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Equine > Ag 1 > Flashcards

Ag 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Illness scripts have 3 components. Name them

A 
Presenting clinical signs (ps)
Pathophysiologic insult (pi)
Predisposing factors (pf)

What
How
Why

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2
Q

What are the key features of diagnosing recumbent in cows

A

Mental status
Muscle function (skeletal, smooth, cardiac)
Limb position and form
Systemic disease signs

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3
Q

Downer cow syndrome refers to all of the following except
A. A cow that is recumbent <24 hours
B. Pressure induced damage to muscles and nerves of hind limbs
C.elevated CK
D. Poor prognosis for recovery

A

A

Greater than 24 hours

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4
Q

Duration of __________ and quality of ___________ care establish a prognosis for a down cow getting up

A

Recumbency

Nursing

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5
Q 
Metabolic disorders of supply and demand that can result in recumbancy are all of the following except
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C.acute hypophosphatemia 
D. Hypokalemia
D. Excessive negative energy balance
A

A. Hypo

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6
Q

What range is usually considered subclinical hypocalcemia?

A. 8.1-8.6
B. 8-8.5
C. 7.4-7.9

A

B

Impaired smooth muscle function
Increased risk of retained placenta
Metreitis
Displaced abomasum
Intramammary infection
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7
Q

Which of the following does not decribe stage 2 clinical hypomagnesmia?

A. CNS Depression
B. Decreased smooth muscle function 
C. Decreased cardiac function 
D. Short lasting ataxia while standing
E. Decreased thermoregulation
A

D- this is stage 1

The rest are stage 2 in sternal recumbancy

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8
Q

T/F Decreased fertility is a possible impact of hypocalcemia

A

True

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9
Q

T/ F. The uterine discharge from a cow should be watery (serous)

A

False. Should be thick (mucoid)

Watery is suggestive of metritis along with red color and foul smell

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10
Q

T/F. Nerve and muscle cells have a decreased cell membrane potential due to open Na channels. This makes them closer to threshold potential thus resulting in a more excitable tetany state

A

True. But this is more seen in cats dogs horses and humans

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11
Q

At the neuromuscular junction a decreased acetylcholine release due to hypocalcemia results in a ________ strength of muscle contraction.

A

Decreased

Cow sheep goats

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12
Q

A blunted PTH response due to hypocalcemia occurs more often in (older/younger) cows when there is impaired PTH receptor binding

A

Older

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13
Q

Which of the following doesn’t predispose a cow from becoming hypocalcemic

A. Growing bones
B. Impaired PTH receptor binding 
C. Fewer 1,25 vitamin d receptors
D. Few osteoclasts 
E. Being a jersey cow
F. High potassium forage (>1.5-2%)
A

A

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14
Q

Which of the following may occur following the treatment of hypocalcemia?

A. Acute hypophophatemia
B. Chronic hypophosphatemia
C. Acute hyperphosphatemia
D. Chronic hyerphosphatemia

A

A

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15
Q

Bilateral flex ion of hind fetlocks (creeper cow) occurs in what mineral abnormality

A

Acute hypophosphatemia
They are alert
PTH secretion during hypocalcemia increases renal and salivary excretion of P

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16
Q

When can you leave after a cow is treated with parenteral calcium IV

A

Not until cow is up (20 minutes)

But don’t give 2nd bottle

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17
Q

T/F. Stage 1 hypocalcemia is usually treated with oral calcemia not IV

A

True. Don’t give iv if standing

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18
Q

T/F. A second bottle of Ca isn’t given because it is no help to the cow but is not dangerous for the cow

A

False. Increases relapse

Oral calcemia after standing will reduce relapse risk

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19
Q

To prevent hypocalcemia we feed a (low/ high) DCAD ration pre-partum. Feed (more/less) Ca in pre partum ration.

