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ARRT Review > Patient Care > Flashcards

Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

A normal adult oxygen saturation rate range would be:

A

95-100%

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2
Q

Which of the following organizations provides accreditation for healthcare-providing institutions?

A

Joint commission

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3
Q

When obtaining a blood pressure, the first pulse heard through the stethoscope is:

A

The systolic number

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4
Q

This is absence of spontaneous ventilation:

A

Apnea

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5
Q

The common laboratory test utilized for radiology contrast media patients, BUN, evaluates:

A

Blood glucose levels

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6
Q

This is required to restrain a patient:

A

A physician’s order

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7
Q

CVA stands for:

A

Cerebrovascular accident

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8
Q

The portal of entry describes the:

A

Method by which the pathogen enters the body

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9
Q

A pathologic state resulting from the presence of microorganisms defines:

A

Sepsis

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10
Q

Where would a person acquire a nosocomial infection?

A

In a hospital

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11
Q

DNR stands for:

A

Do Not Resuscitate

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12
Q

Which of the following procedures would require an informed consent to be signed prior to the procedure?
A. Chest Radiograph
B. Lab work
C. Extremity radiograph
D. IVU

A

D. IVU

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13
Q

When a physician orders NPO for a patient, this means that:

A

Nothing is to be given by mouth

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14
Q

Any living being which transports microorganisms is called an:

A

Vector

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15
Q

The escape of a fluid such as contrast media into surrounding tissues is termed:

A

Extravasation

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16
Q

The number of particles in solution per kilogram of water is called __ of the solution.

A

Osmolality

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17
Q

Administering nitroglycerin under the patient’s tongue is an example of:

A

Sublingual administration

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18
Q

Using restraints on a patients without physician orders is an example of:

A

False imprisonment

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19
Q

The term for a drop in blood pressure which occurs when a patients stands up is:

A

Orthostatic hypotension

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20
Q

Which of the following would be considered the most sensitive test of renal functions?

A

Creatinine

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21
Q

A heart rate less than 60 beats per minute is known as:

A

Bradycardia

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22
Q

As the concentration of iodine increases in an iodinated contrast media, viscosity:

A

Increases

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23
Q

If a radiographer attempts to gain a patients cooperation by threatening harm, this offense is termed:

A

Assault

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24
Q

During the process of explaining the informed consent to the patient, the patient must be:

A

Competent to make decisions

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25
Q

Epistaxis is defined as:

A

Nosebleed

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26
Q

Which ethical principle deals with the patient’s right to decide what will or will not be done to them?

A

Autonomy

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27
Q

Normal respiration rate for a healthy adult patient is:

A

12-20 breaths per minute

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28
Q

Your patients is lying on the table being prepared for an Intravenous Urogram. As you are drawing up the contrast media into the syringe, you notice that the patient is exhibiting pallor, cold sweats and the sensation of feeling like they wan to faint. This is known as:

A

A vasovagal reaction

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29
Q

This is the quickest and most convenient method of sterilization for items withstanding heat and moisture of the temperature up to 275 degrees:

A

Autoclaving

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30
Q

When transferring a patient. it is always best to:

A

Let the patient do as much as possible

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31
Q

In body mechanics, the area usually located in the midportion of the pelvis or lower abdomen is known as the:

A

Center of gravity

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32
Q

Which type of oxygen delivery system utilizes sterile water to prevent the patient’s mucous membranes from drying out?

A

Nasal cannula

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33
Q

A patients who exhibits drowsiness, confusion, excessive thirst and excessive urination is probably suffering from:

A

Hyperglycemia

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34
Q

Excessive insulin in the blood is defined as:

A

A form of hyperglycemia

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35
Q

Medications given in imaging departments are most often administer via the route that provides the most rapid response. This is the:

A

Intravenous route

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36
Q

Under the system of protective precautions, the radiographer, or clean tech, who handles the x-ray unite:

A

Drops the cassette into a plastic protective cover

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37
Q

An example of a vector is:

A

A tick

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38
Q

A charge of assault may result if a patient is:

A

feels threatened

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39
Q

This imaging modality combines Nuclear Medicine and CT:

A

PET

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40
Q

When palpating for a pulse, the healthcare worker should:

A

Palpate at the areas of the superficial arteries

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41
Q

Which of the following listings is the most reliable predictor of risk of allergic response to contrast media?

A

Allergy history

42
Q

A measure of the resistance of the fluid to flow is called it’s:

A

Viscosity

43
Q

When performing a portable radiographic examination in an isolation patient’s room, the “dirty tech” is in charge only of:

A

Adjusting patient linens and positioning the patient

44
Q

Which of the following contrast media is LEAST likely to cause an adverse reaction?

A

Iodinated

45
Q

A patient ordered for an Upper GI series has recently had an esophageal biopsy. What type of contrast media should be given?

A

Water- soluble media

46
Q

The __ establishes minimum standards for certification in various imaging specialties and radiation therapy, and offers a national board registry for graduates form accredited schools of radiography.

A

ARRT

47
Q

The risk of extravasation during contrast injection is greatest for which of the following procedures?

A

CT

48
Q

Which of the following statements about informed consent is NOT true?

A

Signed forms may be completed after the procedure is completed

49
Q

The tort of defamation includes slander. This relates to:

A

Spoken information

50
Q

This type of reaction usually occurs in the radiology department after administering contrast media.

A

Anaphylactic

51
Q

Nosocomial infections are those that are contracted:

A

Within a healthcare facility

52
Q

Information confided to which of the following professionals is NOT legally “privileged”?

