Ag 1 Flashcards by Morgan Brace

Illness scripts have 3 components. Name them

Presenting clinical signs (ps)
Pathophysiologic insult (pi)
Predisposing factors (pf)

What
How
Why

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What are the key features of diagnosing recumbent in cows

Mental status
Muscle function (skeletal, smooth, cardiac)
Limb position and form
Systemic disease signs

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Downer cow syndrome refers to all of the following except
A. A cow that is recumbent <24 hours
B. Pressure induced damage to muscles and nerves of hind limbs
C.elevated CK
D. Poor prognosis for recovery

Greater than 24 hours

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Duration of __________ and quality of ___________ care establish a prognosis for a down cow getting up

Recumbency

Nursing

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Metabolic disorders of supply and demand that can result in recumbancy are all of the following except
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypomagnesemia
C.acute hypophosphatemia 
D. Hypokalemia
D. Excessive negative energy balance

A. Hypo

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What range is usually considered subclinical hypocalcemia?

A. 8.1-8.6
B. 8-8.5
C. 7.4-7.9

Impaired smooth muscle function
Increased risk of retained placenta
Metreitis
Displaced abomasum
Intramammary infection

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Which of the following does not decribe stage 2 clinical hypomagnesmia?

A. CNS Depression
B. Decreased smooth muscle function 
C. Decreased cardiac function 
D. Short lasting ataxia while standing
E. Decreased thermoregulation

D- this is stage 1

The rest are stage 2 in sternal recumbancy

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T/F Decreased fertility is a possible impact of hypocalcemia

True

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T/ F. The uterine discharge from a cow should be watery (serous)

False. Should be thick (mucoid)

Watery is suggestive of metritis along with red color and foul smell

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T/F. Nerve and muscle cells have a decreased cell membrane potential due to open Na channels. This makes them closer to threshold potential thus resulting in a more excitable tetany state

True. But this is more seen in cats dogs horses and humans

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At the neuromuscular junction a decreased acetylcholine release due to hypocalcemia results in a ________ strength of muscle contraction.

Decreased

Cow sheep goats

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A blunted PTH response due to hypocalcemia occurs more often in (older/younger) cows when there is impaired PTH receptor binding

Older

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Which of the following doesn’t predispose a cow from becoming hypocalcemic

A. Growing bones
B. Impaired PTH receptor binding 
C. Fewer 1,25 vitamin d receptors
D. Few osteoclasts 
E. Being a jersey cow
F. High potassium forage (>1.5-2%)

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Which of the following may occur following the treatment of hypocalcemia?

A. Acute hypophophatemia
B. Chronic hypophosphatemia
C. Acute hyperphosphatemia
D. Chronic hyerphosphatemia

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Bilateral flex ion of hind fetlocks (creeper cow) occurs in what mineral abnormality

Acute hypophosphatemia
They are alert
PTH secretion during hypocalcemia increases renal and salivary excretion of P

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When can you leave after a cow is treated with parenteral calcium IV

Not until cow is up (20 minutes)

But don’t give 2nd bottle

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T/F. Stage 1 hypocalcemia is usually treated with oral calcemia not IV

True. Don’t give iv if standing

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T/F. A second bottle of Ca isn’t given because it is no help to the cow but is not dangerous for the cow

False. Increases relapse

Oral calcemia after standing will reduce relapse risk

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To prevent hypocalcemia we feed a (low/ high) DCAD ration pre-partum. Feed (more/less) Ca in pre partum ration.