A

Low

Less

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20
Q

Acute hypophosphatemia requires a treatment of (phosphite/ phosphate)

A

Phosphate

Given via an enema or oral mono sodium phosphate. IV not effective b/c phosphite is used

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21
Q

Which of the following is not a presenting sign of hypomagnesemia

A. Death
B. Hyperesthesia
C. Tetany
D. Tachypnea/ Dyspnea
E. Tachycardia with quiet heart sounds
F. Hypermotile rumen with diarrhea
G. Convulsions
A

E- tachycardia with LOUD heart sounds

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22
Q

Hypomagnesemia clinical signs occur because of the reduced________ ________ activity at neuromuscular junction and neural synapses

A

Acetylcholine esterase

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23
Q

Name some predisposing factors for hypomagnesemia

A 
Adults (rumenoreticulum is only site if absorption)
Rapidly growing cool season grasses
Low quality forage
Stressors in environment
Pregnancy or lactating

Mg in bone is not available to cow

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24
Q

Ration tetany ratio (K/Ca+Mg) over 2.2 increases risk of

A

Hypomagnesmia

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25
Q

T/F clinical signs in sheep and goats include hyperesthesia and tetany rather than flaccid paralysis that occur in dairy cattle

A

True

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26
Q

T/F it takes up to 2 hours for clinical improvement of hypomagnesmia

A

True. Can leave before these cases get up

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27
Q

What is the target Mg ration?

A. 1%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.2%
D. 0.05%

A

C

Alfalfa
Trace minerals
Mg sulfate in water are all good ways to get this #

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28
Q

Which of the following would be alert on presentation?

A. Severe coli form mastitis
B. Calving paralysis
C. Muscoskeletal injury
D. Uterine rupture and sepsis

A

B C

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29
Q

T/F- calving paralysis tends to be asymmetrical

A

True tibial fibers of dorsal roots of sciatic

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30
Q

A golden calf can be a sign of what

A

A stressful parturition that may lead to calvingparalysis

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31
Q

Spinal lymph i sarcoma due to BLV progresses over several days to weeks. Describe that progression

A

Ataxia> paresis> paralysis of hind limb symmetrically, distended bladder and loss of tail tone

Heart
Uterus
Lymph nodes
Abomasum
Spinal cord
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32
Q

AMDUCA allows ELDU when there is a valid

A

VCPR- veterinary client patient relationship

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33
Q

Fluoroquinolones such as baytril cannot be used unless it is used to treat

A

Respiratory dz

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34
Q

T/F. All effective penicillin use is extra label

A

True

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35
Q

Treatment of systemically severe disease such as mastitis, metritis and massive sepsis includes all of the following except

A. Hypertonic saline plus 5-10 gallons of water via a stomach tube
B. Flunixin meglumine IM
C. Systemic Antibiotics including ceftiofur (G-)

A

B. IV. IM- longer withdrawal

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36
Q

Ligamentous and muscle injuries are treated with

A

Excellent nursing care

Rest
Anti inflammatory

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37
Q

T/F dexamethasone can be used in cows with calving paralysis

A

True

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38
Q

A progressive paralysis over 2-3 days that ascends from hind limbs and eventually results in recumbency and respiratory distress describes what disease

A

Tick paralysis

American dog- d. Variabilis
Rocky Mountain wood- d. Andersoni

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39
Q

Other than removing ticks how is Tick P. Treated

A

Avermectin anthelminthic

Pyrethrin insecticide spray

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40
Q

T/F Most animals won’t experience a negative energy balance around parturition

A

False. All experience at least some

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41
Q

Changing a pre-partial cow from forage to concentrates is a preventative treatment for ENEB. What happens if too much concentrate is given?

A

Rumen acidosis and metabolic acidosis eventually

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42
Q

When does NEB start to occur in a cow

A

Pre petunia as feed intake decreases closer to partition

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43
Q

Insulin (production/ resistance) is a normal physiological response peripartum

A

Resistance
Glucose goes to milk
Resistance allows decreased skeletal muscle and adipose tissue uptake
Increased liplysis for more nefa to muscle

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44
Q

What are some tests done to diagnose ENEB?

A

Look for kerosine
BHB (blood beta hydroxybuterate)
Ketostix- urine acetoacetate

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45
Q

Too much fat getting mobilised (NEFA released) depresses appetite and can cause what other disease (besides ENEB)

A

Hepatic lipidosis

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46
Q

A cow with a BHB > 1.2 with no clinical signs is considered

A

Subclinical ketosis

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47
Q

Nervous ketosis is described as having abnormal behaviors such as constant licking, head pressing and wandering; it is associated with (hyper/ hypoglycaemia)

A

Hypo

Tx- iv 50% dextrose

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48
Q

Overconditioned cows are at a greater risk for ____ and thus severe hepatic lipidosis

A

ENEB

Treated with glucose to reduce lipolysis
Dexamethasone given ONCE with dextrose

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49
Q

Fatty liver is suspected when ketosis doesn’t respond to treatment and when there is a prolonged

A

ENEB. Excessive NEFA cannot be processed and is stored as triglycerides

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50
Q

Propylene glycol is given as an additive to a cows feed if there is adequate rumen motility in a cow with ketosis
T\F

A

False. Must be given as a bolus. Rest is true
Is fermented in rumen = propionate
Also toxic to rumen MO so no more than 1 L a day

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51
Q

T/F. Insulin should be given in ENEB

A

False. No proof

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52
Q

Name some presenting signs of pregnancy toxemia

A

Progressive anorexia= ketouria
Progressive weakness
Progressive cortical signs such as blindness head pressure coma death

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53
Q

T/ F. You check for urine ketones or BHB not glucose when determining extent of pregnancy toxemia

A

True

> 2.5/3

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54
Q

Magic oral energy supplementation is given to animals with (early/late) signs of PT

A

Early

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55
Q

T/F most lameness is due to disease of the foot

A

True. 80-90%

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56
Q

What are some infectious disease that cause lameness involving the feet

A 
Foot rot (pododermititis)
Hairy heel warts (digital dermatitis)
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57
Q

Name some non-infectious diseases of the foot causing lameness

A

Sole hemorrhage
Sole/toe ulcer
White line disease

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58
Q

Footrot is predominately in (front/hind) feet and is usually (unilateral/bilateral). The swelling is (symmetrical/ asymmetrical) and interdigital

A

Hind
Unilateral
Symmetrical

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59
Q

What are some bacteria commonly associated with footrot

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum
Dichelobacter nodosus
Bacteroides malaninogenicus

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60
Q

Footrot is treated with antibiotics that cover (gram -/ gram+)

A

Gram -

Oxytetracycline
Ceftiofur
Sulfadimethoxine
Penicillin

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61
Q

To prevent footrot what mineral should be supplemented

A

Zinc

Chelated is more bioavailable

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62
Q

T/F Hairy heel warts usually involve no swelling above the coronet

A

True

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63
Q

What is the primary pathogen of HHW

A

Treponema spp.

But polymicrobial into macerated skin

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64
Q

HHW occurs more often in (young/ old) cows and more often in cows with (open/closed) interdigital cleft space

A

Young

Open

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65
Q

HHW is treated using what topical wrap

A

Tetracycline

24 hr withdrawal

66
Q

Name some non- antibiotic treatment options for digital dermatitis

A

Intra hoof fit gel

Victory (more effective than tetracycline)

67
Q

T/ F 5-10% copper sulfate foot baths reduced new and existing HHW

A

True

68
Q

What are the 3 factors that cause the development of claw horn lesions

A

BCS
Subclinical laminitis
Walking surface hardness

69
Q

Subacute ruminate acidosis (SARA) occurs when there are recurrent periods of prolonged rumen PH below _____

A

5.6/5.8

Concentrate intro too rapid
Energy ration too high
Inadequate forage partial size

70
Q

What are clinical signs of SARA

A 
Poor BCS 
Low milk fat and production
Cyclic dry matter intake 
Loose manure
Excessive claw lesion lameness- structure of claw horn weakened = compression of Corinne and white line separation
71
Q 
Horizontal groove occur because all the following except
A. Subclinical laminitis due to SARA
B. Acute laminitis
C. Calving 
D. Low temperature
A

D- high fever bc infection

72
Q

White line disease can occur due to what two events

A
  1. Subclinical laminitis resulting in decreased blood flow (line widens and separates
  2. Propulsive forces like turning right corners
73
Q

How are some ulcers and abscesses treated

A

Pare away all lesion and undermined sole and block on opposite claw to decrease pressure- can use ketoprofen or flunixin
No AB
No wrapping

74
Q

Deep digital sepsis is due to what most commonly

A

Sole abscess chronic footrot sole ulcers

75
Q

Deep digital sepsis (t. Pyogenes and e. Coli) treatment involves….

A

Removal of claw

AB alone is ineffective

76
Q

Footrot in sheep usually presents with what clinic signs

A 
Kneeling 
Packing foot
Lagging behind
No swelling
Separation of horn from sole
Grey fetid material oozing from sole and interdigital skin
Disintegration of sole
77
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum in sheep is involved with what disease

A

Foot scald

Footrot if with dichelobacter nodosus

78
Q

How is footrot treated in small ruminants

A

Oxytetracycline
Kopertox
Zinc sulfate baths

79
Q

T/F foot trimming is an important control for footrot

A

False. Too much can make it worse

80
Q

Toe abscess occurs when overgrown hoof wall breaks and f. Necrophorum and t. Pyogenes enter the wound. This is a similar process as what

A

Heel abscess (interdigital skin)

81
Q

Toe abscesses tend to not need antibiotics unless it broke out coronet and is swelling. But if needed what AB can be used

A

Oxytetracycline

82
Q 
Contagious ovine digital dermatitis  has all of the following characteristics except
A. Ulcerative lesion at coronet
B. Swelling above coronet 
C. Interdigital skin involvement
D. Avulsion of hoof
A

C- no interdigital skin involvement

83
Q

T/F. BDD treponema (CODD) is normally present on healthy skin biopsies

A

False- not in healthy tissue

F. Necrophorum and dichelobater also in CODD

84
Q

Chlortetracycline hydrochloride plus a long acting _____ injection helps treat CODD

A

Ampicillin

85
Q 
Match
A. II
B. III IV VI
C. V VII
D. VIII
E. IX X XI
1. Vision
2. Eye position (strabismus)
3. Sense eye, face motor, motor to jaw
4. Swallowing Tongue
5. Eye position (nystagmus) head tilt
A 
A
B
C
E
D
86
Q

Pupillary light reflex involves which CN

A

2- midbrain- CN 3

87
Q

Menace response involves what CN

A

CN 2- visual cortex cerebellum- CN VII

88
Q

Dorsomedial strabismus causes by polioencephalomalacia and cerebral swelling affects which cranial nerve

A

4- trochlear

Unilateral with listeriosis

89
Q

Circling (toward/away from) lesion of vestibulocochlear (7) and a head tilt is a common ruminant presentation

A

Toward

Head tilt only then otitis media/interns

90
Q

Facial asymmetry involves (facial/trigeminal) while sensation lost involves (facial/trigeminal)

A

Facial

Trigeminal

91
Q

Cerebellar ataxia involves (hypermetria/ head tilt and deviation/ crossing limbs)
Proprioceptive VIII ataxia involves (hypermetria/ head tilt and deviation/ crossing limbs)
Vestibular ataxia involves (hypermetria/ head tilt and deviation/ crossing limbs)

A

Hypermetria
Crossing limbs
Head tilt and deviation

92
Q

Describe the mentation of a cortical lesion

A 
Aggressive obtunded
Blind
Head pressing
Circling both ways
Vocalisations 
Opisthotonos
93
Q 
All of the following describe peripheral vestibular disease except
A. Head tilt
B. Head deviation 
C. Standing 
D. Lack of Nystagmus
A

B- central only

94
Q 
Polioencephalomalacia is a lesion of diseases that cause cerebral edema and neuronal swelling. Which is true regarding this dz
A. Involves mostly white matter
B. Wide flat gyri
C. Lack of edema in sulci
D. Autofluorescence in acute cases
A

B

A- grey
C- there is edema
D- chronic cases not acute

95
Q 
How does thiamine deficiency not arise
A. Thiaminase rumen bacteria
B. High dietary sulfur in water
C. Analogs (amproloim)
D. Ingested thiaminase
A

D- very uncommon because not enough eaten

96
Q

T/F. We tend to want to rapidly reintroduce water into a salt poisoning or water deprivation case

A

False

Goes into CNS= edema= IV hemolysis and hemoglobinuria

97
Q

Chronic exposure to lead leads to what type of anemia

A

Normocytic normochromic

98
Q

How do you differentiate PEM etiology

A

Ration- total dietary sulfur > 4000
Or > 1000 in water
Lead Poisoning- lead line bones on X-ray, lead in reticulum
Salt poisoning- hemolysis hemoglobinuria

99
Q 
PEM treatments involve all of the following except
A. Thiamine 
B. Thiamine HCl prescription 
C. Vitamin D complex
D. DMSO Liquid
A

C- vitamin B

100
Q

Lead poisoning can be treated with____

A

Lead chelation for several days

101
Q

Rabies signs included cortical signs and progressive ascending paralysis. Name some of these signs

A 
Obtunded
Aggressive and wide eyed
Dysphasia 
Salivation
Yawning
No blindness
No unexpected death
102
Q

Listeriosis affects which CN

A

Vestibular

Vestibulocochlear nucleus

103
Q 
All of the following are signs of listeriosis except
A. Head tilt +/- head deviation
B. Circling
C. Ataxia and veering to side of lesion
D. Unilateral ear drop ptosis lip droop
E. Loss of sensation
F. Obtunded
G. All of these are
A

