
Q

Where does the patella move when the knee is flexed when using the Hughston method

A

Intercondylar sclcus

180
Q

Which interventions are beneficial of a patient who has anxiety, mild erythema, and a warm flush sensation after the administration of a contrast medium?

A

Reassure the patient
Provide a cool wash cloth
instruct the patient to breath slowly

181
Q

How is electrical potential energy measured in radiology?

A

Electron cold (eV)

182
Q

A radiographer is performing a PA projection of the stomach during an upper gastrointestinal (GI) exam. The patient has an asthenic body habitus. Where should the CR enter for the patient?

A

Two inches below L1

183
Q

How can magnification be minimized in a radiographic procedure?

A

Use a large SID

184
Q

Which factor influence Distortion?

A

SID

185
Q

What will happen if the SID is increased?

A

It will increase image sharpness

186
Q

What is the advantage of the line focus principle?

A

It improves heat capacity and spatial resolution

187
Q

What is the correct CR angle and direction for PA oblique projection of the cervical spine?

A

15 degree caudal

188
Q

Where does the CR enter for an L5/S1 lateral projection of the lumbar spine?

A

Two inches posterior to the anterior superior iliac spine and 1.5 inches inferior to the iliac crest

189
Q

The radiographer evaluates the image of a lateral projection of the thoracic spine. Levels T1-T3 are not well demonstrated. What should the radiographer do next?

A

Accept the image as appropriate

190
Q

Describe the general central ray orientation to the femur for an axiolateral projection of the hip.

A

Perpendicular to the femoral neck

191
Q

What results are seen when the entire leg is rotated 15 to 20 degrees medially for an AP projection of the hip?

A

Little to non of the lesser trochanter is visible

192
Q

Where is the CR directed in an AP axial inlet projection of the pelvis?

A

Midline point at the level of the anterior superior iliac spine

193
Q

What breathing technique should be used to reduce lung markings over the sternum?

A

Shallow breathing with a long exposure time

194
Q

What are the differences between an oblique elbow image and an AP elbow image?

A

The radial head is seen in the oblique image: radial head is not seen in the AP image.
The oblique image of the elbow shows the radius and ulna separated: AP image shows the radius and ulna superimposed

195
Q

A patient has a dislocated glenohumeral joint. Which recumbent position is used to image this patient’s scapular Y?

A

Reverse PA oblique projection

196
Q

What does AEC measure?

A

Predetermined electrical charge

197
Q

Which is the kinetic energy transferred from photons to electrons during ionization and excitation?

A

Air kerma

198
Q

Where would a radiologic technologist most likely encounter the RIS?

A

Worklist in the radiographic exam room

199
Q

What is the annual effective dose limit for an health care worker who is not a radiologic technologist?

A

5 mSv

200
Q

Which requires the greatest adjustment to technique?
Dry palter cast
wet plaster cast
Air splint
Fiberglass cast

A

Wet plaster cast

ARRT Review (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions