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Equine > Equine 2 > Flashcards

Equine 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 2 blood supplies to the liver

A

Hepatic artery

Portal vein

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2
Q

Where does the blood from the sinusoids drain into

A

Central veins and thus into hepatic vein and caudal vena cava

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3
Q

What organ(s) synthesize albumin and fibrinogen

A

Liver only

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4
Q

The liver deaminates amino acids for use as energy substrates or precursors of _______

A

Gluconeogenesis

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5
Q

What is the major toxic by product of amino acid catabolism

A

Ammonia

Which is eliminated by new amino acids if conversion to urea

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6
Q

Name some important things the liver does

A

N excretion by urea excreted in urine
Regulation of synthesis, storage and release of glucose
Uptakes fatty acids and esterification into triglycerides
Oxidation of free fatty acids for energy

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7
Q

What does not make up bile

A. Bile acids
B. Conjugated bilirubin
C. Cholesterol
D. Lecithin
E. Fatty acids
F. Electrolytes
G. Water
A

E

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8
Q

The principal bile acids in horses (cholate and chenodeoxycholate) are conjugated with what

A

Taurine

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9
Q

T/F. Bile flow is continuous in horses

A

True

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10
Q

Urobilinogen in the gut can go to what 3 places

A

Feces (stercobilin)80%
Urine( urobilin) 2%
Enterohepatic circulation 18%

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11
Q

What order does bilirubin enter each of the following

  1. Gut
  2. Reticuloebdothelial
  3. Liver
  4. Bloodstream
A

2
4
3
1

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12
Q

What are inducers of metabolism of toxins

A

Barbiturate
Phenylbutazone

Inhibitors- chloramphenicol cimetidine and quinidine

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13
Q

How much hepatic loss must occur before clinical signs are noticed

A

60-80%

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14
Q

Chronic hepatic disease is usually associated with ________ of the hepatic parenchyma

A

Fibrosis

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15
Q

What are some signs of hepatic disease or failure

A 
Weight loss*
Lethargic
Obtunded*
Inappetance*
Colic*
Diarrhea
Icterus*
Fever
Edema 
PU PD
Hepatic encephalopathy *
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16
Q

T/F alanine transaminase (ALT SGPT) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and both not useful to diagnose hepatocellular disease in horses

A

True

Aspartate transaminase (AST SGOT)- doesn’t correlate with degree of damage
Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SHD)- volition but correlates with degree.  are both more useful
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17
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of hepatocellular damage and is a leakage enzyme

A

Sorbitol dehydrogenase SHD

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18
Q

In biliary tract disease ALP and ____ go up at the same time

A

GGT

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19
Q

Foreign dyes such as BSP and indocyanine green tell information about _______

A

Clearance

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20
Q

Bile acids are (increased/decreased) with prolonged fasting, (increased/ decreased) with liver disease, and (highest/ lowest) with biliary obstructions or shunts

A

Increased. Increased highest

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21
Q

What is the most common cause of increased bilirubin

A

Not eating

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22
Q

Hyperbilirubinemia can result from what

A

Hemolysis
Primary hepatocellular disease
Cholestatic disease
Associated with icterus or jaundice

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23
Q

(Unconjugated/ conjugated) bilirubin is a more reliable indicator for hepatic disease

A

Conjugated
>25% hepatocellular dz
>30 % biliary dz

Is water solvable (urine)
Urobilinogen in urine indicated a patent bile duct

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24
Q

Which is false regarding BUN and ammonia
A. Ammonia is converted to urea in liver
B. Liver dysfunction = decreased BUN and ammonia
C. Blood ammonia doesn’t tell severity
D. Ammonia is non specific for liver disease

A

B- decreased BUN and increased ammonia

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25
Q

PT and PTT are (increased/ decreased) with liver failure. Cholestatic disease causes a vitamin K ( deficiency/ toxicity) because of an abscence of bile salts

A

Increased. Deficiency

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26
Q

What are the most useful blood tests for hepatic disease

A

SDH, GGT,
serum bile acids -most sensitiv

US , liver biopsy (right 12-14th rib), laparoscopy can also be preformed
Hepatic scintigraphy - PSS in foals

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27
Q

What are some poor prognostic indicators for hepatic dz

A 
Hepatoencephalopathy 
IV hemolysis 
Coagulopathy
Weight loss
Severe hepatic fibrosis
Decreased BUN
Increased GGT AP or bile acids globulins
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28
Q

How is liver failure treated

A 
Mineral oil 
Activated charcoal
Lactulose
Neomycin
Low pt. High carb diet
-AA
- beet pulp, sorghum, milo, oat grass hay
Fluid- LRD, dextrose, vitamin B
NSAIDs
Vitamin K
No sunlight
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29
Q

What is the term for deep breathing

A

Hyperpnea

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30
Q

Name the borders of the lung field where auscultation occurs

A

Caudal border of triceps
Cranial border caudal scapula
Diagonally elbow to last rib/ tuber coxae

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31
Q

What is the only lymph node on a horse that should be palpable on a healthy horse

A

Submandibular

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32
Q

Stridor is the (upper/lower) airway

A

Upper

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33
Q

For cases that have difficulty breathing we normally sedate for endoscopy

T/F

A

False- no sedation

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34
Q

TTW are (sterile/ non-sterile)

A

Sterile for culture

Less than 20% neutrophils but macrophages are normal

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35
Q

BAL are (sterile/ non-sterile)

A

Non
Lower resp tract
Cytology can tell you about inflammation or hemorrhage- done with asthma too

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36
Q

Nasal swabs are only used to detect what microbial diseases

A

Viral

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37
Q

Strangles is diagnosed with what type of wash

A

Nasopharyngeal

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38
Q

A thoracocentesis should be preformed at what intercostal space

A

6-7. 10cm dorsal to elbow

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39
Q

What 3 things can fill a guttural pouch

A

Air- tympany
Pus- empyema
Blood

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40
Q

GP tympany occurs genetically to what breed or gender

A

Arabian and fillies

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41
Q

GP empyema’s purple my material is made up of _________. Caused by this pathogen_________

A 
Chondroids
Streptococcus equi (zooepidemicus)
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42
Q

How are GP empyema treated

A

Lavage and remove
Topical AB
NSAIDS

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43
Q

Streptococcus equi equi has what common clinical signs

A 
LN enlargement
Fever
Enlarged GP
purulent nasal discharge
Dyspnea 
Metastatic abscessation= bastard strangles
Myositis
Purpura hemorrhagica- painful edema, high Ab, >1:6400
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44
Q

How is streptococcus equi equi diagnosed

A

Culture or PCR (SeM)- antibodies, LN discharge, GP lavage, nasopharyngeal wash, 3 (-) every 2 weeks)
Purpura hemorrhagica= > 1:12800

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45
Q 
Which is not used to treat s. Equi equi
A. Penicillin 
B. NSAIDS
C. Drainage if enlarged LN
D. Tracheostomy if dyspnea
E. Antibiotics if purpura or myositis
A

E- only if ongoing infection but generally no AB. Corticosteroids with this stage

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46
Q

Vaccines don’t need to be given if a horse’s s. Equi titer is above what

A

3200
M-protein- b/c poor efficacy, 3 doses at first and high injection site reaction
Intranasal- only healthy, not <1 yr, 2 doses

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47
Q

What is a heave line

A

Breathing hard leading to hypertrophy of muscles

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48
Q

Severe asthma (recurrent airway obstruction) occurs in animals (>,

A

Greater than usually

Genetic predisposition and allergens

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49
Q

Severe asthma is more associated with what 2 seasons and why

A

Summer
Winter
Dust

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50
Q

Bronchospasm-> mucus plugs-> smooth muscle hyperplasia-> airway wall thickening-> _____—

A

Fibrosis
No eosinophils
No histamine

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51
Q

How is severe asthma diagnosed

A

Cytology with a non sterile treachery tube

BALF- sedation with butorphanol (not if in resp distress)