Low

Less

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Acute hypophosphatemia requires a treatment of (phosphite/ phosphate)

Phosphate

Given via an enema or oral mono sodium phosphate. IV not effective b/c phosphite is used

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Which of the following is not a presenting sign of hypomagnesemia

A. Death
B. Hyperesthesia
C. Tetany
D. Tachypnea/ Dyspnea
E. Tachycardia with quiet heart sounds
F. Hypermotile rumen with diarrhea
G. Convulsions

E- tachycardia with LOUD heart sounds

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Hypomagnesemia clinical signs occur because of the reduced________ ________ activity at neuromuscular junction and neural synapses

Acetylcholine esterase

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Name some predisposing factors for hypomagnesemia

Adults (rumenoreticulum is only site if absorption)
Rapidly growing cool season grasses
Low quality forage
Stressors in environment
Pregnancy or lactating

Mg in bone is not available to cow

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Ration tetany ratio (K/Ca+Mg) over 2.2 increases risk of

Hypomagnesmia

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T/F clinical signs in sheep and goats include hyperesthesia and tetany rather than flaccid paralysis that occur in dairy cattle

True

T/F it takes up to 2 hours for clinical improvement of hypomagnesmia

True. Can leave before these cases get up

What is the target Mg ration? A. 1% B. 0.5% C. 0.2% D. 0.05%

C Alfalfa Trace minerals Mg sulfate in water are all good ways to get this #

Which of the following would be alert on presentation? A. Severe coli form mastitis B. Calving paralysis C. Muscoskeletal injury D. Uterine rupture and sepsis

B C

T/F- calving paralysis tends to be asymmetrical

True tibial fibers of dorsal roots of sciatic

A golden calf can be a sign of what

A stressful parturition that may lead to calvingparalysis

Spinal lymph i sarcoma due to BLV progresses over several days to weeks. Describe that progression

Ataxia> paresis> paralysis of hind limb symmetrically, distended bladder and loss of tail tone ``` Heart Uterus Lymph nodes Abomasum Spinal cord ```

AMDUCA allows ELDU when there is a valid

VCPR- veterinary client patient relationship

Fluoroquinolones such as baytril cannot be used unless it is used to treat

Respiratory dz

T/F. All effective penicillin use is extra label

True

Treatment of systemically severe disease such as mastitis, metritis and massive sepsis includes all of the following except A. Hypertonic saline plus 5-10 gallons of water via a stomach tube B. Flunixin meglumine IM C. Systemic Antibiotics including ceftiofur (G-)

B. IV. IM- longer withdrawal

Ligamentous and muscle injuries are treated with

Excellent nursing care Rest Anti inflammatory

T/F dexamethasone can be used in cows with calving paralysis

True

A progressive paralysis over 2-3 days that ascends from hind limbs and eventually results in recumbency and respiratory distress describes what disease

Tick paralysis American dog- d. Variabilis Rocky Mountain wood- d. Andersoni

Other than removing ticks how is Tick P. Treated

Avermectin anthelminthic | Pyrethrin insecticide spray

T/F Most animals won’t experience a negative energy balance around parturition

False. All experience at least some

Changing a pre-partial cow from forage to concentrates is a preventative treatment for ENEB. What happens if too much concentrate is given?

Rumen acidosis and metabolic acidosis eventually

When does NEB start to occur in a cow

Pre petunia as feed intake decreases closer to partition

Insulin (production/ resistance) is a normal physiological response peripartum

Resistance Glucose goes to milk Resistance allows decreased skeletal muscle and adipose tissue uptake Increased liplysis for more nefa to muscle

What are some tests done to diagnose ENEB?

Look for kerosine BHB (blood beta hydroxybuterate) Ketostix- urine acetoacetate

Too much fat getting mobilised (NEFA released) depresses appetite and can cause what other disease (besides ENEB)

Hepatic lipidosis

A cow with a BHB > 1.2 with no clinical signs is considered

Subclinical ketosis

Nervous ketosis is described as having abnormal behaviors such as constant licking, head pressing and wandering; it is associated with (hyper/ hypoglycaemia)

Hypo Tx- iv 50% dextrose

Overconditioned cows are at a greater risk for ____ and thus severe hepatic lipidosis

ENEB Treated with glucose to reduce lipolysis Dexamethasone given ONCE with dextrose

Fatty liver is suspected when ketosis doesn’t respond to treatment and when there is a prolonged

ENEB. Excessive NEFA cannot be processed and is stored as triglycerides

Propylene glycol is given as an additive to a cows feed if there is adequate rumen motility in a cow with ketosis T\F

False. Must be given as a bolus. Rest is true Is fermented in rumen = propionate Also toxic to rumen MO so no more than 1 L a day

T/F. Insulin should be given in ENEB

False. No proof

Name some presenting signs of pregnancy toxemia

Progressive anorexia= ketouria Progressive weakness Progressive cortical signs such as blindness head pressure coma death

T/ F. You check for urine ketones or BHB not glucose when determining extent of pregnancy toxemia

True | > 2.5/3

Magic oral energy supplementation is given to animals with (early/late) signs of PT

Early

T/F most lameness is due to disease of the foot

True. 80-90%

What are some infectious disease that cause lameness involving the feet

``` Foot rot (pododermititis) Hairy heel warts (digital dermatitis) ```

Name some non-infectious diseases of the foot causing lameness

Sole hemorrhage Sole/toe ulcer White line disease

Footrot is predominately in (front/hind) feet and is usually (unilateral/bilateral). The swelling is (symmetrical/ asymmetrical) and interdigital

Hind Unilateral Symmetrical

What are some bacteria commonly associated with footrot

Fusobacterium necrophorum Dichelobacter nodosus Bacteroides malaninogenicus

Footrot is treated with antibiotics that cover (gram -/ gram+)

Gram - Oxytetracycline Ceftiofur Sulfadimethoxine Penicillin

To prevent footrot what mineral should be supplemented

Zinc Chelated is more bioavailable

T/F Hairy heel warts usually involve no swelling above the coronet

True

What is the primary pathogen of HHW

Treponema spp. | But polymicrobial into macerated skin

HHW occurs more often in (young/ old) cows and more often in cows with (open/closed) interdigital cleft space

Young | Open

HHW is treated using what topical wrap

Tetracycline | 24 hr withdrawal

Name some non- antibiotic treatment options for digital dermatitis

Intra hoof fit gel | Victory (more effective than tetracycline)

T/ F 5-10% copper sulfate foot baths reduced new and existing HHW

True

What are the 3 factors that cause the development of claw horn lesions

BCS Subclinical laminitis Walking surface hardness

Subacute ruminate acidosis (SARA) occurs when there are recurrent periods of prolonged rumen PH below _____

5.6/5.8 Concentrate intro too rapid Energy ration too high Inadequate forage partial size

What are clinical signs of SARA

``` Poor BCS Low milk fat and production Cyclic dry matter intake Loose manure Excessive claw lesion lameness- structure of claw horn weakened = compression of Corinne and white line separation ```

``` Horizontal groove occur because all the following except A. Subclinical laminitis due to SARA B. Acute laminitis C. Calving D. Low temperature ```

D- high fever bc infection

White line disease can occur due to what two events

1. Subclinical laminitis resulting in decreased blood flow (line widens and separates 2. Propulsive forces like turning right corners

How are some ulcers and abscesses treated

Pare away all lesion and undermined sole and block on opposite claw to decrease pressure- can use ketoprofen or flunixin No AB No wrapping

Deep digital sepsis is due to what most commonly

Sole abscess chronic footrot sole ulcers

Deep digital sepsis (t. Pyogenes and e. Coli) treatment involves….

Removal of claw | AB alone is ineffective

Footrot in sheep usually presents with what clinic signs

``` Kneeling Packing foot Lagging behind No swelling Separation of horn from sole Grey fetid material oozing from sole and interdigital skin Disintegration of sole ```

Fusobacterium necrophorum in sheep is involved with what disease

Foot scald Footrot if with dichelobacter nodosus

How is footrot treated in small ruminants

Oxytetracycline Kopertox Zinc sulfate baths

T/F foot trimming is an important control for footrot

False. Too much can make it worse

Toe abscess occurs when overgrown hoof wall breaks and f. Necrophorum and t. Pyogenes enter the wound. This is a similar process as what

Heel abscess (interdigital skin)

Toe abscesses tend to not need antibiotics unless it broke out coronet and is swelling. But if needed what AB can be used

Oxytetracycline

``` Contagious ovine digital dermatitis has all of the following characteristics except A. Ulcerative lesion at coronet B. Swelling above coronet C. Interdigital skin involvement D. Avulsion of hoof ```

C- no interdigital skin involvement

T/F. BDD treponema (CODD) is normally present on healthy skin biopsies

False- not in healthy tissue | F. Necrophorum and dichelobater also in CODD

Chlortetracycline hydrochloride plus a long acting _____ injection helps treat CODD

Ampicillin

``` Match A. II B. III IV VI C. V VII D. VIII E. IX X XI 1. Vision 2. Eye position (strabismus) 3. Sense eye, face motor, motor to jaw 4. Swallowing Tongue 5. Eye position (nystagmus) head tilt ```

``` A B C E D ```

Pupillary light reflex involves which CN

2- midbrain- CN 3

Menace response involves what CN

CN 2- visual cortex cerebellum- CN VII

Dorsomedial strabismus causes by polioencephalomalacia and cerebral swelling affects which cranial nerve

4- trochlear | Unilateral with listeriosis

Circling (toward/away from) lesion of vestibulocochlear (7) and a head tilt is a common ruminant presentation

Toward Head tilt only then otitis media/interns

Facial asymmetry involves (facial/trigeminal) while sensation lost involves (facial/trigeminal)

Facial | Trigeminal

Cerebellar ataxia involves (hypermetria/ head tilt and deviation/ crossing limbs) Proprioceptive VIII ataxia involves (hypermetria/ head tilt and deviation/ crossing limbs) Vestibular ataxia involves (hypermetria/ head tilt and deviation/ crossing limbs)

Hypermetria Crossing limbs Head tilt and deviation

Describe the mentation of a cortical lesion

``` Aggressive obtunded Blind Head pressing Circling both ways Vocalisations Opisthotonos ```

``` All of the following describe peripheral vestibular disease except A. Head tilt B. Head deviation C. Standing D. Lack of Nystagmus ```

B- central only

``` Polioencephalomalacia is a lesion of diseases that cause cerebral edema and neuronal swelling. Which is true regarding this dz A. Involves mostly white matter B. Wide flat gyri C. Lack of edema in sulci D. Autofluorescence in acute cases ```

B A- grey C- there is edema D- chronic cases not acute

``` How does thiamine deficiency not arise A. Thiaminase rumen bacteria B. High dietary sulfur in water C. Analogs (amproloim) D. Ingested thiaminase ```

D- very uncommon because not enough eaten

T/F. We tend to want to rapidly reintroduce water into a salt poisoning or water deprivation case

False Goes into CNS= edema= IV hemolysis and hemoglobinuria

Chronic exposure to lead leads to what type of anemia

Normocytic normochromic

How do you differentiate PEM etiology

Ration- total dietary sulfur > 4000 Or > 1000 in water Lead Poisoning- lead line bones on X-ray, lead in reticulum Salt poisoning- hemolysis hemoglobinuria

``` PEM treatments involve all of the following except A. Thiamine B. Thiamine HCl prescription C. Vitamin D complex D. DMSO Liquid ```

C- vitamin B

Lead poisoning can be treated with____

Lead chelation for several days

Rabies signs included cortical signs and progressive ascending paralysis. Name some of these signs

``` Obtunded Aggressive and wide eyed Dysphasia Salivation Yawning No blindness No unexpected death ```

Listeriosis affects which CN

Vestibular | Vestibulocochlear nucleus