A

Radiographers

53
Q

This is considered the most important means of maintaining medical asepsis and preventing the spread of infection:

A

Handwashing

54
Q

The radiologic Technologist may obtain informed consent for all medical imaging procedures. (T/F)

A

False

55
Q

A common site for intravenous injections is:

A

The medial cubital vein

56
Q

The term ethics refers to:

A

Moral principles or values

57
Q

A normal adult pulse range is:

A

60-100 bpm

58
Q

A substantial intravenous dose delivered at once is called a:

A

Bolus

59
Q

A patient placed under airborne precautions requires a bedside chest radiograph. The minimum required standard precaution requires the radiographer to don:

A

A particulate respirator

60
Q

Which of the following are NOT microorganisms?

A

Fomites

61
Q

You are reviewing lab values on a patient who is scheduled for the injection of iodinated contrast media. The BUN is 32 mg/dL, and the creatinine is 1.7 mg/dL. These lab values reflects:

A

Renal insufficiency

62
Q

When scheduling a series of diagnostic tests for a patient, examinations involving the use of barium are usually scheduled:

A

Last

63
Q

HIPAA stand for:

A

Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act

64
Q

The legal term Respondeat Superior states that/to:

A

The employer is responsible for its employees

65
Q

The legal term “Res Ipsa Loquiture” states that/to :

A

“the things speaks for itself”

66
Q

Implied consent is acceptable when:

A

An emergency situation

67
Q

When obtaining a history from your patient, you should:

A

Ask open-ended questions

68
Q

On the average patient, this is the preferred method of temperature when oral is not a feasible route:

A

Tympanic

69
Q

The common laboratory test utilized for radiology contrast media patient, BUN, evaluates:

A

Blood glucose levels

70
Q

A pathologic state resulting from the presence of microorganisms defines:

A

Sepsis

71
Q

The portal of entry describes the:

A

Method by which the pathogen enters the body

72
Q

Nasogastric tubes (NG) are used for which of the following purposes:

A

Decompression, Feeding, Instillation of contrast media for radiographic examination
(All of the above)

73
Q

These are placed in all major departments of the hospital and assist the code team during a code situation:

A

Emergency crash cart

74
Q

These contrast agents appear black or dark on a radiograph.

A

Negative

75
Q

The term diaphoretic menas:

A

Sweaty

76
Q

If you observe unethical or unprofessional conduct during the course of your work, you should first report your observations to:

A

Your immediate supervisor

77
Q

When performing a bedside examination of a critical neonate in the ICU, the radiographer should:

A

A- Practice hand hygiene and don gloves between each patient, C- x-ray the neonate within the isolette (Both A & C)

78
Q

A patient who is under contact precautions has been ordered for a Portable Chest X-Ray. What is/are the minimum requited standard precautions for the technologist to don?

A

The technologist must wear gloves and a gown

79
Q

Low-osmolar contrast agents, as compared to high-osmolar agents are:

A

Less likely to initiate an allergic response

80
Q

A patient who suddenly demonstrates irritability, cold clammy skin, weakness, hunger and blurred vision, requires the administration of:

A

Glucose

81
Q

Patient preparation for a radiographic study of the large intestine would include:
1. Dietary restrictions
2. Administration of a laxative
3. Cleaning enemas

A

1,2 and 3

82
Q

Which of the following drugs would most likely be used to combat bronchospasm experienced during a severe anaphylactic reaction?

A

Epinephrine

83
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a parenteral route of drug administration?

A

Oral

84
Q

A patient going into shock would have these symptoms:
1. Hypotension
2. Pale, clammy skin
3. rapid, thready pulse

A

1,2 and 3

85
Q

Flushing, sneezing, and urticaria following an iodine contrast media injection are some of the warning signs of:

A

Anaphylaxis

86
Q

A fracture that causes an eternal wound because of the protruding fragments in classified as a/an:

A

Compound fracture

87
Q

Barium sulfate suspension are nearly totally safe when used in radiographic studies of the __ systems(s).
1. Circulatory
2. Digestive
3. Respiratory

A

2 only

88
Q

Before a contrast media is injected the patient should be questioned about his/her:

A

History of allergies

89
Q

If a patient scheduled for an iodinated contrast study, which of these medications is contraindicated prior to and following contrast injection?

A

Glucophage (Metformin)

90
Q

The acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) virus is transmitted by:
1. By sharing contaminated needles
2. Mother to child during birth
3. By intimate contact with body fluids

A

1,2 and 3

91
Q

While performing a U.G.I. series on an insulin-dependent diabetic, you note excessive sweating, flushing skin, and dizziness. Your patient is likely experiencing:

A

Hypoglycemic reaction

92
Q

If a patient experiences an epileptic seizure, the primary concern of the radiographer is to:
1. Protect the patient from injury
2. Establish an airway
3. Restrain the patient

A

1 only

93
Q

Which of the following would require that the patient sign an informed consent form?
1. Arthrogram
2. Myelogram
3. Upper GI

A

1 and 2

94
Q

When radiographing a patient with chest tube drainage, it is important to remember to:

A

Maintain the drainage system below the level of the chest

95
Q

The number of particles in solution per kilogram of water is called the __ of the solution.

A

Osmolality

96
Q

The escape of fluid into the surrounding tissues, often seen when intravenous needles infiltrate, is termed:

A

Extravasation

97
Q

As the concentration of iodine increases in an iodinated contrast media, viscosity:

A

Increases

98
Q

An unconscious ER patient that begins projectile vomiting profusely many have/be:

A

Head injury

99
Q

This area of a sterile, dressed, gowned and gloved medical professional is considered sterile:

A

The front of the body, from waist up

100
Q

Which of the following site listed below are commonly used for an intravenous injection of contrast media
1. Antecubital vein
2. Basilic vein
3. Popliteal vein

A

1 and 2

ARRT Review (5 decks)

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