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52
Q

What is seen on a BALF test that diagnoses severe asthma

A

> 25% non degenerative NT

curchmann spirals

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53
Q

How is severe asthma treated

A

No cure. Progressive. Minimize antigen. Corticosteroids (dexamethasone, prednisolone, Beclomethasone, fluticasone ciclesonide)
Bronchodilators (clenbuterol albuterol)
Ciclesonide 8 actuations BID 5 days then 12 SID for 5 days

Steam hay
Straw isn’t good bedding

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54
Q

Mild asthma (inflammatory airway disease is (reversible/ no -reversible)

A

Reversible

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55
Q

Mild asthma is a Dx of exclusion. A BALF is preformed with NT at 10-15%, EO at 1-5% and mast cells at 2-5%. Endoscopy may find______

A

Mucus

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56
Q

What are some treatments for acute asthma

A

Corticosteroids
Change environment
IFN a
Mast cell inhibitor (neocromil sodium, cromolyn sodium)

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57
Q

EIPH causes what to be seen on BALF

A

RBC or hemosiderin

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58
Q

Epistaxis in EIPH is <7% bilateral with (decreased/ increased) swallowing

A

Increased. Excessive

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59
Q

What are some treatments of EIPH

A

Furosemide

Nasal strip???

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60
Q

About what percent of horses have EHV -4 by 1 year of age

A

100
EVH-1 is 30% in winter
Most are carriers

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61
Q

How is equine herpes spread

A

35 ft aersol

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62
Q

What are some symptoms of herpes

A 
Fever
Lethargy 
Nasal or ocular discharge- serous
Submandibular LN swelling
Cough
Abortion on third trimester
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63
Q

What isn’t herpes treatment

A. Rest
B. NSAIDs
C. Antibiotics
D. Nursing care

A

C. Only if a retained placenta in abortion. Is okay to breed again

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64
Q

How often should a horse be vaccinated

A

q6 months

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65
Q

How is EVA spread

A

Urine- semen

Resp secretions

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66
Q

Clinical signs of EVA

A 
Fever 
Lethargy 
Rhinitis 
Conjunctivitis 
Cough
Dyspnea 
Ventral edema
Abortion if at 2-3 months exposure 
Neonates- fatal pneumonia
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67
Q 
Which is not a diagnoses method for EVA
A. Nasopharyngeal swab
B. Conjunctival swab
C. Heparinized blood
D. Tissues- lung spleen, LN
A

C

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68
Q

Is EVA a reportable disease

A

Yes

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69
Q 
Treatments of eva includ all the following except
A. Rest and nursing care
B. Fluids
C. NSAIDS
D. Furosemide
E. Decongestants
A

E

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70
Q

A MLV vaccine exists for EVA and is long acting and protective

T/F

A

True

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71
Q

Flu affects more ( older/ younger) horses

A

Younger

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72
Q

T/ F. Flu testing is best diagnosed by a blood test PCR

A

False. Not in bloodstream

Nasopharyngeal swab
TTW
ELISA stall test 
Serology 
NPS viral isolation
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73
Q

What are some clinical signs of flu

A 
Fever
Lethargy
Serous nasal discharge 
Submandibular nasal discharge
Dry cough
Limb edema
2 bacterial infection
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74
Q

When are horses vaccinated for flu when pregnant

A

4-6 weeks pre foaling inactivated and canarypox vector only
Q6 months in general
Foals at 3-6 months
Intranasal is MLV and is a local response

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75
Q

Which is not a characteristic of pleurodynia
A. Shallow breathing
B. Restlessness
C. Elbows abducted
D. Intolerant to rebreathing exam
E. Painful to percussion, pressure on thorax
F. Painful cough

A

B- reluctant to move

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76
Q

What can cause pleural effusion

A 
Trauma 
Neoplasia
Choke
Anesthesia
Respiratory virus
Travel history
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77
Q

Name some clinical signs of pneumonia

A 
Crackles wheezes
Tachypnea
Fever
Pleurodynia
Dyspnea
Ventral edema
Low BCS if chronic
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78
Q

What must be done before thoracic radiography of pleural effusion

A

Drain

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79
Q

What are some common isolates of pleural effusion

A

Gram +
Streptococcus zooepidemicus
Staph. Aureus

Anaerobics
Bacteroides fragilis
Clostridium
Fusobacterium

G-
Pasteurella
Actinobacillus
Klebsiella 
E. coli
Bordetella
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80
Q

Pleuropneumonia treatments include

A

Iv or inhales AB- PO once controlled
O2
If fibrin/abscess- lavage, rib resection, thoracotomy

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81
Q

What are additional complications of pleuropneumonia
A. Laminitis
B. Thrombosis of lateral thoracic or cephalon
C. Sepsis
D. Diarrhea
E. Renal Failure

A

A B C D

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82
Q

T/F prognosis is worse if the bacteria are aerobic

A

False. If anaerobic

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83
Q

What type of anemia is chronic

A

Normocytic normochromic with increased globulins

When tachypnea, Dyspnea no lung sounds no fever abdominal effort- melanoma dif. Diagnoses

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84
Q

When can a neonate get pneumonia

A

In utero or post partum with failure of passive transfer

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85
Q

How is pneumonia diagnosed in neonatal foals

A 
Blood culture
TTW
Arterial blood gas
X-ray
US
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86
Q 
Which of the following should be used with caution in neonatal pneumonia treatment.
A. AB- broad spectrum
B. Anti- inflammatory
C. Intra nasal oxygen
D. Bronchodilator
A

D

Progonis is variable for many reasons

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87
Q

Acute respiratory distress syndrome occurs in foals at what age

A

<8 months

Alveolar pattern thoracic X-ray

88
Q

ARDS is treated using

A 
O2
Corticosteroids
Bronchodilator
Antimicrobial
Inhaled therapy
89
Q

A progressive pneumonia that is unresponsive to treatment would suggest a foal is infected with what

A

EHV- 1
Occurs with infected mare
Foal is weak

90
Q

Pneumocystis carinii causes foals to become immunocompromised. What is expected to be seen on cytology

A

Macrophages

91
Q

Adenovirus (SCID) causes fatal bronchopneumonia in what breed

A

Arabian

92
Q

Streptococcus zooepidemicus will cause a TTW to show what

A

G+ organisms. 80% degenerative NT

93
Q

Rhodococcus equi is a gram + bacteria that affects only young foals worldwide. This bacteria leads to a (immunocompromised/ healthy) adult if treated correctly

A

Immunocompromised

Hide in macrophages

94
Q

R. Equi can lead to what extra pulmonary lesions

A 
Ulcerative colitis- diarrhea
Ulcerative lymphangitis
Arthritis- osteomyelitis 
Abscess
Immune mediated- polysynovitis, thrombocytopenia, anemia
95
Q

T/ F. R. Equi generally heals in it’s own in foals

A

True. 80%

96
Q

What is the difficulty with diagnoses of r equi

A

TTW. But only 1 foal needs this to dx herd- PCR for VapA

X-ray, BW also done

97
Q

In order to use rifampin to treat pneumonia from r equi it must be combined with what other drug

A

Macrolides

Need erythromycin (others mycin)
May cause hyperthermia and is a long, costly cure

NSAIDs may also be used

98
Q

T/F. The r. Equi vaccine works with a 95% efficacy for prevention of extra pulmonary symptoms

A

False. No vaccine

Hyper immune plasma at birth may prevent severe disease

99
Q

What age does the parascaris equorum effect foals

A

4 months - 1 year old
Weaning age

Clinical signs seen when migration phase in lungs (eosinophils, larvae and inflammation from TTW or BAL)
Adults are immune
Tx with deworm at 2 month and 4 month etc. and fenbendazole but if clinical only fenbend. And water oil

100
Q

What is average horse gestation

A

340

Longer with colts, older mares or if need early

101
Q

Why is induction of parturition not recommended in horses

A

Last 48 hours of gestation = hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis signals ready for birth, organ development crucial for organ development

102
Q

Closer to parturition Ca goes (above/ below) 10 mmol/ L, K is (above/ below) 35 mmol/L and Na is (above/ below) 30 mmol/ L

A

Above
Above
Below

103
Q

Stage 2 of parturition is defined by

A

Rupture of chorioallantois
Expulsion of foal
Average of 20 minutes

104
Q

How long should stage 3 last (expulsion of fetal membrane)