``` All of the following are signs of listeriosis except A. Head tilt +/- head deviation B. Circling C. Ataxia and veering to side of lesion D. Unilateral ear drop ptosis lip droop E. Loss of sensation F. Obtunded G. All of these are ```

What is a common age to get listeria monocytogenes

About 1 yr old Abrasions in mouth and bacteria enters oral mucosa Travels retrograde along axons of CN V to brainstem

T/F small ruminants are more susceptible than cattle to listeriosis

True In aerobic silage

How do we treat listeriosis

Penicillin Oxytetracycline Thiamine- B1 Fluids

What bacteria is involved in otitis media interna

Mycoplasma

``` What are presenting signs of OMI A. Head tilt- peripheral vestibular B. Facial asymmetry C. Ptosis D. Circling ```

A B C

How is OMI spread

Pharynx and ascend Eustachian tube | Peripheral Vestibular signs due to damage of vestibular apparatus in tympanic bulla

``` All of the following are signs or predisposing factors of perennial ryegrass staggers except A. Young animal B. Light weight C. Head bobbing at rest D. Hypermetric ataxia E. Lateral recumbency ```

What is the MOA for ryegrass

Alkaloids produced by endiphyric fungus disrupt cerebellar neural transmission Lolitrem B toxicity

``` Histophilosis is most common in which of the following A. Feedlot cattle (North America) B. Feedlot cattle (Europe) C. Dairy cattle (North America) S. Dairy Cattle (Australia) ```

What is the predominant presentation for histophilosis

Pleuropneumonia- stertor larygitits reap signs Myocarditis- dead in pen and exercise intolerant Was once TME but not anymore- neuro signs then death

Ataxia, paresis, recumbency, obtunded, eyes closed sleepers syndrome, retinal hemorrhage and exudate, convulsions and nystagmus describe what neuronal bacteria infection

Histophilosis

T/F. H. Somni is a normal inhabitant if mucous membranes (nasal passage, sheath, prepuce and vagina)

True

H. somni can become virulent and lead to bacteremia. What are tissues that seems to be most effected by it

Myonecrosis- papillary muscles Thrombosis Vasculitis Brain ischemic necrosis

What are some stressors that can lead to H. somni infection

Transport Recently weaned New strains exposure Vaccines help prevent

Cu deficiency in lambs and kids clinical signs

``` Swayback. Weak when born Spastic tetraparesis Death Enzootic ataxia (delayed swayback)- 1-4months old Progressive hind limb ataxia Paresis Entire herd ```

Inadequate copper during mid gestation/ perinatal is one way to become copper deficient. Name other abnormalities that can cause this

Excess molybdenum Excess sulfur Excess iron These lead to oxidative degeneration and demyelination of spinal cord

How is Cu deficiency diagnosed

Histo on spinal cord. Liver copper may be normal in these cases Serum or liver on entire herds. Test feed

T/F. Only about 20% of infected goat show clinical signs for caprine arthritis and encephalitis

True These signs include progressive polysynovitis mainly in carpal joint. Pneumonia and mastitis may also be present in adults Kids- encephalomyelitis 2-4 months old. Ataxia> paralysis Obtunded circling

