Test 1 Flashcards
Which is a not reason for polycythemia? A. Polycythemia Vera B. Hemoconcentration C. Excessive fluid therapy D. Splenic Contraction E. Right to left heart Shunt
C
Why do we not encourage the administration of rhEPO in horses.
Cause severe anemia
Anti-EPO antibodies
Banned
What abnormality can be seen with hemolytic anemia?
A. Liver enzymes decreased
B. Azotemia
C. Decreased total WBC
D. High Na and Cl concentrations
B- kidney is strained when hemoglobin is filtered
What are two types of regenerative anemia?
Hemorrhage
Hemolysis
What are some tests that can be done to test for immune mediated hemolytic anemia?
Coombs test
Autoagglutination a-RBC IgG
Heinz bodies (oxidative damage) are seen in horses when they consume …. (Select all that apply).
A. Red maple leaves
B. Wild onion
C. Red Oak
D. Foxglove flowers
A and B
What is a common bacteria that can cause a secondary infectious immune mediated hemolysis?
Strep. equi
What is not decreased in a Iron Deficiency patient?
A. Iron B. Ferritin C. % saturation D. Total iron binding capacity (TBIC) E. Bone Marrow iron stores
D
T/F : iron deficiency typically occurs in horses older than 15 that have no access to soil or a pasture
False- typically foals with poor quality milk AND no access to soil/pasture. We do not give iron dextran to these cases as it causes acute heptatotoxicity
Relearive polycythemia is (more common/ less common/ just as common) as absolute polycythemia
More common
T/F: a systolic heart murmur is common in anemic patients
True
T/F: Reticulocyte count in a blood test is the most accurate way to diagnose regenerative vs non regenerative anemia in a horse
False- horses don’t release reticulocytes into peripheral circulation
Horses can lose up to ___ % of their blood volume without dying
33%
T/F Horses with EIA have no clinical signs and are in apparent carriers
True
Which of the following affect primarily Belgian and miniature horses? A. Von willebrands B. Prekallikrein deficiency C. Factor viii deficiency D. Factor VII IX and XI Deficiency
B
Pigeon Fever (corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis) primarilary presents as an
A. External abscess
B. Internal Abscess
C. Ulcerative lymphangitis
A- easiest to treat too
A combination of what 3 clinical signs would force you to test for EIA?
A. Weight loss B. Mild Fever C. Anemia D. Thrombocytopenia E. Icterus F. Edema
B C D
Thoigh all can be signs of EIA. These three are indication for testing for EIA
Equine piroplasmosis (theileria equi and Vanessa caballi) is primary spread by___
Ticks- dermacentor and amblyomma
Imidocarn dipropionate is used to treat what infectious disease?
Equine piroplasmosis
Donkey is sensitive to this drug
Anaplasma phagocytophilum can be diagnosed by clinical signs, blood work and this specific trait in a blood smear. What is that trait?
Inclusion bodies (morulae) in neutrophils This can be treated why oxytetracycline IV, doxycycline or minocycline PO. But is also self limiting in 14 days
Platelet surface antibody is considered normal if it below ___%
4
EIA causes thrombocytopenia by what mechanism(s).
A. Decrease production
B. Increased destruction
C. Increased consumption
D. Increased sequestration
A and B
Bone marrow disease causes thrombocytopenia by what mechanism(s).
A. Decrease production
B. Increased destruction
C. Increased consumption
D. Increased sequestration
A
DIC causes thrombocytopenia by what mechanism(s).
A. Decrease production
B. Increased destruction
C. Increased consumption
D. Increased sequestration
C
IMHA causes thrombocytopenia by what mechanism(s).
A. Decrease production
B. Increased destruction
C. Increased consumption
D. Increased sequestration
B
Endotoxemia causes thrombocytopenia by what mechanism(s).
A. Decrease production
B. Increased destruction
C. Increased consumption
D. Increased sequestration
D
Splenomegaly causes thrombocytopenia by what mechanism(s).
A. Decrease production
B. Increased destruction
C. Increased consumption
D. Increased sequestration
D
T/F DIC causes a high fibrinogen counts
False- low
Along with thrombocytopenia, increased PT and PTT, high FDP, low ATIII activity
T/F: Lymphoma is common in young horses
True
Serum thymidine kinase tend to (increase/ decrease/ stays WNL) when a horse has lymphoma
Increase
What can be used in the treatment of lymphoma in horses?
Corticosteroids and chemo
T/F. In pregnant mates cutaneous lymphoma can metastasize
False. They actually tend to resolve on their own. These cutaneous masses are hard but not painful
When the jugular vein is blocked blood caudal to the block should or should not be pulsing up
Should not. Valve problem or heart failure
T/F edema on the nose, belly and the limbs are all signs of heart failure.
False- if horses is walking then no edema on limbs. But there will be edema on the nose and belly
Eupnea is
Effortless breathing with slight abdominal effort
What are the anatomical landmarks for lung auscultation in the horse
Cranial border- vertical line that runs along caudal border of triceps
Caudal border- diagonal line from last rib (dorsal) to point of elbow (ventral)
Dorsal border- horizontal line parallel to ground that runs from tuber coxswain to scapula
Myocardial disease is diagnosed via what test?
cTnI
T/F: Regarding VSD the louder the murmur is the more severe the defect is
False- large defects can actually be more quiet due to less resistance
VSD is associated with poor growth, lethargy, right sided systolic murmur and left systolic murmur PMI
Physiologic murmurs occur due to (low/high) vagal tones in horses when at rest
High vagal tone
2nd degree AV Block because slower heart rate and is normal in many horses. These disappear with exercise
(Select all that apply) Atrial fibrillation occurs
A. In larger breeds
B. After exercise
C. As an irregularly irregular beat
D. Due to disorganized electrical signals at the SA node
ABCD
Quinidine is used to treat AF. Why must it be given via a nasogastric tube?
It is corrosive to the mouth and esophagus It is toxic and can cause colic, irritation, anorexia. A wide QRS means it is at a toxic dose for the horse
Amiodarone can be used but more expensive
Thrombophlebitis can be treated using many different routes. Name some
NSAID, cold/hot packs, antibiotics if infected