A

No longer and 3 hours

105
Q

Nursing should occur between what hours after birth

A

2-4

106
Q

If a foal is icterus at birth it is most likely

A

Herpes

107
Q

Say 12 hours post foaling the foal should be able to thermoregulate between what temps

A

100-102

108
Q

Which general is more likely to have a bladder rupture during parturition

A

Male

Colts urinate at 6-8 hrs
Filly at 12-14

109
Q

What is the meconium

A

First feces

110
Q

Which breeds are more likely to have a scrotal hernia

A

Tennessee walking horse

Standard bred

111
Q

If a foal has uveitis it’s likely to also have

A

Sepsis

Cataracts are heredity

112
Q

Which is not a clinical sign of immature foal (<320 days)

A. Floppy ears
B. Tendon laxity
C. Course hair coat
D. Lack of ossification in Carpal and tarsal bones

A

C- silky

113
Q

If the pcv in a neonate is above 46 what probably occurred

A

In utero hypoxia

114
Q

If fibrinogen is greater than 200 at birth. What likely happened

A

In utero infection

115
Q 
Which are normally elevated in neonates.
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Creatinine
C. Bilirubin
D. Phosphorus
E. BUN
F. Lactate
A

A C D

116
Q

What is the most common problem in neonates

A

Septicemia

Risk if fail of PT, perinatal stress, hypoxia, premature, unsanitary, pathogen exposure, old age, long gestation

117
Q

What are some signs of an in utero infection

A 
Leukocytosis
Fibrinogen less than a day old
Uveitis
Thin- inflammatory cytokines
If born with mare with placentitis may not be septic but increased WBC 2-4 days
118
Q

How is SIRS or Fetal Sepsis

A 
Antimicrobials
Pentoxyfylline
NSAIDS- flunixin meglumine or firocoxib
Altenogest- decrease myometrial response 
Anti- oxidants. Vitamin E
119
Q

Infection implies 2 events occurred

A

Foal exposed to microbes

Defense response inadequate

120
Q

How is post partum infection prevented

A

Clean stalls
Mares hygiene around foaling
Cleaning udder and Perineal regions
Umbilical care

121
Q

Specific gravity of colostrum should be above what

A

1.060

IgG should be at lease above 400 12-14 hours old

122
Q

When is colostrum replaced by milk

A

12-24 hours

123
Q

Ability to absorb colostrum starts at what age

A

6-8 hours

Gone by 18

124
Q

Neonatal sepsis is acquired in utero and signs are seen typically at what age

A

1-7 day range

3-4 day most common

125
Q

Actinobacillus induced sepsis is seen 1-2 days old. What other microbes can be seen in sepsis

A

E coli, klebsiella, strep and staph

126
Q

What are clinical signs of the foal with sepsis

A 
Weak
Lethargic
Decreased suckle
Petechiae
Discolored mucous membranes - injection
Cold skin
Fever 
Anterior uveitis
Swollen joints
Mare- placentitis vulvar discharge dystocia
Premature
127
Q

CBC and chem changed in Sepsis include

A 
Leukopenia 
Neutropenia
Left shift
Toxic changes
Hypoglycemia
Elevated lactate
128
Q 
Which is not included in initial stabilization of a septic foal
A. Heat
B. O2
C. Caffeine
D. Insulin
E. Fluids
F. Plasma
G. Blood culture
H. Diazepam if seizures
A

D- glucose

129
Q

What combo of Anton ironical should are used for a septic foal usually

A

Penicillin and aminoglycosides
Not nephrotoxic drugs if suspected birth asphyxia
Monitor creatinine, hydration, albumin
Cefiofur (alone or combo)

130
Q

In herbal what is the treatment plan for foals with sepsis

A 
Supportive care
Fluids
\+/- corticosteroids or pressor
Plasma
O2
AB
Nutritional support
131
Q

When evaluating CN 3 4 and 6. The pupil is in an abnormal position if it is

A

Dorsomedial. ( should be ventromedial)

132
Q

CN 5 and 7 are sensory and motor to face If damaged what signs will you see

A

Hyper responsive to tactile stimulation

Jerky head movements (cerebral)