How is CAE spread

Ingestion with colostrum (virus in macrophages of the synovium, CNS, lung and mammary gland) Arthritis- proliferation lymphoplasmocytic synovitis CNS- subacute multifocal necrotizing encephalomyelitis

``` Which of the following is not a control measurement for CAE A. Isolate kids at birth B. Heat colostrum and milk C. Vaccinate D. Elisa test ```

Border disease is also known as ________ because they have coarse fleece and tremors that are exacerbated with movement

Hairy shakers

Why does border disease cause the small size and hairy appearce of the persistently infected kids

Decreased thyroid hormones

T/F. Border disease has both a high mortality and a high morbidity

True. W/n days of birth many die

Femoral nerve damage (if bilateral) presents with the cow in what position

Sitting dog

Mastitis tend to be (symmetrical/ asymmetrical)

Asymmetrical

Most mastitis infection occur due to a (ascending/ descending ) bacterial intramammary infection

Ascending

Why is the test canal more vulnerable to infection during milking

Decreased sympathetic tone takes 30 min to close

The keratin plug in the test is produced by ________ and has antibacterial properties

Stratum corneum

A SCC of higher than ______ indicates infection

200000 Macrophage is normal Neutrophil is during infection Greater than this without clinical signs is considered subclinical mastitis

Grade 3 clinical mastitis includes abnormal milk, gland and cow. The most common bacteria that results in this stage is_____

Coliform gram negative

Which is false regarding gangrenous mastitis A. Sporadic incidence B. Toxins cause vasodilation C. Tissue necrosis D. Staphylococcus aureus and E. coli are common agents

B- constriction

``` Which of the following mastitis agents are gram positive A. S. Aureus B. E. coli C. Klebsiella spp D. Streptococcus agalactiae ```

A D.

T/F. All clinical mastitis that are caused by gram + bacteria should be treated with intramammary antibiotics

True more likely chronic subclinical infection | Gram - varies. E. coli is usually self limiting

T/F. Grade 3 (severe) mastitis is likely caused by a gram negative bacteria

True

Match 1. S. Aureus 2. E. coli 3. S. Agalactia 4. Mycoplasma spp 5. Klebsiella spp 6. Strep uberis A. Contagious B. Environmental

``` A B A A B B ```

Post milk test disinfection misfire includes what 2 agents

1% iodine | 10% glycerin- reduces chapping

T/F. Cows should be fed right before milking and not after

False. Standing for longer after milking = less mastitis

Mastitis has a core antigen vaccine T/F

True

When do more IMI occur A. Dry period B. Milking period

A. 4-5 times more likely

(Older/ younger) cows are more likely to get a IMI

Older

A CMT is less useful on small ruminants because of what

False positives

Which of the following is okay to have in milk as long as SCC is low A. Strep agalactiae B. Mycoplasma C. Staph aureus

C- other 2 are NOT

Beta hemolysis on a blood agar tell you you have which pathogen

Staph. Aureus

A KOH test differentiates between what 2 types of bacteria

Gram + vs negative

The catalase test differentiates between what two species of bacteria

Staph (+ test) vs strep (- test)

Coagulase test differentiates between one subtype of which bacterial species

Staph. Looking for aureus. Rest are negative

Which is false regarding staph aureus? A. Gram + B. Catalase negative C. Coagulase + D. Beta hemolytic

B Postitive

T/F. S. Aureus is only intermittently shed in milk

True

How does s aureus evade the host immune system

Protein A Intracellular survival Microabscess formation L forms = no cell wall and beta lactam AB ineffective

Streptococcus agalactiae is gram (negative/ positive). Catalase (negative/positive). CAMP (negative/positive)

Positive Negative Positive

Mycoplasma colonized multiple body sites other than mammy glands name these

Eat resp urogenital

What are clinical signs of mycoplasma in calves

Otitis Pneumonia Arthritis Poor passive transfer

How do we treat mycoplasma intramamnary infections

Cull

Coliform is gram negative KOH positive and grows in what media

Macconkey agar Is a short duration severe disease. Unlikely to become chronic subclinical

What is the most common coliform isolate from clinical mastitis

E. coli Klebsiella is second (sawdust bedding)

Endotoxins from E. coli cause what clinical signs

``` Firm m gland Watery secretion Drop in milk production Dehydration Fever Decreased rumen motility Obtunded ```

Coliform clinical mastitis treatment involves

Ceftiofur- cephalosporin Anti inflammatory Fluids Stripping

What are the 3 components of equine metabolic syndrome

Increased adiposity Hyperinsulinemia Insulin resistance

Is adipose tissue metabolically active

Yes