G

104
Q

What is a common age to get listeria monocytogenes

A

About 1 yr old
Abrasions in mouth and bacteria enters oral mucosa
Travels retrograde along axons of CN V to brainstem

105
Q

T/F small ruminants are more susceptible than cattle to listeriosis

A

True

In aerobic silage

106
Q

How do we treat listeriosis

A

Penicillin
Oxytetracycline
Thiamine- B1
Fluids

107
Q

What bacteria is involved in otitis media interna

A

Mycoplasma

108
Q 
What are presenting signs of OMI
A. Head tilt- peripheral vestibular
B. Facial asymmetry
C. Ptosis
D. Circling
A

A
B
C

109
Q

How is OMI spread

A

Pharynx and ascend Eustachian tube

Peripheral Vestibular signs due to damage of vestibular apparatus in tympanic bulla

110
Q 
All of the following are signs or predisposing factors of perennial ryegrass staggers except
A. Young animal
B. Light weight
C. Head bobbing at rest
D. Hypermetric ataxia 
E. Lateral recumbency
A

E

111
Q

What is the MOA for ryegrass

A

Alkaloids produced by endiphyric fungus disrupt cerebellar neural transmission
Lolitrem B toxicity

112
Q 
Histophilosis is most common in which of the following
A. Feedlot cattle (North America)
B. Feedlot cattle (Europe)
C. Dairy cattle (North America)
S. Dairy Cattle (Australia)
A

A

113
Q

What is the predominant presentation for histophilosis

A

Pleuropneumonia- stertor larygitits reap signs
Myocarditis- dead in pen and exercise intolerant

Was once TME but not anymore- neuro signs then death

114
Q

Ataxia, paresis, recumbency, obtunded, eyes closed sleepers syndrome, retinal hemorrhage and exudate, convulsions and nystagmus describe what neuronal bacteria infection

A

Histophilosis

115
Q

T/F. H. Somni is a normal inhabitant if mucous membranes (nasal passage, sheath, prepuce and vagina)

A

True

116
Q

H. somni can become virulent and lead to bacteremia. What are tissues that seems to be most effected by it

A

Myonecrosis- papillary muscles
Thrombosis
Vasculitis
Brain ischemic necrosis

117
Q

What are some stressors that can lead to H. somni infection

A

Transport
Recently weaned
New strains exposure

Vaccines help prevent

118
Q

Cu deficiency in lambs and kids clinical signs

A 
Swayback. Weak when born
Spastic tetraparesis
Death
Enzootic ataxia (delayed swayback)- 1-4months old 
Progressive hind limb ataxia
Paresis
Entire herd
119
Q

Inadequate copper during mid gestation/ perinatal is one way to become copper deficient. Name other abnormalities that can cause this

A

Excess molybdenum
Excess sulfur
Excess iron
These lead to oxidative degeneration and demyelination of spinal cord

120
Q

How is Cu deficiency diagnosed

A

Histo on spinal cord. Liver copper may be normal in these cases

Serum or liver on entire herds. Test feed

121
Q

T/F. Only about 20% of infected goat show clinical signs for caprine arthritis and encephalitis

A

True

These signs include progressive polysynovitis mainly in carpal joint. Pneumonia and mastitis may also be present in adults

Kids- encephalomyelitis 2-4 months old. Ataxia> paralysis Obtunded circling

122
Q

How is CAE spread

A

Ingestion with colostrum (virus in macrophages of the synovium, CNS, lung and mammary gland)
Arthritis- proliferation lymphoplasmocytic synovitis
CNS- subacute multifocal necrotizing encephalomyelitis

123
Q 
Which of the following is not a control measurement for CAE
A. Isolate kids at birth
B. Heat colostrum and milk
C. Vaccinate
D. Elisa test
A

C

124
Q

Border disease is also known as ________ because they have coarse fleece and tremors that are exacerbated with movement

A

Hairy shakers

125
Q

Why does border disease cause the small size and hairy appearce of the persistently infected kids

A

Decreased thyroid hormones

126
Q

T/F. Border disease has both a high mortality and a high morbidity

A

True. W/n days of birth many die

127
Q

Femoral nerve damage (if bilateral) presents with the cow in what position

A

Sitting dog

128
Q

Mastitis tend to be (symmetrical/ asymmetrical)