133
Q

Name all the nerves essential to nursing

A

5 7 9 10 11 12

Swallow
Lip movement
Jaw movement
Tongue movement

134
Q

What are some perinatal complications that lead to seizures

A

Perinatal asphyxia
Intracranial hemorrhage
Cerebral contusions

135
Q

What are some metabolic reasons for seizures

A

Decreased Na, Mg, Ca or glucose
Increased Na
Metabolic acidosis

Idiopathic- Arabian

136
Q

What drugs can cause seizures

A

Theophylline
Toxin
Intracarotid injection

137
Q

Tyzzers ( clostridium piliformus), sepsis and _________ are all infectious causes of seizures

A

Encephalitis

138
Q

Diagnostic options for seizures include what

A

Imaging
CSF tap 5-10 ml
Pt higher than adults

139
Q

Perinatal asphyxia syndrome results in what

A

Dummy foals ( wanderers/ barkers)
Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
Neonatal maladjustment syndrome

140
Q

What causes hypoxia prenatally

A

Reduced o2 delivery
Reduced uterine blood flow
Placental disease
Reduced umbilical flow

141
Q

What causes hypoxia intrapartum

A 
Dystocia
PPS
Uterine inertia
Oxytocin induced labor
C section
142
Q

What other organs are effected by hypoxia other than CNS

A 
Kidney
Gi
CV
Lungs
Liver
143
Q

What is the most prominent clinical sign of PAS

A

Cerebral dysfunction

Along with restlessness, head pressing, abnormal breathing, hyper responsive

144
Q

WhAt can be seen on a CBC CHEM of a uncomplicated PAS

A

Normal

Maybe metabolic blood gas’s derangement

Normal or yellow CSF. ( yellow from blood)

145
Q

What is PAS treated with

A 
Fluids- LRS ascobic acid 
Glucose 
Electrolytes
Enteral nutrition
Maintain BP with pressors or inotropes
Thiamine
MgSO4
NSAIDS
Pentoxyfilline
Vitamin E sid
Allopurinol
146
Q

Bacterial meningitis occurs due to immature IS and more permeable BBB. What is this treated with

A

AB

poor prognosis

147
Q

Hypnatremia may cause ( cerebral dehydration/ cerebral edema) while hypernatremia may cause ( cerebral dehydration/ edema)

A

Edema
Dehydration

Hypo Ca or Mg = titanic rigidity

148
Q

Narcolepsy or cataplexy may occur in ponies or mini horses. How is it treated

A

Imipramine or atropine but no real tx

Is dx with physsostigmine test

149
Q

Cerebellar abiotrophy is when a cerebellum never fully formed resulting in ataxia no menace

T F

A

False- degeneration after fully formed. In Arabians and Oldenburgs

Euthanasia

150
Q

Occipitoatlantoaxial malformation causes paresis and ataxia in which limbs

A

All

Dx- X-ray ( hypoplastic den, fusion of occipito/ atlas)

Euthanasia

151
Q

Shaker foals occur with with toxin

A

Botulinum
Exotoxin that effects PNS. Prevents acetylcholine at NMJ
Ingection of bacteria then toxin made in GIT
Cl signs- dribbling of milk from nose, pupillary dilation. Recumbency - need antitoxin and ventilator

152
Q

Small intestinal distention occurs when what part of the GIT is asphyxiated or septic

A

Illeus

Enteritis- origin of systemic sepsis

153
Q

Colonic tympany is secondary to _________, or _________

A

Meconium impaction
Illeus- colitis
Congenital conditions

154
Q

Peritoneal effusions are caused by

A

Uroperitoneum

Peritonitis

155
Q

A digital rectal exam in neonates looks for what

A

Feces

For colic - also check inguinal area, costochondral junction to detect rib fractures. US

156
Q

What is the most common cause of colic in neonates

A

Meconium impaction- immature colonic pacemaker neurons (cajal)

157
Q

What do we see in meconium impactions

A 
Decreased suckling 
12-24 hours old
Depression
Straining 
Distention
Colonic tympany
158
Q

What is meconium composed of

A

Bile mucus epithelial cells

US gas distended colon and X-rays to dx

159
Q

What are treatments for meconium impactions

A

Fleet enema- phosphate (multiple doses)
Oral laxative- mineral oil. Milk of magnesia
Enema- ivory soap
Enema- acetylcysteine (breaks disulfide bonds with Na HCO3 Catheter in for 30-40 min)
Flunixin butorphanol buscopan for pain

160
Q

What are some differentials for colic in neonates

A 
Sepsis
Diarrhea
GI Ulcer
Volvulus
Peritonitis
Gas distention
Atresia coli
Lethal white foal
161
Q

What are clinical signs of Foal Diarrhea

A

Fever, obtunded, decreased nursing, fecal PCR,

162
Q

What are some diagnostics for Foal Diarrhea

A

Bacterial toxin assay
- c. Dificile toxin A and perfringens entertoxin
Parasitology
Electron microscopy

163
Q

T/ F illeus and enteritis both can have low WBC

A

True

164
Q

How is enteritis in neonates treated

A

AB- broad
Anti- endotoxin (flunixin meglumine, polymixin B)
Fluids
GI Protestants ( bio sponge bismuth subsalicylate)

165
Q

Foal heat diarrhea is the most common cause of diarrhea in foals

T/F

A

True

Occurs 7-12 days old
Hypersecretion into SI overwhelms absorptive capacity of immature colon (changing of microbiome)

166
Q

After 12-24 hours of life what should USG be

A

<1.008

167
Q

The umbilical vein becomes the (round ligament/ falciform ligament) the umbilical arteries become (round ligament/ falciform ligament)

A

Round

Falciform

168
Q

Patent urachus is a preliminary feature of

A

Umbilical infection

169
Q

Uropertoneum is most commonly caused by

A

Ruptured bladder

Ureteral rupture
Urachal leaks

170
Q

Which of the following are increased in uroperitoneum

A. Na
B. K
C. Creatinine

A

B C

Na decreased

171
Q

Abdominal fluid of a uroperitoneum has a ( higher/ lower) creatinine than serum

A

Higher. 2x

172
Q

What is addressed first in a uroperitoneum

A

Hyperkalemia
Drain urine
LRS. Dextrose

173
Q

Omphalophlebitis involves what structures

A

Arteritis
Phlebitis
Urachitis

US helps Dx

174
Q

Omphalophlebitis is treated with

A

AB
Chloranphenicol
Trimethoprim sulfa with rifampin

175
Q

What are we looking for when we ultrasound an umbilical hernia

A

Bowel
Omentum
Fluid
Measure wall thickness and distention and peristalsis

176
Q

Inguinal hernia may occur from what

A

Large inguinal rings (Tennessee walking, standardbred, draft)
Trauma
Straining- increased abdominal pressure

177
Q

Describe the difference between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia

A

Indirect- GIT through intact vaginal ring (within vaginal tunic), reducible Manual reduction in few days
Direct- sx. Vaginal tunic tears, GIT under skin, not reducible
>5cm will unlikely heal on own

178
Q

Ectopic ureters are diagnosed by

A

Urine dribbling

179
Q

Increased K usually means an azotemia is

A

Post renal

180
Q

With Hyperkalemia fluids and dextrose are given why

A

Will make insulin to drive K into cell

181
Q

What are some non nephrotoxic AB

A

Gentamyacin
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline

182
Q

If a horse has calculi its beat that they don’t eat what

A

Alfalfa because high K

183
Q

What are some clinical signs of bladder stones

A 
Hematuria (post exercise)
Dysuria
Colic
Pyuria
Incontinence

PU- males
Manual extraction in female

184
Q

If urine is turbid what is likely in it?