A

Asymmetrical

129
Q

Most mastitis infection occur due to a (ascending/ descending ) bacterial intramammary infection

A

Ascending

130
Q

Why is the test canal more vulnerable to infection during milking

A

Decreased sympathetic tone takes 30 min to close

131
Q

The keratin plug in the test is produced by ________ and has antibacterial properties

A

Stratum corneum

132
Q

A SCC of higher than ______ indicates infection

A

200000
Macrophage is normal
Neutrophil is during infection

Greater than this without clinical signs is considered subclinical mastitis

133
Q

Grade 3 clinical mastitis includes abnormal milk, gland and cow. The most common bacteria that results in this stage is_____

A

Coliform gram negative

134
Q

Which is false regarding gangrenous mastitis
A. Sporadic incidence
B. Toxins cause vasodilation
C. Tissue necrosis
D. Staphylococcus aureus and E. coli are common agents

A

B- constriction

135
Q 
Which of the following mastitis agents are gram positive
A. S. Aureus
B. E. coli
C. Klebsiella spp
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
A

A D.

136
Q

T/F. All clinical mastitis that are caused by gram + bacteria should be treated with intramammary antibiotics

A

True more likely chronic subclinical infection

Gram - varies. E. coli is usually self limiting

137
Q

T/F. Grade 3 (severe) mastitis is likely caused by a gram negative bacteria

A

True

138
Q

Match

  1. S. Aureus
  2. E. coli
  3. S. Agalactia
  4. Mycoplasma spp
  5. Klebsiella spp
  6. Strep uberis

A. Contagious
B. Environmental

A 
A
B
A
A
B
B
139
Q

Post milk test disinfection misfire includes what 2 agents

A

1% iodine

10% glycerin- reduces chapping

140
Q

T/F. Cows should be fed right before milking and not after

A

False. Standing for longer after milking = less mastitis

141
Q

Mastitis has a core antigen vaccine

T/F

A

True

142
Q

When do more IMI occur
A. Dry period
B. Milking period

A

A. 4-5 times more likely

143
Q

(Older/ younger) cows are more likely to get a IMI

A

Older

144
Q

A CMT is less useful on small ruminants because of what

A

False positives

145
Q

Which of the following is okay to have in milk as long as SCC is low

A. Strep agalactiae
B. Mycoplasma
C. Staph aureus

A

C- other 2 are NOT

146
Q

Beta hemolysis on a blood agar tell you you have which pathogen

A

Staph. Aureus

147
Q

A KOH test differentiates between what 2 types of bacteria

A

Gram + vs negative

148
Q

The catalase test differentiates between what two species of bacteria

A

Staph (+ test) vs strep (- test)

149
Q

Coagulase test differentiates between one subtype of which bacterial species

A

Staph. Looking for aureus. Rest are negative

150
Q

Which is false regarding staph aureus?

A. Gram +
B. Catalase negative
C. Coagulase +
D. Beta hemolytic

A

B

Postitive

151
Q

T/F. S. Aureus is only intermittently shed in milk

A

True

152
Q

How does s aureus evade the host immune system

A

Protein A
Intracellular survival
Microabscess formation
L forms = no cell wall and beta lactam AB ineffective

153
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae is gram (negative/ positive). Catalase (negative/positive). CAMP (negative/positive)

A

Positive
Negative
Positive

154
Q

Mycoplasma colonized multiple body sites other than mammy glands name these

A

Eat resp urogenital

155
Q

What are clinical signs of mycoplasma in calves

A

Otitis
Pneumonia
Arthritis
Poor passive transfer

156
Q

How do we treat mycoplasma intramamnary infections

A

Cull

157
Q

Coliform is gram negative KOH positive and grows in what media

A

Macconkey agar

Is a short duration severe disease. Unlikely to become chronic subclinical

158
Q

What is the most common coliform isolate from clinical mastitis

A

E. coli

Klebsiella is second (sawdust bedding)

159
Q

Endotoxins from E. coli cause what clinical signs

A 
Firm m gland 
Watery secretion
Drop in milk production
Dehydration
Fever 
Decreased rumen motility
Obtunded
160
Q

Coliform clinical mastitis treatment involves

A

Ceftiofur- cephalosporin
Anti inflammatory
Fluids
Stripping

161
Q

What are the 3 components of equine metabolic syndrome

A

Increased adiposity
Hyperinsulinemia
Insulin resistance

162
Q

Is adipose tissue metabolically active

A

Yes

Equine (10 decks)

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