A

Ca carbonate

185
Q

Azotemia + Isosthenuria=

Pre renal
Renal
Post renal

A

Renal

186
Q

NSAID nephrotoxity is seen as what in a necropsy if the kidney

A

Papillary necrosis

187
Q

When should ARF be checked regardless of clinical signs

A

Dehydration- few other symptoms

Will see azotemia, decreased NaCl and increased K

188
Q

What is seen on a UA of a horse with AKF

A 
Isothenuric
RBC
Pt
Granular casts
GGT

Treat with Fluids and dopamine if not working. Banamine 1 time

189
Q

How much is considered polyuria in a horse

A

> 50ml/kg/day
25 L a day

About 100/ml/kg/day of drinking is normal

190
Q

What is the most common cause of polydipsia in horses

A

Psychogenic

Low USG b/c of this (<1.005)

191
Q

What are other reasons for polydipsia

A

Renal failure
PPID (older horse)
Sepsis (endotoxin on brain)
Diabetes insipidus

192
Q

When should a water deprivation test be stopped

A

If BW loss is > 5% Or if dehydrated

Modified- 40ml/kg/day throughout day

193
Q

CRF is considered congenital if the horses is younger than 5 years old and there is no____

A

ARF

Acquired is more common

194
Q

What are some signs of CRF

A 
Lethargy
Weight loss
N waste- toxic to gut= GIT ulcers
Pt losing enteropathy
NH4 in brain = sleepy  
Tartar on teeth
Ventral edema- decreased on orig pressure, decreased albumin and increased urea and renin
PU PD
Decreased EPO
Fish smell
Pt in urine
195
Q

CRF treatment in causes good quality grass, no alfalfa, fat and omega 3

T/F

A

True

196
Q

Preputial or mammary gland swelling is a sign of _____

A

Obesity

197
Q

T/F there seems to be no genetic component that may predispose a horse to EMS

A

False- probably is

198
Q

An enhanced metabolic efficiency may lead to ______

A

Obesity- less calories to maintain body weight

199
Q

T/F Glucose concentrations are normal in horses with insulin dysregulation

A

True. Decreased insulin receptors

200
Q 
What are elevated in horses with EMS
A. GGT
B. AST
C. Lipid accumulation 
D. Glucose
E. Triglycerides
A

A
B
C
E

201
Q

Name the mechanisms that lead to insulin resistance

A

Defects in IR receptors
Defects in insulin signaling pathway
Defects in glucose transporter 4 synthesis, translocation or function

202
Q

Inflammation in EMS causes all the following. Except
A. Higher mRNA expression of IL- 8 and 6 in uncalled ligament adipose tissue
B. Support cresty neck
C. Decreased leptin
D. Decreased adiponectin

A

C- increased leptin (released by adipose tissue when energy is plentiful or stimulating)

203
Q

How is EMS diagnosed

A

Glucose insulin (regular, fasting, after feeding, after dextrose and insulin given)

204
Q

Glucose above 110 can be indicative of

A

Diabetes

Insulin dysregulation

205
Q

Fasting insulin >50 is indicative of

A

Dysregulation of insulin or EMS

206
Q

What test is Gold Dtandard for diagnosing ID or EMS

A

Combined Glucose Insulin Test

Not practical in field

207
Q

What percent of the ideal body weight should be fed to a horse we are trying to have lose weight

A

1.5%. Then 1.2 if no improvement

With carbs less than 10%

208
Q

What can be given if all other weight loss strategies have not worked

A

Levithyroxine sodium- increases thyroxine and stimulated nasal metabolic rate
Metformin hydrochloride- activates AMP- activated protein kinase
Sodium glucose transporter receptor 2 inhibitor - expensive

209
Q

What acts on the pars intermedia

A

Dopamine- inhibitory
thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

Makes ACTH
A-MSH
CLIP
B- endophorins

210
Q

PPID means a horse doesn’t have enough what

A

Dopamine

211
Q

What does MSH decrease

A

Inflammatory cytokines
Chemokines

Potent

212
Q

Corticotropin like intermediate lobe peptide deduces what

A

Pain. Analgesia associated with inflammation

213
Q

ACTH and MSH are created in what season

A

Fall

214
Q

What is the most important risk factor in PPID

A

18-20 yo

215
Q

What is the most common cause of laminitis

A

Endocrine disease

216
Q

Loss of ADH from pressure on para nervosa leads to

A

PU PD. (Hypercortisolemia)

Insulin resistance occurs is PPID

Equine (10 decks)

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